*FAR Part 91 Flashcards

General Operating and Flight Rules

1
Q

What does Part 91 cover?

A

Prescribes the rules governing the operation of aircraft within the United States, including the waters within 3 NM of the U.S. coast

§ 91.1(a)

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2
Q

Who is directly responsible for, and is the final authority of an aircraft?

A

The Pilot in Command

§ 91.3(a)

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3
Q

When may a pilot deviate from any regulation

A

Any in-flight emergency requiring immediate action and only to the extent required

§ 91.3(b)

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4
Q

If a pilot deviates from any rule, how long do they have to submit a written report and who must that report be submitted to?

A

Upon request to the Administrator

§ 91.3(c)

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5
Q

Can a passenger intimidate a crewmember?

A

No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a crewmember in the performance of their duties aboard an aircraft

§ 91.11

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6
Q

Who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is airworthy?

A

The Pilot in Command

§ 91.7(b)

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7
Q

The aircraft POH states that there is to be a placard that says “OIL 6 QUARTS.” During the preflight, it is missing. Is the airplane airworthy?

A

No

§ 91.9(a)

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8
Q

If an aircraft is missing its approved flight manual, is it still airworthy?

A

No

§ 91.9(b)

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9
Q

Can a pilot do a low flyby over a pasture of cows?

A

No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or wreckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another

§ 91.13(a)

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10
Q

Can you drop objects from your aircraft?

A

Yes, so long that the object to be dropped does not create a hazard to persons or property, and reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property

§ 91.15

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11
Q

What are the restrictions on alcohol and drug use according to part 91?

A
  1. No alcohol within 8 hours
  2. While under the influence of alcohol (i.e. hangover or still drunk)
  3. While using any drug affecting their faculties contrary to safety
  4. Must have BAC BELOW 0.04

§ 91.17(a)

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12
Q

What is the maximum BAC content allowed to operate an aircraft?

A

Less than 0.04

§ 91.17(a)(4)

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13
Q

Can a pilot allow a person who appears to be intoxicated to board the aircraft?

A

Only in an emergency or if they are a medical patient under proper care

§ 91.17(b)

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14
Q

If the FAA has reason to believe a pilot flew while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, how long would they have to submits the results of the test taken?

A

Upon request of the FAA, and the result of each test taken within 4hrs after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember

§ 91.17(c)(2) & (d)

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15
Q

Can a person carry an narcotic drugs, marihuana, depressant, or stimulant drugs aboard their aircraft?

A

No person may opperate an aircraft with knowledge that narcotic drugs, marijuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances are carried in the aircraft.

§ 91.19(a)

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16
Q

What electronic devices are allowed to be used on an aircraft?

A

None, unless the operator of the aircraft has determined that it will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft

§ 91.21(b)

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17
Q

Can the FAA use NASA reports or information therein in any enforcement action?

A

Yes but only information concerning accidents or criminal offenses

§ 91.25

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18
Q

What preflight actions should a pilot take before any flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning that flight

§ 91.103

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19
Q

What preflight actions are required for any flight?

A

Runway lengths at airports of intended use TOLD

§ 91.103(b)

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20
Q

When must the PIC have their shoulder harness fastened?

A

During takeoff and landing, unless not equipped or it interferes with their duties

§ 91.105(b)

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21
Q

Is the PIC required to brief passengers on how to use the seat belt?

A

Yes. Eeach person on board must be briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt

§ 91.107(a)(1)

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22
Q

When must passengers and the PIC keep their seat belt fastened?

A

During movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing

§ 91.107(a)(3)

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23
Q

Before what age can a child sit on their parent’s lap?

A

If the child has not reached his or her second birthday

§ 91.107(a)(3)(i)

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24
Q

When may a passenger use the floor of the aircraft as a seat?

A

When that person is on board for the purpose of sport parachuting

§ 91.107(a)(3)(ii)

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25
Q

When may a pilot operate with the door open or removed?

A

Only if each individual occupies an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured during all phases of flight

§ 91.108(b)(1)

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26
Q

What must be done prior to operating in a formation flight?

A

Must have prior arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation

§ 91.111(B)

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27
Q

You are leading a flight of four airplanes on a sightseeing tour over the Red River Valley while charging a fee of $40 per seat. Is this legal?

A

No

§ 91.111(c)

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28
Q

What aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress

§ 91.113(c)

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29
Q

When two aircraft of the same categories are converging, except head-on, who has right-of-way?

