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Chapter 6 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

How many bones in the human skeleton?

A

206

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2
Q

What are the 5 functions of the skeletal system?

A
  • supporting framework of the body (shape and alignment)
  • protect the vital internal organs from injury
  • plays an important role in movement by providing points of attachment for muscles, ligaments, & tendons
  • serve as a reservoir for storing minerals (mostly calcium and phosphorus)
  • the red bone marrow is responsible for blood cell formation
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3
Q

What is the process of blood cell formation called?

A

hematopoiesis

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4
Q

how are bones classified?

A

according to their shape

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5
Q

What are the different bone shapes?

A

Long, short, irregular, flat, or sesamoid

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6
Q

How do you distinguish long bones? What are some examples?

A

they are longer than they are wide

e.g. humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia, fibula, phalanges

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7
Q

How do distinguish short bones? What are some examples?

A

they are about as long as they are wide

e.g. carpals* and tarsals*

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8
Q

How do you distinguish flat bones? What are some examples?

A

they are brood and flat, and sometimes curved surface

e.g. breastbone, ribs, shoulder blade, and pelvis

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9
Q

How do you distinguish irregular bones? What are some examples?

A

they come in various sizes and are often clustered in groups

e.g. spinal column (vertebrae*) and the face

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10
Q

How do you distinguish sesamoid* bones? What are some examples?

A

unique, irregular bones embedded in the substance of tendons and usually located around a joint.
e.g. patella, metacarpophalangeal joints, and metatarsophalangeal joints

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11
Q

What is the medical specialty that deals with the prevention and correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system?

A

orthopedics*

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12
Q

What is the physician called that specializes in orthopedics?

A

orthopedist

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13
Q

What is the name of the health care profession that deals with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mechanical disorder of the musculoskeletal system? What is the name of the practitioner?

A

chiropractic; chiropractor

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14
Q

What is the long shaftlike portion of a long bone called? What are its characteristics?

A

diaphysis*; hollow, cylindrical shape shape and consists of thick compact bone

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15
Q

What is located at the each end of a long bone?

A

epiphysis* (bulblike shape that provides room for muscle attachment)

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16
Q

What separates the diaphysis* from the epiphysis*?

A

epiphyseal line*

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17
Q

What is the epiphyseal line* made of?

A

cartilage

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the epiphyseal line*?

A

allows the bone to lengthen; the cartilage multiplies during growth spurts; completely replaced by bone and disappears on X-ray when skeleton growth is complete

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19
Q

what is the fibrous membrane that covers the surface of the long bone except at joints?

A

periosteum*

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20
Q

What covers the epiphyses?

A

articular cartilage* (a thin layer of cartilage that covers the ends of the long bones and the surfaces of the joints)

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21
Q

What is the hard outer shell of the bone called?

A

compact bone

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22
Q

What is covering the compact bone?

A

the periosteum*

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23
Q

What is found in the center of the hollow cylinder of compact bone in a long bone?

A

the medullary cavity* (marrow cavity)

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24
Q

What does the medullary cavity* cavity consist of?

A

yellow marrow

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25
Q

what is the name of compact bone’s system of canals?

A

haversian canals*

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26
Q

What do the haversian canals* consist of?

A

blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves

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27
Q

What is the name for spongy or trabecular bone?

A

cancellous bone*

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28
Q

What are trabeculae*? What are they filled with?

A

needlelike bony spicules that give the cancellous bone* its spongy appearance and give added strength to the bone; they are filled with red bone marrow

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29
Q

what happens in red bone marrow? Where is red bone marrow found in infants and adults?

A

cell production; in infants almost all the bones contain red bone marrow; in adults red bone marrow is found in ribs, the vertebrae, the epiphysis of the humerus, the femur*, the sternum, and the pelvis; red bone marrow places in children are replaced with yellow bone marrow

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30
Q

What does yellow marrow do?

A

stores fat and is not an active site for blood cell production in the adult

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31
Q

What are immature bone cells that actively produce the bony tissue called?

A

osteoblasts*

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32
Q

What is the conversion of the fibrous connective tissue and cartilage into bone or a bony substance called?

A

ossification*

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33
Q

Where does bone grow in length?

A

the epiphyseal line*

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34
Q

How do bones grow in diameter? Who are the players? What occurs? What do osteoclasts* do?

