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CC2 - exam preparation > GI infections > Flashcards

GI infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common type of bacteria in the gut?

A

Bacteroides and GNR

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2
Q

Name two causes of oseophagitis?

A

CMV and candida infection

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3
Q

Name a cause of gastritis?

A

H.pylori

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4
Q

What is a liver abcess?

A

A liver abscess is a mass filled with pus inside the liver.[1] Common causes are abdominal conditions such as appendicitis or diverticulitis due to haematogenous spread through the portal vein.[2] It can also develop as a complication of a liver injury.

Pyogenic liver abscess, which is most often polymicrobial, accounts for 80% of hepatic abscess cases in the United States.

Amoebic liver abscess due to Entamoeba histolytica accounts for 10% of cases. The incidence is much higher in developing countries.

Fungal abscess, most often due to Candida species, accounts for less than 10% of cases.

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5
Q

What are symptoms of a gallbladder infection?

A

Charcot triad: jaundice, pain and fever

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6
Q

What is a common cause of pancreatitis?

A

Mumps

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7
Q

What are common causes of enteritis of the small intestine?

A

Rotavirus, norovirus, GNR

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8
Q

What are the common causative agents of infection of the large bowel?

A

Colitis? CMV, clostririduum, TB

Diverticulitis? GNR, anaerobes

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9
Q

What are the different parts of the Bristol stool chart?

A

Bristol stool chart = 1-7

Type 1 is hard, lumpy (like maltersers)/ pellet like

Type 2 - is hard, sauasage like but with lumps (like a lion bar)

Type 3 -(flake like) sausage with cracks

Type 4 - smooth (like a ripple bar)

Type 5 - soft pellets (like revels)

Type 6 - (soft like ice cream)

Type 7 - (watery like chocolate milk)

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10
Q

What is the most important thing to prevent in gastro-enteritis?

A

Dehydration

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11
Q

What is the most common risk factor for oesophagitis? What should you check for?

A

HIV status or immunocompromised

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12
Q

What is the 2nd most common causative agent of oesophagitis?

A

CMV

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13
Q

What is a useful way to test for oesophagitis caused by CMV?

A

There was a significant association between the detection of owl’s eye inclusion bodies and positive CMV PCR (p < 0.001)

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14
Q

How is CMV treated?

A

Treat immunosuppression +/- ganciclovir

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15
Q

How is thrush treated?

A

Check HIV status and treat with fluconazole

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16
Q

What is a test for H pylori?

A

Urease breath test

CLO test Rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test (Campylobacter-like organism test), is a rapid diagnostic test for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori.

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17
Q

What diseases can untreated H pylori cause?

A

Gastric cancer

Gastric MALT lymphoma

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18
Q

What is the treatment for H pylori?

A

PPI

Amoxicillin / metronidazole

Clarithromycin

1 week

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19
Q

What does it mean if diarrhea is watery?

A
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20
Q

What does it mean if the diarrhea is bloody?

A

Large intestine is affected

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21
Q

What is a staph aureus food infection like?

A

Its incubation period lasts one to six hours,[38] with the illness itself lasting from 30 minutes to 3 days

Spores survive, despite organism dying in gut.

Caused by uncooked food

Gram positive

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22
Q

What is the incubation period of a S aureus infection?

A

Its incubation period lasts one to six hours,[38] with the illness itself lasting from 30 minutes to 3 days

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23
Q

What symptoms are more common in S aureus infection? Which one symptom is not common?

A

Vomiting

Fever

Abdo pain

(less chance of diarrhoea)

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24
Q

What is Clostridium perfringens?

A

Gram positive

Spore form once ingsted

Incubation time is between 18 and 24 hours after ingestion of contaminated food.

Resolves in 1 day

Can cause diarrhoea, abdo pain and fever.

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25
Q

What type of bacteria is clostridium perfringens?

A

Gram positive

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26
Q

What is the incubation period? How long does it last?

A

18-24 hours

But lasts once day

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27
Q

Which antibiotics increase risk of C. difficle?

A

Ones that start with C (+ A, E, I. O, U)

A - co-amoxiclav

E - ceftriaxone

I - clindamycin

O - ciprofloaxicin

U - PPI

28
Q

How is a clostridium difficicle infection treated?