A

The aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way

§ 91.113(d)

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30
Q

When two aircraft of different categories are converging, except head-on, who has right-of-way?

A
  1. Balloon
  2. Glider
  3. Airship
  4. Powered parachute, weight-shift-control aircraft, airplane, rotorcraft

Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft

§ 91.113(d)

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31
Q

When two airplanes are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, what should each pilot do?

A

Both aircraft should alter course to the right

§ 91.113(e)

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32
Q

Which side should the pilot of an overtaking aircraft pass the slower aircraft?

A

The right

§ 91.113(f)

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33
Q

If an aircraft is overtaking another aircraft, who has right-of-way?

A

The aircraft being overtaken

§ 91.113(f)

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34
Q

Who has the right-of-way: an aircraft landing or on final, or an aircraft that has just landed and is taxiing down the runway?

A

The aircraft on final has the right of way, except that they cannot take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface

§ 91.113(g)

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35
Q

Two aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, who has the right-of-way?

A

The aircraft at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft

§ 91.113(g)

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36
Q

If an aircraft on water is crossing another aircraft or vessels course, who has right-of-way?

A

The aircraft or vessel to the other’s right

§ 91.115(b)

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37
Q

When an aircraft, or and aircraft and vessel, are approaching head-on, or nearly so, what action should be taken?

A

Each shall alter course to the right

§ 91.115(c)

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38
Q

If an aircraft or vessel is being over taken, who has right-of-way?

A

The aircraft or vessel being overtaken

§ 91.115(d)

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39
Q

What is the speed limit below 10,000ft MSL?

A

250 KIAS

(288 mph)

§ 91.117(a)

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40
Q

What is the speed limit below 2,500’ within 4nm of the primary airport of a Class C or D?

A

200 KIAS

(230 mph)

§ 91.117(b)

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41
Q

What is the speed limit in Class B airspace?

A

None listed

Aircraft must follow all other speed rules such as 250 knots below 10,000ft MSL

§ 91.117(b)

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42
Q

What is the speed limit below Class B airspace and within a VFR corridor?

A

200 KIAS

(230 mph)

§ 91.117(c)

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43
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing if a power unit fails an emergency landing with out undue hazard to person or property on the surface

§ 91.119(a)

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44
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

§ 91.119(b)

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45
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude over other than congested areas?

A

500 feet above the surface, except over water in which case the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

§ 91.119(c)

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46
Q

An aircraft shall be operated with the current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within how many miles of the aircraft?

A

100nm

§ 91.121(a)(1)(i)

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47
Q

If there is no station along the route and within 100nm of the aircraft, what should be done?

A

Use the current report altimeter setting of an appropriate available station

§ 91.121(a)(1)(ii)

48
Q

If there is no current altitmeter setting, what should the altimeter be set to?

A

The elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure

§ 91.121(a)(1)(iii)

49
Q

What should a pilot do if uncertain of an ATC clearance?

A

Request clarification

§ 91.123(a)

50
Q

What should a pilot do if they have to deviate from an ATC clearance due to an emergency or in reponse to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory?

A

Notify ATC as soon as possible

§ 91.123(c)

51
Q

If a pilot is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a report within how long?

A

48 hours if requested to the manager of that ATC facility

§ 91.123(d)

52
Q

Steady Green light from tower

A

On the surface: cleared for takeoff

In the air: cleared to land

§ 91.125

53
Q

Flashing Green light from tower

A

On the surface: cleared to taxi

In the air: return for landing (to be followed by a steady green at proper time)

§ 91.125

54
Q

Steady Red light from tower

A

On the surface: stop

In the air: give way to other aircraft and continue circle

§ 91.125

55
Q

Flashing Red light from tower

A

On the surface: taxi clear of runway in use

In the air: airport unsafe - do not land

§ 91.125

56
Q

Flashing White light from tower

A

On the surface: return to starting point on airport

In the air: not applicable

§ 91.125

57
Q

Alternating Red and Green light from tower

A

On the surface: exercise extreme caution

In the air: exercise extreme caution

§ 91.125

58
Q

Unless otherwise specified what is the direction of the pattern at uncontrolled field?

A

Left 91.126(b)

59
Q

When must two-way radio communications be established with a control tower at a class G or E airport?

A

Communications must be established prior to 4nm from the airport, up to and including 2,500’ agl 91.126(d)/91.127(c)

60
Q

If departing from a satellite airport underlying Class D or C airspace when must you contact the ATC facility?