A

through the combined action of the osteoblasts* and osteoclasts; osteoclasts digest, or absorb, bony tissue and the osteoblasts* create new.
Osteoclasts* help hollow out the central portion of the bone by eating away at the inner walls of the medullary cavity*.

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35
Q

What is the process of destroying old bone tissue so that it can be absorbed into the circulation?

A

resorption*

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36
Q

Where do the osteoblasts live?

A

in the inner layer of the periosteum*

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37
Q

When do osteoblasts* become mature and what are they called then?

A

When the surrounding intercellular material hardens around them. they are then called osteocytes* (mature bone cells)

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38
Q

What do osteocytes* do?

A

They continue to maintain the bone without producing new bone.

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39
Q

What are bone depressions?

A

concave areas or openings in a bone

  • help form joints
  • serve as points of attachment for muscle
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40
Q

what are the specific features of individual bones called?

A

bone markings

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41
Q

What characteristic features are included in bone markings?

A

enlargements that extend out from the bone and openings or hollow regions within the bone.

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42
Q

What is the purpose of bone markings?

A
  • may serve as points of attachment for muscles and tendons
  • join one bone to another
  • provide cavities and passage for nerves and blood vessels
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43
Q

What are bone processes?

A

projections or outgrowths of bone

  • they help form joints
  • serve as points of attachment for muscles and tendons
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44
Q

What are the most common bone processes?

A

trochanter, bone head, neck, tuberosity, condyle*, crest, spine

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45
Q

Cranial Bones

A

or called bony skull, the cranium is the bony skull that envelops the brain

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46
Q

How many bones does the cranium consist of? Are they movable or immovable bones/joints?

A

8; immoveable

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47
Q

What are the immovable joints of the cranium called?

A

sutures*

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48
Q

What cranial bones are listed in the book?

A

the frontal bone, the parietal bone, the temporal bone, the occipital bone, the sphenoid bone, and the ethmoid bone*

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49
Q

How many parietal bones are there?

A

2

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50
Q

What is found within the occipital bone*?

A

the foramen* magnum

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51
Q

What is the foramen* magnum?

A

a large opening in the base through which the spinal cord passes

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52
Q

How many temporal bones are there? What do they contain? what do they project downward to form?

A

2; the middle and inner ear structures, mastoid sinuses; the mastoid process, which serves as a point of attachment for muscles

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53
Q

What shape is the sphenoid bone*? What does the sphenoid bone anchor?

A

Bat-shaped; the frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, and ethmoid bones

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54
Q

What dos the ethmoid bone* contain?

A

the ethmoid sinuses

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55
Q

What are the spaces between the cranial bones in infants called?

A

fontanelle* or spelled fontanel*

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56
Q

What two facial bones give the skull its distinctive shape?

A

the maxillae (upper jaw bones) and the mandible (lower jaw bone)

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57
Q

How are facial bones connected?

A

all except for the mandible are connected by sutures*(immoveable joints)

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58
Q

What facial bones are listed with discussion in the book?

A

the mandibular* bone, the maxillary* bone, the zygomatic bones, nasal bones, lacrimal bones, vomer, palatine bones, nasal conchae

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59
Q

what is the mandibular bone? What does it create with the temporal bone?

A

or called mandible, i the lower jaw, largest and strongest face bone, only movable skull joint, contains sockets for teeth; the temporomandibular (TMJ) joint

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60
Q

How many maxillary* bones? What do they form? What do they contain?

A

2; fused midline by a suture and form the upper jaw and hard palate; the maxillary* sinuses and sockets for teeth

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61
Q

How many zygomatic bones*

A

2 one on each side of the face

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62
Q

what do the nasal bones join?

A

the frontal bone, the ethmoid bone*, and the maxillae

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63
Q

How many lacrimal bones*? What do they join and form?

A

2 (small and paper thin); join the cheek bones on each side to form the fossa* which houses the tear, lacrimal, duct

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64
Q

What does the vomer* form? What does the vomer* join with?

A

lower part of the nasal septum; the sphenoid, palatine, ethmoid, and maxillary bones

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65
Q

How many palatine bones*? What shape are they?

A

2; L-shaped

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66
Q

How many nasal conchae*?

A

2 (inferior for sure)

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67
Q

Hyoid bone*

A

located just above the larynx and below the mandible; does not connect with any other bone to form a joint, its suspended by ligaments

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68
Q

What does the hyoid bone* serves as a point for?

