Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

the Sierra Corporations Annual Newsletter > AIM Chapter 4 Air Traffic Control > Flashcards

AIM Chapter 4 Air Traffic Control Flashcards

1
Q

Where can a pilot get special VFR?

A

Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E to the surface
4-4-6(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are special VFR wx minimums during the day?

A

Clear of clouds
1 sm flight visibility if operating in controlled airspace
1 sm ground visibility if taking off or landing
4-4-6(a)(1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is required for a pilot to operate special VFR at night?

A

Instrument rated pilot
Instrument capable aircraft
4-4-6(g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is an instrument rating required for special VFR?

A

Between sunset to sunrise

4-4-6(g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define METAR

A

Aviation Routine Weather Report

4-3-26(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Service volume of an AWOS

A

25 nm
10,000’
4-3-26(b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How far out should a pilot call CTAF with their intentions

A

10 miles

4-1-9(c)(1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should you report your position using AIM UNICOM, CTAF (other than in designated areas around Alaska), and MULTICOM communication procedures?

A

Before taxiing
Before taxiing on the runway for departure
10 miles out from the airport
Entering downwind
Base
Final
Leaving the runway
4-1-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define UNICOM

A

Nongovernment air/ground radio station which may provide airport information at public use airports where there is no tower or FSS
4-1-9(e)(1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Service volume for arrival ATIS

A

20-60nm

25,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Service volume for departure ATIS

A

5nm

100’ agl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is ATIS?

A

Continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas.
Designed to improve controller effectiveness and relieve frequency congestion
4-1-13(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a pilot informs ATC they “have the numbers,” that means what?

A

They have received wind, runway, and altimeter information only
4-1-13(h)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ATIS includes

A

Time
Ceiling
Visibility
Obstructions to visibility
Temp
Dewpoint
Magnetic wind direction and velocity
Altimeter
Remarks
Runway in use
4-1-13(b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MULTICOM frequency

A

122.9

Table 4-1-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Standard air-to-air communications frequency

A

122.75

Table 4-1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When will a controller issue a safety alert?

A

When the controller is aware the aircraft is at an altitude which places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions or other aircraft
4-1-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Basic radar services for VFR

A

Safety alerts
Traffic advisories
Limited radar vectoring
Sequencing to the primary
4-1-18(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should a pilot contact approach control?

A

Approximately 25 miles out

4-1-18(a)(5)(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of a TRSA?

A

Provide separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is pilot participation in a TRSA mandatory?

A

No

4-1-18(b)(1)

23
Q

Transponder code 7777

A

Reserved for military interceptor operations

4-1-20(e)(2)

24
Q

Transponder code 4000

A

Military pilots operating VFR or IFR within restricted/warning area

25
Q

When is a transponder required

A

At or above 10,000’
Within 30nm of class B
Within and above lateral bounds of class C airspace
Crossing an ADIZ
4-1-20(f)(2)

26
Q

How often must radio reports be made when utilizing hazardous area reporting service?

A

Every 10 minutes

4-1-21(a)(2)

27
Q

If radio contact has not been made within _____ minutes SAR will be initiated, when utilizing hazardous area reporting service

A

15 minutes

4-1-21(a)(2)

28
Q

The MEDEVAC callsign is intended for what?

A

Missions of an urgent medical nature
These aircraft will be given priority
4-2-4(b)

29
Q

How are runways identified.

A

Nearest 10 degree increment of the azimuth of the centerline

4-3-6(a)

30
Q

Define LAHSO

A

Land And Hold Short

4-3-11(a)

31
Q

What are the weather minimums to receive a LAHSO clearance

A

3sm
1,000’ ceilings
4-3-11(c)(5)

32
Q

If the ground control frequency is in the ________ bandwidth the controller may omit __________.

A

121 MHz
Omit the numbers preceding the decimal point
4-3-14(d)

33
Q

When is recommended that the pilot have the landing light on?

A

Below 10,000
Within 10 miles of an airport
4-3-23(c)

34
Q

When is it recommended to have the rotating beacon on?

A

When the engines are in operation

4-3-23(d)

35
Q

When would the transponder code 1255 be used?

A

An aircraft not in contact with ATC who is en route to, from, or within a designated fire fighting area(s)
4-1-20(g)(1)

36
Q

When would the transponder code 1277 be used?

A

VFR aircraft which fly authorized SAR (search and rescue) missions for the USAF or USCG MAY BE ADVISED to use 1277 while en route to, from, or within the designated search area
4-1-20(g)(1)

37
Q

When would the transponder code 1202 be used?

A

Glider not in contact with ATC

4-1-20(g)(1)

38
Q

When is the “Flight Check” call sign used?

A

Used to alert pilots and controllers when a FAA aircraft is engaged in flight inspection/certification of NAVAIDs and flight procedures
4-3-24(a)

39
Q

The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility in an ATIS indicates what?

A

Sky condition or ceiling of 5,000’ or above
Visibility of 5 miles or more
4-1-13(e)

40
Q

UNICOM Communications Procedures

A

Report 10 miles from airport
Report downwind
Report base
Report final
Report leaving the runway
4-1-9(h)

41
Q

Standard pattern altitude

A

1000’ agl unless otherwise stated

Figure 4-3-2

42
Q

When should initial call up be tower for a Class B C or D airport?

A

15 miles out
4-3-2

43
Q

How far does the class C procedural area normally extend from the airport?

A

20 nm
3-2-4

44
Q

When should a VFR pilot contact approach control?

A

Approximately 25 miles out
4-1-18(a)(5)(a)

45
Q

What kind of frequencies can a CTAF be?

A

UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or tower frequency

46
Q

Designated CTAF Area

A

In Alaska only
Only difference in traffic announcements from normal uncontrolled is…

Inbound: only entering the designated CTAF area. No, DW base final, exiting the runway calls specified

Outbound: the usual and additionally leaving designated are

47
Q

When communicating with a CTAF FSS what should pilots include in the 10 mile out call up?

A

-aircraft identification
-aircraft type
-altitude
-location relative to the airport
-intentions (landing or overflight)
-possession of the automated WX
-and request airport advisory or airport information service

48
Q

What does runway condition code 6 mean?

A

Dry runway

49
Q

What does runway condition code 5 mean?

A

Breaking action: Good

• Frost
• Wet Includes damp and 18 inch depth or
less of water)

1/8 inch (3 mm) depth or less of:
• Drysnow
• Wet Snow

50
Q

What does runway condition code 4 mean?

A

Breaking action: Good to medium

-15°C and Colder outside air temperature:
• Compacted Snow

51
Q

What does runway condition code 3 mean?

A

Breaking action: medium

Slippery When Wet (wet runway)
• Dry Snow or Wet Snow (any depth) over
Compacted Snow
Greater than 1/8 inch (3 mm) depth of:
• Dry Snow
• Wet Snow
Warmer than -15°C outside air temperature:
• Compacted Snow

52
Q

What does runway condition code 2 mean?

A

Breaking action: Poor

  • Ice
53
Q

What does runway condition code 1 mean?

A

Breaking action: Nil

Wet Ice
• Slush over Ice
• Water over Compacted Snow
• Dry Snow or Wet Snow over Ice

the Sierra Corporations Annual Newsletter (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions