Cardiovascular medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is type 1 heart block?

A
  • The PR interval is more than 0.2 s/ 200ms/ 3-5 small boxes
  • P to QRS is 1:1
  • Prolonged AV conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is mobitz I Wenckebach heart block?

A
  • P to QRS complex gets longer
  • until a QRS is dropped
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is second degree heart block?Mobitz 2

A

P waves equally apart/

Many QRS dropped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the causes of aortic stenosis? How does this differ in the older and younger patient?

A

Degenerative valve disease is the most common aetiology in older patients (the commonest group) with aortic stenosis.

In younger patients a bicuspid valve is the commonest underlying cause

Valve replacement is the treatment of choice in patients fit enough to undergo the procedure. If the patient is unfit for open heart surgery a valvuloplasty or transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) may be attempted.

Exercise testing is contraindicated in aortic stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name three signs of aortic stenosis?

A

Many cardinal features of aortic stenosis are present in this patient with a slow rising pulse, narrow pulse pressure and ejection systolic murmur radiating to the neck.

  • Slow rising pulse
  • Ejection systolic murmur
  • Narrow pulse pressure

Mitral regurgitation typically produces a pansystolic murmur, which does not radiate to the neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the signs of an anteroseptal myocardial infarction on an ECG?

A

There is ST elevation in the anterolateral leads V1-V4. To confirm that this is an acute STEMI there should be reciprocal changes on the opposite wall: there is T wave inversion in the inferior leads 3 and AVF.

Left Ventricular aneurysms can present with ST elevation together with Q waves alone but without the reciprocal changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the signs of MI?

A

This clinical history with chest discomfort, nausea and pain in the jaw should suggest a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Clammy and sweating as well are signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can be used to study valvular and septal changes to the heart?

A

Echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Suggest some features of Wolf Parkinson White Syndrome seen on an ECG?

A

The combination of preexcitation on the ECG and paroxysmal narrow complex tachycardia (AVRT) is known as the Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome. It is due to the presence of an accessory pathway that links the atria and the ventricles electrically. It is more common for this to be left sided (i.e. between the left atrium and left ventricle) than right sided. It is important not only because it causes symptoms from the AVRT but also because if the patient develops atrial fibrillation, this can be conducted very rapidly down the accessory pathway which may lead to ventricular fibrillation and sudden death (as was the case with patient’s younger brother).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Suggest two drugs that could help with WPW syndrome?

A

Drugs that are safe to use with less AV node blocking ability are flecainide and amiodarone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should be initial management for a heart attack?

A

The immediate management from those choices should be ECG, Aspirin 300mg, and oxygen saturation monitoring. Mnemonic MONA= morphine, oxygen, nitrates and asprin.

Subsequently, a portable CXR is indicated (the patient should be kept in the resuscitation area and mobile film performed), oxygen saturations can be quickly performed with observations, the patient should be sat up and given oxygen via a face mask if oxygen saturation are less than 90%. Diamorphine is correct but should be titrated to pain (20mg is too high initial dose).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How should heart attack be treated?

A

Intravenous opiates (morphine or diamorphine), high flow oxygen only if saturations are below the expected range, oral Aspirin 300mg and sublingual GTN are the immediate management of the patient. Intravenous Metoclopramide 10mg is also given to counteract the emetic effects of the opiates.

The mnemonic: MONA can be used to help remember the immediate management of patients:

M – morphine

O – oxygen

N – nitrogycerin

A – aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the medications for secondary prevention of heart attack?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg OD (could also be ticagrelor 90 mg bd or prasugrel 10 mg od which are stronger antiplatelets), Bisoprolol up to 10 mg OD, Ramipril up to 10mg OD, Aspirin 75mg OD, Atorvastatin 80mg OD are correct. The NICE guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI recommend that all patients should be offered an ACEi, dual antiplatelet therapy, a beta-blocker and a statin.

Use Braca

Bisoprolol, Ramipril, Atorvastatin, Clopidogrel, Apirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is aortic dissection?

A

It is a result of the inner layer of the aortic wall tearing, leading to blood flowing through thereby dissecting the inner from middle layer. Aortic dissection is three times more common in males compared to females. There is also an increased prevalence amongst Afro-Caribbeans. Most aortic dissections occur due to arterial wall deterioration. This is commonly associated with high blood pressure, which is present in over half of people who have an aortic dissection. Aortic dissection may be caused by hereditary connective-tissue disorders, such as Marfan syndrome and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. It may also be caused by birth defects of the heart and blood vessels, such as coarctation of the aorta, patent ductus arteriosus, and defects of the aortic valve. Other causes include arteriosclerosis and trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common classification for aortic dissection?

A

The most common classification of aortic dissections is the Stanford classification. They are split into type A when the ascending aorta is involved and type B when the descending aorta is involved. This also has a relevance on treatment with virtually all type A dissections requiring surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is aortic dissection treated?

A

Anti-hypertensives, usually sodium nitroprusside plus a beta-blocker, are given intravenously to reduce the heart rate and blood pressure.

Oxygen and analgesia would also be of benefit for symptom control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some other features of aortic dissection?

A

Primarily higher blood pressure and shearing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is a type A aortic dissection treated?

A

In this patient the most important initial treatment should be analgesia, oxygen and IV antihypertensive agents to reduce blood pressure to a safe and narrow range around 110/70 mmHg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a side effect of amiodarone?

A

Blue-grey syndrome may occur in patients taking amiodarone for several years. The blue-grey discolouration of the skin appears mainly (but not only) on places that are exposed to direct sunlight (this means it affects mainly the face and hands). It is caused by accumulation of amiodarone and its metabolites in the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is HOCM?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) which is also called hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cause HOCM?

A

HCM is an autosomal dominant condition and each child (regardless of sex) has, therefore, a 50% chance of the abnormal gene being passed on to them. Many people with the abnormal gene will not however show any symptoms or die from cardiac problems but may only show evidence of HCM on detailed investigation i.e. the expressivity of the gene varies from individual to individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What anti-hypertensives are best for diabetes?

A

JNC VI recommends angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors as preferred agents, with calcium channel blockers (CCBs) and low-dose diuretics as alternatives. 6 [Evidence level C, consensus/expert guidelines] Angiotensin II receptor blockers also show promise in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long after heart atatck does troponin rise?

Who on average produced more troponin - men or women?

What do you need to check after the 3-4 hours?

A

3-4 hours

Men

Whether it increases by 20% or more

24
Q

What is acute myocarditis and what are the symptoms?

A

This young patient presents with new-onset stabbing chest pain on a background of recent coxsackie B viral illness. This is a classical presentation of myocarditis, an inflammation of the myocardial muscle. It can cause severe stabbing chest pain, arrhythmias, dyspnoea, elevated inflammatory markers, and cardiac enzymes. On electrocardiogram, it can appear as tachycardia, arrhythmias, and possibly ST-segment elevation and T wave inversion, as in the case of this patient. His blood tests show elevated inflammatory markers, cardiac enzymes, and BNP, which is a classic presentation of myocarditis. The lack of risk factors for acute coronary syndrome and young age, make myocarditis the most likely diagnosis with the aforementioned signs and symptoms.

25
Q

Suggest 5 causes of infective myocarditis

A

Trichinella

Trypanosmma cruzi

Lyme disease

COXSACKIE

Toxoplasma gondii

remember tropinin and t wave inversion

26
Q

What is first line treatment for pericarditis?

A

First line management of acute pericarditis involves combination of NSAID and colchicine

27
Q

What is a contraindication of cardioversion for AF?

A

For cardioversion of AF: patients must either be anticoagulated or have had symptoms for < 48 hours to reduce the risk of stroke.

28
Q

What is first line for SVT?

A

The first-line management of SVT is vagal manoeuvres: e.g. Valsalva manoeuvre or carotid sinus massage

29
Q

What structural changes occurs in Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

The likely diagnosis here is Eisenmenger’s syndrome secondary to an uncorrected ventricular septal defect (VSD).