A

attachment of the muscles of the tongue and throat

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69
Q

What forms the long axis of the body?

A

vertebral column or “backbone”

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70
Q

How many vertebrae* bones?

A

24 (plus the sacrum* and the coccyx*)

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71
Q

What is the function of the vertebral column? How many segments are there?

A

protect the spinal cord; five

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72
Q

What is the first segment of the vertebral column? What is the name of the first bone of this segment?

A

the cervical vertebrae*, C1-C7; “atlas”

vertebrae of the neck= (cervic/o=neck)

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73
Q

What is the second segment of the vertebral column?

A

the thoracic vertebrae*, T1-T12; connects with 12 pairs of ribs
vertebrae of the chest= (thorac/o=chest)

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74
Q

What is the third segment of the vertebral column?

A

The lumbar vertebrae*, L1-L5

vertebrae of lower back= (lumb/o=lower back, loins)

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75
Q

What is the fourth segment of the vertebral column? Fusion of?

A

the sacrum*, triangle, fusion of five individual sacral bones of the child

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76
Q

What is the fifth segment of the vertebral column?

A

coccyx, “tailbone”; fusion of four individual coccygeal* bones in the child

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77
Q

What is the body of each vertebrae called?

A

vertebral body

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78
Q

what separates each vertebral body in the spinal column?

A

intervertebral disk*

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79
Q

what is the large opening in each vertebrae for the spinal cord called?

A

vertebral foramen*

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80
Q

What is the posterior part of of the vertebra called?

A

vertebral arch

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81
Q

what does the vertebral arch consist of?

A

a spinous process and a transverse process (serving as points of attachment for muscles)

82
Q

What bones make up the thoracic cavity?

A

ribs, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae*

83
Q

How many paris of ribs? Divided into how many categories?

A

12 pairs of ribs; divided into three categories-true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs

84
Q

What are the first seven pairs of ribs?

A

true ribs (1-7)-they attach to the sternum in the front and to the vertebrae* in the back

85
Q

What are the second three pairs of ribs?

A

false ribs-(8-10); they connect in the back to the vertebrae but not with the sternum in the front, but attach to the cartilage of the rib above

86
Q

What is the third pairs of ribs?

A

floating ribs (11-12); they attach to the vertebrae in the back, and are completely free of attachment in the front

87
Q

What is found in the intercostal spaces?

A

blood vessels, nerves, and muscles

88
Q

what is the breastbone?

A

the sternum, it is a flat bone

89
Q

what is the upper end of the sternum called?

A

the manubrium, connects each clavicle

90
Q

what is the lower part of the sternum called?

A

xiphoid process

91
Q

the name for the collar bone?

A

the clavicle

92
Q

the name for the shoulder blade?

A

scapula

93
Q

the name for the raised ridge of the scapula?

A

spine

94
Q

the name for the spoon-shaped projection of the scapula that connects with the clavicle?

A

acromion

95
Q

Upper extremities listed

A

humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

96
Q

What is the name of the large projection on the ulna*?

A

the olecranon*

97
Q

how many carpal bones in each wrist?

A

8

98
Q

what does metacarpal* mean?

A

“beyond the carpals”, they join the carpals with the phalanges

99
Q

what are the bones of the fingers called?

A

phalanges

100
Q

what is the bony structure that is formed by the hip bones?

A

the pelvis

101
Q

What makes up the pelvic bones?

A

the pelvis, sacrum, and coccyx

102
Q

What is the pelvic girdle?

A

bony ring framed by the hip bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx

103
Q

What is the largest of the the three hip bones?

A

the illium

104
Q

What is the upper curved edge of the illiim?

A

the iliac* crest

105
Q

what is the lowest and strongest of the pelvic bones?

A

ischium

106
Q

what is the projection on either side at the back of the pelvic outlet called?

A

the ischial* spine

107
Q

what is the name of connection of the two pubic* bones?

A

symphysis pubis

108
Q

What forms the acetabulum? what does serve as?

A

the ilium, ischium, and pubis form; serves as the connecting point for the femur and hip (hip joint)

109
Q

What is the sacral foramen?

A

the small openings in the fused segments of the sacrum through which the sacral nerves pass

110
Q

Bones of the lower extremities listed

A

femur, patella, tibia, fibula

111
Q

What bone is the thigh bone?