A

As soon as practicable after departing 91.129(c)(2)(ii)

61
Q

What conditions must be met prior to operating in a TFR issued for a disaster area?

A

Participating in hazard relief activities

Carrying law enforcement

On an IFR flight plan

Carrying properly accredited news representatives

91.137(c)

62
Q

A private pilot who acts as PIC for passenger carrying flights for charitable events must have at least how many hours total flight time?

A

500hrs 91.146(b)(9)

63
Q

What is the purpose of a TFR in the vicinity of a disaster area?

A

To protect persons and property on the surface Provide a safe environment for the operations of disaster relief aircraft Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft over the incident 91.137(a)

Protect declared national disasters for humanitarian reasons in Hawaii (91.138)

Protect the president, vice president or other public figures (91.141)

Provide safe environment for space agency operations (91.143)

64
Q

Special flight restriction apply when the altimeter exceeds or will exceed what value?

A

31” Hg 91.144(a)

65
Q

NOTAMs for sporting events are normally limited to ___ nm radius and _____ agl

A

3nm radius 2,500’ 91.145(e)(2)

66
Q

NOTAMs for aerial demonstrations are normally limited to ___ nm radius and _____ for high performance aircraft and ______ for parachute operations.

A

5nm radius 17,000’ for high performance 13,000’ for parachute operations 91.145(e)(1)

67
Q

How long before an aerial demonstration or sporting event will a NOTAM be issued?

A

30 days 91.145(f)

68
Q

What is the maximum number of charitable passenger-carrying flights a pilot can fly in one year?

A

4 91.146(d)

69
Q

Passenger carrying flights for charitable events must remain within how many miles of the original airport?

A

25sm 91.146(b)(1)

70
Q

What is the required information to file a VFR flight plan? (9 elements)

A
  1. The aircraft identification number, and if necessary, its radio call sign
  2. The type of the aircraft, or in the case of a formation flight, the type of each aircraft and the number of aircraft in the formation
  3. The full name and address of the pilot in command or, in the case of a formation flight, the formation commander
  4. The point and proposed time of departure
  5. The proposed route, cruising altitude (or flight level), and true airspeed at that altitude
  6. The point of first intended landing and the estimated elapsed time until over that point
  7. The amount of fuel on board (in hours)
  8. The number of persons in the aircraft, except where that information is otherwise readily available to the FAA
  9. Any other information the pilot in command or ATC believes is necessary for ATC purposes

91.153(a)

71
Q

When must a pilot be instrument rated to request special VFR in Alaska?

A

When the sun is 6 degrees or more below the horizon 91.157(b)(4)

72
Q

Special VFR operations may only be conducted when?

A

With an ATC Clearance Clear of Clouds Flight vis of 1sm Between sunrise and sunset (unless IFR) 91.157(b)

73
Q

Above what altitude must a pilot comply with appropriate VFR cruising altitudes?

A

3000’ agl 91.159

74
Q

VFR Cruising altitudes are based on what?

A

Magnetic Course 91.159(a)

75
Q

Max error for VOR ground check

A

+/-4 degrees 91.171(b)(2)

76
Q

Max error for VOT check

A

+/-4 degrees 91.171(b)(1)

77
Q

Max error for VOR airborne check

A

+/-6 degrees 91.171(b)(3)

78
Q

Max error for a dual VOR check

A

+/-4 degrees between 91.171(c)

79
Q

Where must the airworthiness certificate be displayed?

A

At the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew 91.203(b)

80
Q

Day VFR equipment

A

Tach Oil pressure gauge Magnetic compass Altimeter Temperature gauge for liquid cooled engine Oil temp gauge Fuel gague Landing gear position indicator Airspeed Manifold pressure guague Elt Seat belt 91.205(b)

81
Q

Night VFR equipment

A

Fuses
Landing light (if for hire)
Anticollision lights
Position lights
Source of electrical power

91.205(c)

82
Q

When are life preservers required?

A

Never, unless for hire and beyond power-off glide distance from shore. 91.205(b)(12)

83
Q

What additional equipment is required when operating above FL240?

A

DME 91.205(e)

84
Q

If using water activated batteries in ELT when must the batteries be replaced?

A

Never… They are unaffected during probable storage intervals 91.207(c)

85
Q

What is the maximum duration the aircraft can be operated with the ELT removed?