Right ventricular hypertrophy is likely to occur as the left to right shunt through the VSD exposes the right ventricle to the high pressures from the left ventricle and this promotes remodelling of the right ventricle. The Right ventricle hypertrophies until its pressures overcome that of the left ventricle and thus the shunt is reversed (right to left) resulting in cyanosis.

30
Q

In a diabetic which drug should be withheld before angiography?

A

Patients who are high-risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for a minimum of 48 hours and until the renal function has been shown to be normal

31
Q

How should ISMN be taken?

A

Asymmetric dosing regimes should be used for standard-release ISMN to prevent nitrate tolerance

32
Q

A 52-year-old male presents with tearing central chest pain. On examination he has an aortic regurgitation murmur. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. What is a likely differential?

A

Proximal aortic dissection

33
Q

A 52-year-old male presents with central chest pain. On examination he has an mitral regurgitation murmur. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1 to V6. There is no ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. What is a likely diagnosis?

A

Anterior myocardial infarction

34
Q

How do you treat NSTEMI?

A

fondaparinux should be given in addition to aspirin to all patients unless high bleeding risk

35
Q

What is a diagnostic tool for angina?

A

The first-line investigation recommended by NICE is contrast-enhanced CT coronary angiogram cCTA. The new NICE guideline no longer recommends using pre-test likelihood of the CAD to determine the appropriate first-line investigation.

36
Q

What is Wellens syndrome?

A

Wellens’ syndrome is an electrocardiographic manifestation of critical proximal left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery stenosis in people with unstable angina. Originally thought of as two separate types, A and B, it is now considered an evolving wave form,

37
Q

What are pathological Q waves?

A
38
Q

What are U waves? What causes them?

A

Electrolyte abnormalities

Hypothermia

Digoxin

Amiodarone

39
Q

What effect does digoxin have on the ECG?

A

It causes ST depression known as salvador dali mark or reverse tick

40
Q

What is a useful marker for re-infarction or second heart attack?

A

CK-MB and tropinin rises over 4-8 hours. CK-MB lasts for 3-4 days, whereas troponin lasts for 7 days.

41
Q

What is the difference between acute and subacute I.E?

A

Acute is normal valve, and acute onset whereas subactute is previously abnormal valve and insidious in onset. In subacute most recover, whereas in acute its more necrotising and has 50% mortality.

42
Q

What is the difference between acute and subacute endocarditis?

A

Acute = fast onset, normal valve, 50% mortality and necrotising

Subacute = insidious in onset, faulty valve, low mortality

43
Q

What bacteria cause endocarditis for a (i) normal valve, (ii) faulty and (iii) prosthetic?

A

Normal = alpha haemolytic, subacute

Faulty = s.aureus,

Prosthetic = s. epidermidis

44
Q

What is an example of a thiazide-like diuretic?

A

Indapamide

45
Q

What are some side effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

Hypercalcemia

Up - erectile dysfunctione

Glucose interolerance

Gout

Electrolyte disturbance

46
Q

What is the effect of hypocalcemia?

A

Longer QT

47
Q

What is the most common form of valvular disease?

A

Floppy mitral valve

Carlow syndrome, click systolic

48
Q

What is fish mouth mitral stenosis?

A

Valvulitis linked with rheumaric fever

49
Q

What does this show?

A

Pathological Q waves

50
Q

A previous ECG taken during an episode of palpitations revealed absent P waves with irregular QRS complexes.

Which of the following is the most suitable management for this patient?

A

Flecanide (pill in pocket) rhytm control

51
Q

What type of deviation is WPW and PE?

A

rIGHT SIDED

52
Q

How is atrial flutter treated?

A

Bisopropolol

53
Q

What is a PMC?

A

Percutaneous mitral commisurotomy (done when less than 1.5cm)

54
Q

Aortic stenosis changes

A

Angina
Breathlessness
Collapse
Death
Exercise intolerance + enlarged heart

Sharon - syncope
Always - angina
remembers - reduced
exerice tolerance

55
Q

What are the different types of infective effusion

A

If pH is above 7.2 its empyema but below is parapneumonia

56
Q
A