A

femur* (longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body)

112
Q

What are the names of the projections on the femur*?

A

The greater trochanter* and the lesser trochanter*

113
Q

Why is does the greater trochanter significant?

A

it is a landmark when selecting the site for the ventrogluteal intramuscular injection

114
Q

what is the name of the knee bone or kneecap?

A

patella*

115
Q

what type of bone is the patella*?

A

a sesamoid* bone

116
Q

which bone is the larger of the two lower leg bones?

A

tibia* (shin bone) (it is on the big toe side)

117
Q

What is the downward projection, which is the bony prominence on the inner aspect of the ankle?

A

medial malleolus

118
Q

Which lower leg bone is the smaller one?

A

fibula*

119
Q

What does fibula* connect?

A

the lateral condyle* of the tibia*

120
Q

What are the bones of the ankles called? How many are there in the ankles?

A

tarsals*; 7

121
Q

What is the largest tarsal*?

A

the calcaneus

122
Q

which tarsal joins the tibia* with the fibula*?

A

the talus bone

123
Q

what are the bones of the feet called?

A

metatarsals

124
Q

What are the bones of the toes called?

A

phalanges

125
Q

bone depressions

A

concave, indented area or openings in bones

126
Q

bone markings

A

specific features of individual bones

127
Q

bone processes

A

projections or outgrowths of bones

128
Q

compact bone

A

hard outer shell of the bone

129
Q

crest

A

distinct border or ridge, as in iliac* crest

130
Q

false ribs

A

rib pairs 8-10 which connect to the vertebrae in the back but not to the sternum in the front because they join the seventh rib in the front

131
Q

flat bones

A

bones that are broad

132
Q

floating ribs

A

rib pairs 11-12, which connect tot he vertebrae in the back but are free of any attachment in the front

133
Q

intercostal spaces

A

spaces between the ribs
inter=between
cost/o=ribs
-al=pertaining to

134
Q

long bones

A

bones that are longer than then they are wide and with distinctive shaped ends, such as the femur*.

135
Q

red bone marrow

A

the soft, semifluid substance located in the small spaces of concellous bone* that is the source of blood cell production

136
Q

short bones

A

bones that are about as long as they are wide and somewhat box-shaped, such as the wrist bone

137
Q

spine

A

a sharp projection from the surface of a bone, similar to a crest

138
Q

stenosis

A

an abnormal condition characterized by a narrowing or restriction of an opening or passageway in a body structure
sten/o=short, contracted, or narrow
-osis=condition

139
Q

yellow marrow

A

located in the diaphysis of long bones, yellow marrow consists of fatty tissue and is inactive in the formation of blood cells

140
Q

osteoporosis*- What happens? why does it happen? symptoms? treatment?

A

porous bones that were once strong become fragile due to loss of bone density; patient more susceptible to fractures; occurs in postmenopausal women (because estrogen and bone calcium storage decreases), sedentary or immobilized individuals, and with long-term steroid treatment; classic characteristics include fractures from normal activity, loss of standing height >2inches, and development of cervical kyphosis*(dowager’s hump); treatment-drug therapy (estrogen & calcium), >calcium intake, weight-bearings exercises
oste/o=bone -porosis=porous, lessening in density

141
Q

osteomalacia*-what happens? why does it happen? symptoms or characteristics? treatment?

A

bones become abnormally soft due to a deficiency of calcium and phosphorus in the blood resulting in fractures and noticeable deformities of the weight-bearing bones; in children its called rickets; due to a lack of vitamin D (which is necessary for calcium and phosphorus absorption) from diet, lack of sunlight, or a metabolic disorder causing malabsorption; treatment-daily vitamin D, diet of calcium, phosphorus, and protein.
oste/o=bone -malacia=softening

142
Q

osteomyelitis*- what happens? why does it happen? symptoms? treatment?

