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Pharmacology II > Cumulative Drugs from Both Semesters - Final Exam > Flashcards

Cumulative Drugs from Both Semesters - Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Direct Acting Cholinomimetic

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2
Q

Varenicline

A

Direct Acting Cholinomimetic

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3
Q

Edrophonium

A

Indirect Short Acting Cholinomimetic

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4
Q

Atropine

A

Cholinoceptor Blocker Drug

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5
Q

Cyclopentolate

A

Cholinoceptor Blocker Drug

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6
Q

homatropine

A

Cholinoceptor Blocker Drug

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7
Q

ipratropium

A

Cholinoceptor Blocker Drug

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8
Q

Tioptropium

A

Cholinoceptor Blocker Drug

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9
Q

tropicamide

A

Cholinoceptor Blocker Drug

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10
Q

These drugs are Ach receptor stimulants

A

Cholinoceptor Agonists ( direct)

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11
Q

organ system effects of these drugs : contraction of iris sphincter, contraction of ciliary muscle ( accommodation), decreased BP, contraction of bronchial smooth muscle, increase smooth muscle motility

A

( parasympathetics)

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12
Q

these drugs increase the concentration of endogenous Ach by inhibiting Ach’esterase

A

Cholinoceptor Agonists ( indirect acting )

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13
Q

which drug was used as an older treatment for glaucoma

A

pilocarpine

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14
Q

Which drug is used in the Dx and Tx of myasthenia Gravis

A

edrophonium

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15
Q

these drugs block Ach action at muscarinic receptors

A

Cholinoceptor blocker drugs

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16
Q

Organ system effects of these drugs : mydriasis, Cycloplegia, reduction in lacrimal secretion, increased HR, bronchodilation, decrease gastric motility , reduced sweating

A

Cholinoceptor blocker drugs

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17
Q

which drug is used for an accurate refraction

A

Homatropine or cyclopentolate

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18
Q

Which drug is used for DFE

A

tropicamide or cyclopentolate

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19
Q

Which drug is used for uveitis

A

Homatropine or cyclopentolate

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20
Q

which drug is used for pre-anesthesia

A

atropine

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21
Q

which drug is used in COPD and asthma

A

ipratropium or tiotropium

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22
Q

epinephrine

A

non selective alpha and beta agonist

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23
Q

phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 agonist

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24
Q

brimonidine

A

alpha 2 agonist

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25
Q

albuterol

A

beta 2 agonist

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26
Q

formoterol

A

beta 2 agonist

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27
Q

salmeterol

A

beta 2 agonist

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28
Q

tamsulosin

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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29
Q

timolol

A

beta 1 antagonist

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30
Q

atenolol

A

beta 1 selective antagonist

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31
Q

metoprolol

A

beta 1 selective antagonist

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32
Q

nebivolol

A

beta 1 selective antagonist

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33
Q

sildenafil

A

type 5 phosphodiesterase inhib.

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34
Q

vasoconstriction, mydriasis, increased HR, increased BP, bronchoconstriction

A

alpha 1 receptor and beta 1

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35
Q

these drugs cause vasodilation, mydriasis, and decreased HR, decreased BP , bronchodilation

A

alpha 2 receptor and Beta 2

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36
Q

this drug is a potent vasoconstrictor and cardiac stimulant ; increased bf; used in cardiac arrest and in anaphylaxis

A

epinephrine

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37
Q

this drug is an alpha 1 selective drug; its a Mydriatic and decongestant; used in hypotension and detection of Horners Syndrome

A

phenylephrine

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38
Q

this drug is a beta 2 selective drug ; used for bronchodilation and tx of asthma

A

albuterol

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39
Q

these drugs bind to the alpha receptors and prevent binding of the agonist

A

alpha antagonists

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40
Q

effects of these drugs include miosis, nasal stuffiness, increased urine flow , decreased bp,