A

Mild - metronidazole (IV or oral)

Moderate/ severe - vancomycin (oral or rectal). Oral as cannot pass membrane

Recurrent infections - treat with Fidaxomicin

Therapy

29
Q

What are the main symptoms of c difficile infection?

A

Foul smelling diarrhoea, dehydration, shock, pain

30
Q

What are the two types of infection linked to Bacillus cereus?

A

Emetic (1-5 h) like S .aureus

Diarrhoeal (18-24h) like C difficule

Rice not heated enough

31
Q

What medication should be given orally?

A

Vancomycin as doesn’t pass

32
Q

What is the incubation of cholera?

A

1-5 days

33
Q

Where has there been a recent outbreak of cholera?

A

Yemen

34
Q

How is cholera treated?

A

Rehydration

Ciprofloxacin

35
Q

What does salmonella typhi cause?

A

Enteric fever

36
Q

What does salmonella typhi invade?

A

Peyer’s patches

37
Q

What is the pathogenesis of salmonella typhi?

A

Incubation 5-12 days before infection starts

38
Q

What is the pathogenesis of salmonella typhi?

A
39
Q

How is salmonella typhi treated?

A

Ceftriaxone, ampicillin, meropenem (cell wall inhibition)

40
Q

What is shigella?

A

Bloody diarrhea and tenesmus

Can cause reactive arhritis, conjuctivitus, HUS

41
Q

Why should you not give antibiotics in E coli 0157

A

Causes more release of toxin

42
Q

What is the incubation of campylobacter?

A

3 days

43
Q

What can shigella cause?

A

HUS and reactive arthritis

44
Q

What does giardia cause?

A

Flattened villi, lactose intolerance

45
Q

What is Whipple’s disease?

A

Affects absorption caused by Tropheryma whippelii.

46
Q

What type of testing can be done on stool?

A

MC and S

C diff antigen testing

Ova, cysts and parasites checking

47
Q

What are the components of gram stains?

A

Crystal violet

Iodine

Alcohol

Safranin

48
Q

Is staphylococcus aureus coagulase positive or negative?

A

Positive

49
Q

Is staphlococcus epidermis coagulase positive or negative?

A

Negative

50
Q

What separates the upper and lower respiratory tract?

A

Vocal folds

51
Q

What is coryza?

A

Means runny or stuffy nose

52
Q

What percent of sore throats/ pharyngitis are viral?

A

90%

53
Q

What is an important bacterial cause of pharyngitis?

A

GAS - group A strep

54
Q

What is Lemierre’s syndrome?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorim

Lemierre’s syndrome refers to infectious thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein. It most often develops as a complication of a bacterial sore throat infection in young, otherwise healthy adults. The thrombophlebitis is a serious condition and may lead to further systemic complications such as bacteria in the blood or septic emboli.

55
Q

What is Lemierre;s syndrome?

A

Clots in jugular caused by fusobacterium necrophorum

56
Q

What are some causes of pharnygitis?

A

90% viral e.g. coronavirus

Group A strep pygenes - beta haemolytic

Group B and C strep

Diptheria

EBV

Lemiere’s (rare)

57
Q

What is Lancefield classification for?

A

Strep

Lancefield grouping is a system of classification that classifies catalase -negative Gram-positive cocci based on the carbohydrate composition of bacterial antigens found on their cell walls.

58
Q

What classification can be used for streptococcus?

A

Lancefield

59
Q

What is the Centor score?

A

For whether there is an exudate

60
Q

What is the FEVERPAIN score?

A

The FeverPAIN Score for Strep Pharyngitis was developed to try and help assess which patients with pharyngitis have streptococcal infections.

61
Q

What scoring systems can be used for pharyngitis?

A

FEVERPAIN and CENTOR

62
Q

What is the treatment for GAS?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Common brand names: Penicillin V

(if allergic macrolide clarithomycin)

63
Q

What can GAS cause if untreated?

A

Quinsy

Scalet fever

Rheumatic fever

Glumerulonephritos

64
Q

Where is diptheria common?

A

Eastern europe and Bangladesh

65
Q

How long is the incubation period for infectious mononucleosis?

A

1 month.

66
Q

How should infective mononucleosis be managed?

A

Avoid contact sports for 6 weeks

67
Q
A

CC2 - exam preparation (76 decks)

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