A

90 days 91.207(f)(10)(ii)

86
Q

What is the proper placard for an ELT that has been removed?

A

ELT not installed 91.207(f)(10)(i)

87
Q

When do the batteries in an ELT need to be replaced?

A

-Transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour -When 50% of their useful life has expired -If rechargeable, when 50% of useful charge life expired 91.207(c)

88
Q

When do position lights need to be on?

A

Sunset to sunrise 91.209(a)

89
Q

When are position lights required in Alaska?

A

During the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 sm or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon 91.209(a)

90
Q

What is the lowest altitude the pilot must wear oxygen?

A

At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500’ up to and including 14,000’ for longer then 30minutes 91.211(a)(1)

91
Q

If operating a pressurized aircraft above FL250 how much supplemental oxygen must be carried?

A

10-minutes for each occupant 91.211(b)(1)(i)

92
Q

Above what altitude is the crew required to use oxygen?

A

When operating above 12,500 ft for 30 minutes 91.211(a)(1)

93
Q

Above what altitude must all occupant of the aircraft be provided with oxygen?

A

Above 15,000’ 91.211(a)(3)

94
Q

Above what altitude must the pilot be on oxygen continuously?

A

Above 14,000’ 91.211(a)(2)

95
Q

If a piece of equipment is broken, and the aircraft is airworthy are their any actions the pilot must take prior to flight?

A

Remove from the aircraft or deactivated and placarded “Inoperative” 91.213(d)(3)

96
Q

If an aircraft does not have an MEL, where can the pilot look to determine if the aircraft is airworthy?

A

VFR day type certificate Kinds of operations equipment list 91.205 (TOMATOFLAMES) Airworthiness Directives 91.213(d)(2)

97
Q

When is a transponder required?

A

Within Class A, B, or C airspace
Within 30nm of class B
Within lateral boundaries of Class B or C
Above 10,000’ (not at or below 2,500’ agl) 91.215(b)

98
Q

If your aircraft is not equipped with a transponder can you fly in to Class B airspace and if so when must you notify ATC?

A

Yes, the request for deviation must be made at least an hour prior to the proposed operation. 91.215(d)(3)

99
Q

If your transponder breaks in flight can you fly in to Class B airspace and if so when must you notify ATC?

A

Yes, You can fly to the airport of ultimate destination, including any intermediate stops. A request for deviation can be made at anytime. 91.215(d)(2)

100
Q

How often must a synthetic parachute be repacked?

A

Every 180 days 91.307(a)(1)

101
Q

How often must a natural fiber parachute be repacked?

A

Every 60 days 91.307(a)(2)

102
Q

Beyond what pitch and bank is a parachute required?

A

60 degrees bank 30 degrees pitch 91.307(c)

103
Q

If performing spins are you required to wear a parachute?

A

No 91.307(d)(2)

104
Q

Can an aircraft in the restricted category carry passengers or property for hire?

A

No 91.313(c)

105
Q

Are you required to be paid for a flight carrying a candidate running for local, state, or federal elections without having to comply with the rules of part 121

A

Yes 91.321(a)(3)

106
Q

As an aircraft operator can you receive payment for carrying a candidate??

A

Yes provided its not your primary business, under part 91, and you are required by law, 91.321(a)

107
Q

How much can a 100 hr inspection be overflown?

A

10hrs 91.409(b)

108
Q

Is time an aircraft takes to taxi or operate on the ground included in the 100 hours of time in service for 100 hour inspections?

A

No 91.409&1.1

109
Q

How long must maintenance records be kept?

A

Until work is repeated or superseded by other work or For 1 year after the work is performed 91.417(b)

110
Q

Define rebuilt engine

A

A used engine that has been completely disassembled, inspected, repaired as necessary, reassembled, tested, and approved in the same manner and to the same tolerances and limits as a new engine with either new or used parts. 91.421(c)

111
Q

What must passengers be briefed on?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Use of safety belts and sholder harnesses
  3. The location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits
  4. Location of survival equipment
  5. Ditiching procedures and use of flotation equipment for a flight over water
  6. The normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed on the airplane

91.519

112
Q

What is the minimum altitude you can fly over a field? What if there is a cow in the field?

A

Need to be 500ft over a cow since it is considered property

113
Q

How long is a Faxed copy of certificates valid for?

A

60 Days

114
Q

Paper certificates become invalid after what date?

A

March 31, 2010

115
Q

Before what date are anti-collision lights not required

A

Before March 11, 1996