A

alpha antagonists

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41
Q

this drug is CI in pts undergoing Cat Sx; can cause floppy iris syndrome

A

tamsulosin

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42
Q

what are some clinical uses of alpha antagonists

A

Pheochromocytoma, hypertensive emergencies, chronic HTN, urinary obstruction

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43
Q

these drugs potentiate the vasodilative effect of Ach; they inhibit the breakdown of cGMP;

A

type 5 phosphodiesterase inhibitors

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44
Q

SE of these drugs includes impaired color vision, blurry vision, and ischemic optic neuropathy

A

type 5 Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

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45
Q

these drugs occupy beta receptors and prevent binding by agonists

A

beta antagonists

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46
Q

these drugs cause a decrease in BP, slow AV conduction, increased airway resistance ( CI in asthma), decrease IOP

A

beta antagonists

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47
Q

what are some clinical uses of beta blockers

A

HTN, heart disease, arrthymias, heart failure. glaucoma, hyperthyroidism

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48
Q

what are some SE of beta blockers

A

bradycardia, mild sedation/depression, worsening of asthma , cardiac decompensation

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49
Q

methotrexate

A

antimetabolite

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50
Q

prednisone

A

steroid hormone

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51
Q

tamoxifen

A

steroid hormone

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52
Q

these drugs interfere with the availability of normal purine or pyrimidine nucleotide precursors: inhibit synthesis or compete with them in DNA or RNA synthesis

A

antimetabolites

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53
Q

this drug is structurally related to folic acid and acts as an antagonist; it enters the cell via active transport and decreases production of DNA , RNA, etc required for synthesis

A

methotrexate

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54
Q

what are some clinical uses for methotrexate

A

severe psoriasis, RA, and Crohn Disease

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55
Q

What are some SE of methotrexate

A

nausea, vomiting and diarrhea; renal damage; cirrhosis; pulmonary toxicity in kids; and CI in pregnancy

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56
Q

this drug is used in the tx of lymphomas; it triggers production of specific proteins that reduce cell growth and proliferation

A

prednisone

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57
Q

what are some AE of prednisone

A

hyperglycemia, cataract formation, increased IOP, osteoporosis, and mood changes

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58
Q

this drug is an estrogen antagonist and is used for first line therapy in breast cx; it binds to estrogen receptor but fails to induce estrogen responsive genes -> depletes estrogen receptors ; competes with estrogen

A

tamoxifen

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59
Q

what are some SE of tamoxifen

A

hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, and skin rash , endometrial cancer, crystalline retinopathy, and other vision probs

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60
Q

penicillin V

A

penicillins

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61
Q

amoxicillin

A

penicillin

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62
Q

cephalexin

A

1st generation cephalosporin

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63
Q

cefuroxime

A

2nd generation cephalosporin

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64
Q

cefdinir

A

3rd generation cephalosporin

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65
Q

clavulanic acid

A

beta lactamase inhibitor

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66
Q

bacitracin

A

other Ab

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67
Q

vancomycin

A

other Ab

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68
Q

these drugs form a covalent bond with PBPs and inhibit catalytic activity of these enzymes -> prevents elongation or cross linking of peptidoglycan -> autolysis

A

beta lactam Ab/ penicillins

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69
Q

these drugs easily cross gram + bacterial cell walls; use porins for entry in gram -

A

penicillins

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70
Q

what are some AE of penicillins

A

rash, angioedema, anaphylaxis, cross reaction with beta lactam Ab , diarrhea, nephritis, hematologic toxicities

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71
Q

these drugs are similar to PCNs and have same MOA; these are great for staph infections ; have a cross reactivity to PCN

A

cephalosporins ( 3rd generation or later safer to use in people who have allergy to PCN)

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72
Q

these drugs bind to PCN’ases and inactivate them ; protect Ab;

A

beta lactamase inhibitors

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73
Q

this drug is effective against multiple drug resistant org. like MRSA

A

vancomycin

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74
Q

MOA of this specific drug : inhibits cell wall synthesis ; weakens peptidoglycan polymerization and damages underlying cell membrane

A

vancomycin

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75
Q

doxycycline

A

tetracycline

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76
Q

minocycline

A

tetracycline

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77
Q

tetracycline

A

tetracycline

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78
Q

gentamicin

A

aminoglycoside

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79
Q

neomycin

A

aminoglycoside

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80
Q

tobramycin

A

aminoglycoside

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81
Q

azithromycin

A

macrolide/ketolide

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82
Q

erythromycin

A

macrolide/ketolide

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83
Q

clarithromycin

A

macrolide/ketolide

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84
Q

these drugs bind reversibly to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing binding of tRNA

A

tetracyclines

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85
Q

what are some AE of tetracyclines

A

gastric discomfort, phototoxicity, vestibular probs, pseudotumor cerebri, super infections, CI in pregnant or breastfeeding and children under 8 ; inhibits warfarin clearance ( bad)

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86
Q

these drugs bind to specific 30s ribosomal proteins and interfere with the initiation of protein synthesis

A

aminoglycosides

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87
Q

what are some AE of aminoglycosides

A

ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular paralysis, and allergic Rxns

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88
Q

the MOA of these drugs : binds to 50s ribosomal subunit and blocks the peptidyl transferase center

A

macrolides

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89
Q

which drug was developed as an alternative to PCN

A

erythromycin

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90
Q

which drug is effective against the flu

A

clarithromycin

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91
Q

which drug is effective against respiratory infections

A

azithromycin ( Z pack)

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92
Q

what are some AE of macrolides

A

epigastric distress, Cholestatic jaundice, ototoxicity, CI in hepatic dysfunction and in arrhythmia

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93
Q

ciprofloxacin

A

2nd generation flouroquinolone

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94
Q

levofloxacin

A

3rd gen. flouroquinolone

95
Q

moxifloxacin

A

4th gen. flouroquinolone

96
Q

sulfacetamide

A

antifolate drugs

97
Q

trimethroprim

A

antifolate drugs

98
Q

cotrimoxazole

A

antifolate drug

99
Q

these drugs enter bacterium by passive diffusion; inhibit replication of DNA by interfering with DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

A

flouroquinolones

100
Q

this drug is most effective against Pseudomonas

A

ciprofloxacin

101
Q

AE of flouroquinolones?

A

GI probs, CNS probs, phototoxicity, CT probs, CI in pregnancy and arrhythmias

102
Q

MOA of these drugs: compete with Dihydropterate synthetase and inhibit folate production

A

sulfonamides ( antifolates)

103
Q

AE of antifolates?

A

crystalluria, hypersensitivity, hemopoeitic disturbances, kernicterus, CI in newborns and infants ; UTIs

104
Q

this specific drug inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase; AE = folic acid def.

A

trimethroprim

105
Q

this drug is effective in UTIs, respiratory tract infctions, Pneumocystic jirovenci, and MRSA; AE= skin rash, nausea and vomiting, anemias ; CI in pts taking warfarin, phenytoin, and /or methotrexate

A

cotrimoxazole

106
Q

oseltamivir

A

antivirals: respiratory virus infections ( flu)

107
Q

tenofovir

A

antivirals: for hepatitis

108
Q

acyclovir

A

antivirals: herpesvirus infections

109
Q

valacyclovir

A

antivirals: herpes virus

110
Q

tirfluridine

A

antivirals: herpes virus

111
Q

this drug inhibits the viral enzyme ( neuraminidase) that cause the flu; AE= GI probs

A

oseltamavir

112
Q

this drug inhibits viral reverse transcriptase

A

tenofovir

113
Q

this drug is the tx of choice in HSV encephalitis and genital herpes infections ; it competes as a substrate for viral DNA polymerase and is incorporated into the viral DNA

A

acyclovir

114
Q

AE of acyclovir?

A

local irritation, HA and GI prob, renal dysfunction

115
Q

this drug inhibits the incorporation of thymidine triphosphate into viral DNA ; drug of choice for HSV keratoconjunctivitis and epithelial keratitis

A

trifluridine

116
Q

emtricitabine

A

HIV: nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors ( NRTI)

117
Q

efavirenz

A

HIV: NONnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors ( NNRTI)

118
Q

ritonavir

A

protease inhibitors

119
Q

these drugs are phosphorylated by cellular enzymes and then incorporated into viral DNA by viral reverse transcriptase

A

NRTIs

120
Q

AE of NRTIS

A

peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, and lipoatrophy

121
Q

these drugs are highly selective inhibitors of HIV-1 reverse transcriptase

A

NNRTIs

122
Q

this drug has CNS SE : HA, dizziness, vivid dreams, loss of concentration

A

efavirenz

123
Q

these drugs inhibit HIV aspartyl protease; AE= paresthesia, GI prob, changes in glucose and lipid metabolism

A

protease inhibitors

124
Q

this drug is used as an enhancer of other protease inhibitors ; CYP450 inhibitor; has AE= GI probs, HA, paresthesias

A

HIV protease inhibitors

125
Q

chloroquine

A

antiprotozoal drugs ( malaria)

126
Q

this drug is used for malaria and arthritis/lupus, also has anti-inflammatory activity ; it prevents the parasite from properly digesting host cells Hb; AE= GI prob, skin rash, HA, blurred vision, bulls eye maculopathy

A

chloroquine

127
Q

hydrocholorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretics

128
Q

furosemide

A

loop diuretics

129
Q

acetazolamide

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

130
Q

these drugs affect the distal tubule; they inhibit the Na/Cl co-transporter; clinical uses = HTN, heart failure, hypercalcuria, diabetes insipidus

A

thiazide diuretics

131
Q

AE of thiazide diuretics=

A

K depletion, Hyponatremia, hyperuricemia, Hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hypersensitivity

132
Q

these drugs have their major effect on the ascending limb of loop of henle; they inhibit the cotransport of Na/K/2Cl; AE= ototoxicity, hyperuricemia, acute hypovolemia, K depletion, and hypomagnesemia

A

loop diuretics

133
Q

these are the drug of choice for reducing acute pulmonary edema of heart failure

A

loop diuretics

134
Q

these drugs inhibit carbonic anhydrase in proximal tubule ; carbonic anhydrase catalyzes reaction for form bicarbonates

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

135
Q

clinical uses for carbonic anhydrase inh

A

glaucoma, mountain sickness

136
Q

AE of carbonic anhydrase inh

A

metabolic acidosis, K sparing, renal stone formation, drowsiness, paresthesia, avoid in pts with cirrhosis

137
Q

clonidine

A

alpha 2 agonist

138
Q

atenolol

A

beta 1 selective blocker

139
Q

metoprolol

A

beta 1 selective beta blocker

140
Q

nebivolol

A

beta 1 selective beta blocker

141
Q

amlodipine

A

Ca channel blocker( vasodilator )

142
Q

benazepril

A

ACE inhibitor

143
Q

lisinopril

A

ACE inhibitor

144
Q

olmesartan

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker ( ARB)

145
Q

telmisartan

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker ( ARB)

146
Q

valsartan

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker ( ARB)

147
Q

this drug diminishes central adrenergic outflow; used mainly in tx with HTN when 2 or more drugs have failed ; useful in renal disease. AE= sedation, dry mouth, constipation, rebound htn

A

clonidine

148
Q

how do beta blockers work on BP

A

they lower BP by decreasing cardiac output ; CI in pts with asthma . AE= bradycardia, fatigue, hypotension. decreased libido, drug withdrawal

149
Q

these drugs produce relaxation of smooth muscle ; release NO

A

vasodilators

150
Q

these drugs block the inward movement of Ca-> muscles relax . AE= flushing, constipation, dizziness, HA, fatigue, hypotension

A

Ca channel blockers

151
Q

these drugs reduce peripheral vascular resistance ; decrease angiotensin II and increase bradykinin ( vasodilator)

A

ACE inhibitors

152
Q

clinical uses of ACE inhibtors

A

HTN, diabetic nephropathy, first line therapy for heart failure, etc

153
Q

AE of ACE inhibitors

A

dry cough, hyperkalemia, skin rash, hypotension, fever; CI in pregnancy

154
Q

these drugs are alternatives to ACE inh; but they do not increase bradykinin levels ; AE mainly dry cough ; CI in pregnancy

A

ARB

155
Q

nitroglycerin

A

organic nitrate

156
Q

ranolazine

A

NA channel blocker

157
Q

these drugs MOA: enzyme activation of drug causes release of NO; NO combines with guanylyl cyclase causing an increase in cGMP

A

organic nitrates

158
Q

this is the drug of choice for ongoing attack precipitated by exercise or emotional stress

A

nitroglycerin

159
Q

AE of organic nitrates?

A

tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, HA

160
Q

this drug inhibits the late phase of the Na current ; used to tx chronic angina

A

Ranolazine

161
Q

procainamide

A

Class IA NA channel blocker

162
Q

amiodarone

A

Class III K channel Blocker

163
Q

these drugs bind to open or inactivated Na channels ; slows the rate of the rise of the action potential

A

class I NA channel blockers

164
Q

these drugs diminish the outward K current during repolarization of cardiac cells ; prolong the action potential duration

A

K channel blockers

165
Q

which drug is therapy of choice for atrial fibrillation

A

amiodarone

166
Q

AE of amiodarone

A

interstitial pulmonary fibrosis, GI tolerance, tremor, ataxia, dizziness, blue skin discoloration, NAION and whorl keratopathy

167
Q

clopidogrel

A

platelet inhibitor

168
Q

prasugrel

A

platelet inhibitor

169
Q

dabigatran

A

anticoagulant ( direct thrombin inh)

170
Q

rivaroxaban

A

anticoagulant ( factor Xa inh)

171
Q

warfarin

A

other anticoagulant

172
Q

these drugs block ADP P2Y receptors ; reduces platelet aggregation

A

platelet aggre. inhibitors

173
Q

this drug is used in the prevention of atherosclerotic events following recent heart attack or stroke

A

clopidogrel

174
Q

this drug is used to decrease thrombotic events in pts with acute coronary syndrome

A

prasugrel

175
Q

AE of platelet inh

A

prolonged bleeding, aplastic anemia, life threatening TTP

176
Q

these drugs bind to antithrombin III ; competitive reversible inh. of thrombin

A

thrombin inhi.

177
Q

this drug is used for the prevention of stroke in pts with atrial fibrillation. SE= bleeding

A

dabigatran

178
Q

apixaban

A

Factor Xa thrombin inhibitor

179
Q

these drugs selectively inhibit only Factor Xa;p usd in hip and knee Sx

A

rivaroxaban

180
Q

this drug originally used as a rodenticide; now used as an anticoagulant; this inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase

A

warfarin

181
Q

AE of warfarin: bleeding disorders, drug interactions, CI in pregnancy

A

warfarin

182
Q

atorvastatin

A

HMG CoA reductase inh

183
Q

rosuvastatin

A

HMG CoA reductase inh

184
Q

Simvastatin

A

HMG CoA reductase inh

185
Q

colesevelam

A

Bile acid sequestrants

186
Q

ezetimibe

A

cholesterol absorption inh

187
Q

these drugs compete with HMG for the HMC CoA reductase enzyme; uses for lowering cholesterol levels

A

HMG CoA reductase inh

188
Q

AE of HMG CoA reductase inh

A

liver, increase warfarin levels, CI in pregnancy

189
Q

these drugs bind bile salts and bile acids in the small intestine

A

bile acid binding resins

190
Q

this drug inhibits absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol in the small intestine

A

ezetimibe

191
Q

fluoxetine

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inh ( SSRI)

192
Q

sertraline

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inh ( SSRI)

193
Q

duloxetine

A

serotonin/ NE reuptake inh.

194
Q

bupropion

A

atypical antidepressant

195
Q

these drugs block the reuptake of serotonin AE: dry mouth, GI distress, agitation, insomnia, sexual dysfunction

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

196
Q

these drugs block reuptake of NE and serotonin

A

serotonin / NE reuptake inhibitors

197
Q

this drug is a weak DA and NE reuptake inh.; it assists in decreasing the withdrawl and craving for nicotine; AE = dry mouth, sweating, tremor, and increased risk for seizure

A

bupropion

198
Q

alprazolam

A

benzodiazepene

199
Q

diazepam

A

benzodiazepene

200
Q

eszopiclone

A

benzo like hypnotic agents

201
Q

zolpidem

A

benzo like hypnotic agent

202
Q

MOA: binding to receptor increases affinity of GABA for its receptor

A

benzodiazepenes

203
Q

clinical use for benzodiazapenes

A

reduction of anxiety; sedative and hypnotic, anterograde amnesia, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant: SE are opposite of what the drug treats

204
Q

these drugs are used for sleep prob; high affinity for the benzodiazepene binding site of Gaba receptors ; mimic effect of BZDs

A

benzo like hypnotic drugs

205
Q

aripiprazole

A

second generation antipsychotic drug

206
Q

quetiapine

A

second generation antipsychotic drug

207
Q

these drugs have a high affinity for D2, D3, D4, and serotonin receptors ;do not produce movement disorders and effective control of positive and negative signs

A

second generation antipsychotics

208
Q

rivastigmine

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

209
Q

memantine

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

210
Q

these drugs bind reversibly to acetylcholinesterase and inhibit activity of enzyme;

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

211
Q

clinical uses of cholinesterase inh

A

alzheimers, myasthenia gravis, nerve gases

212
Q

these drugs bind to glutamine receptors on the post synaptic neuron- prevent binding of glutamine. AE= confusion, anxiety, chills, cough, dry mouth

A

NMDA receptor Antagonist

213
Q

dexmethylphenidate

A

amphetamines

214
Q

lisdexamfetamine

A

amphetamines

215
Q

these drugs cause release of ic stores of neurotransmitter via a reversal of the reuptake enzyme

A

amphetamines

216
Q

clinical uses of amphetamines

A

ADHD, narcolepsy. AE= addiction, insomnia, confusion, heart palpitations, nausea, etc

217
Q

methadone

A

opioid agonists

218
Q

oxycodone

A

opioid agonists

219
Q

codeine

A

partial opioid agonists

220
Q

hydrocodone

A

partial opioid agonists

221
Q

tramadol

A

mixed mechanism opoid

222
Q

these drugs cause inhibition of adenylyl cyclase and a decrease in the concentration of cAMP

A

opiod agonists

223
Q

clinical use of opioid agonist

A

relief of pain, anesthesia, antidiarrheal, antitussive dyspnea, tx of opiate addiction

224
Q

this drug binds to opioid receptor and weakly inhibits reuptake of NE and serotonin

A

tramadol

225
Q

loperamide

A

opiate receptor agonist; selectively targets GI opiate receptors ( used to treat diarrhea)

226
Q

lidocaine

A

local anesthesitc

227
Q

proparacine

A

local anesthestic

228
Q

tetracaine

A

local anesthestic

229
Q

these drugs work by targeting Na channels in the axon; they block information transfer about painful stimuli from the pt of stimulus to the spinal column

A

local anesthetics

230
Q

this drug is the most common topical anesthetic used in the eye clinic

A

proparacaine

231
Q

THIS anesthetic is a viscous gel that is used during ophthalmic procedures

A

lidocaine

232
Q

SE of topical anesthetics

A

loose corneal epithelium, stinging, allergic reaction

233
Q

this drug is a topical anesthetic that inhibits activity of topical sulfanomides; used for minor surgical procedures

A

tetracaine

Pharmacology II (31 decks)

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