A

local or generalized bacterial infection that has spread to the bone and bone marrow through the blood; most commonly from staphylococcal infection but can also come from viral or fungal infection; symptoms-fever, pain, tenderness, erythema, swelling over infected bone, anorexia, headaches, and malaise (vague feeling of discomfort); treatment-bed rest, antibiotics, surgery if other do not work.
oste/o=bone myel/o=bone marrow -itis=inflammation

143
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma*- what is it? Who gets it? Where does it most often occur? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

it is a malignant tumor of the bones common to young adults, particularly adolescent boys; develops in the long bones or pelvis usually; symptoms-fever, swelling, pain and leukocytosis; treatment- chemotherapy, radiation, and surgery; 65% cure rate
sarc/o=related to the flesh -oma=tumor

144
Q

osteogenic sarcoma *

  • what is it?
  • symptoms
  • how is it diagnosed
  • treatment
A

-malignant tumor arising from bone; also known as osteosarcoma; most common malignant bone tumor most commonly on the distal femur, proximal tibia and proximal humerus*
-pain and dull aching early on; night pain, pain increases rapidly, weight loss, general malaise, and loss of appetite
-bone biopsy, X-ray, bone scan, and MRI
-radiation, chemotherapy, surgery
oste/o=bone genic=pertaining to formation, producing sarc/o=related to the flesh -oma=tumor

145
Q

osteochondroma*

  • What is it?
  • Where is it usually found?
  • When does it usually occur?
  • How many turn malignant?
A
  • the most common benign bone tumor
  • tibia and femur; usually within the bone marrow cavity covered by cartilaginous cap
  • usually in childhood, but might not be diagnosed until adulthood
  • 10%
146
Q

Paget’s disease*

  • what is it?
  • symptoms?
  • diagnosis from seeing what?
  • where does it usually occur?
  • what causes it?
  • who gets it most often?
A
  • a non metabolic disease of the bone
    -excessive bone destruction and unorganized bone formation by osteoblasts; bone is weak and prone to fractures; bone pain, maybe skeletal deformity (bowing of tibia or femur* or kyphosis*, pathological fractures
    -dieseased bone takes on characteristic mosaic pattern
    -in one bone or several sites, most common in vertebrae, femur, tibia, pelvis, and skull
    -unknown
    middle age, and elderly, and men
    oste/o=bone itis=inflammation
147
Q

spinal stenosis*

  • what is it?
  • symptoms?
  • causes?
  • treatment?
A

-is a borrowing of the vertebral canal, nerve root canals, or intervertebral foramini (openings) of the lumbar causing pressure on the nerve roots prior to their exit from the foramini
-numbness and tingling pain in the buttocks, thighs, or calves when walking, running, or climbing stairs
-may be congenital or due to spinal degeneration
-standing does not help pain, but sitting or flexing might, improved posture, abdominal muscle strengthening, weight loss may help, or surgery may be necessary
spin/o=spine -al=pertaining to
sten/o=short, contracted, or narrow -osis=condition

148
Q

talipes equinovarus*

A

clubfoot; infants’ foot is fixed in plantar flexion (downward) and deviates medially (inward) with heal in elevated position

149
Q

abnormal curvature of the spine-what are the three types?

A

kyphosis, lordosis, and scoliosis*

150
Q

kyphosis*

A

outward curvature of the spine; commonly known as humpback or hunchback

151
Q

lordosis*

A

inward curvature of a portion of the spine; commonly known as swayback

152
Q

scoliosis*

A

later (sideward) curvature of a portion of the spine, left or right

153
Q
  • who do curvatures of the spine affect?
  • what are the names for the three different causes?
  • symptoms?
  • treatment?
A
  • children or adults
  • idiopathic=unknown; congenital=defects of the spine at birth; pathological= some disease process
  • chronic fatigue and backache to noticing a hemline longer on one side to shoulder are uneven
  • depends on severity-physical exercise to back braces to surgery
154
Q

fracture

  • what is it?
  • what are the different types called?
A

-a broken bone; a sudden break of a bone
-closed fracture
open fracture
complete fracture
incomplete fracture
compression fracture
impacted fracture
comminuted fracture
Colle’s fracture
hairline fracture or stress fracture

155
Q

What is a closed fracture?

A

=simple fracture with a break in the bone but no open wound in the skin

156
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

=a compound fracture with a break in the bone and an open wound

157
Q

What is a complete fracture?

A

=break that extends through the entire thickness of the bone

158
Q

What is an incomplete fracture?

A

or greenstick fracture=a break that does not extend through the entire thickness of the bone-one side is broken and one side is bent

159
Q

What is a compression fracture?

A

=caused by bone surfaces being forced against each other (associated with osteoporosis)

160
Q

What is an impacted fracture?

A

=when a direct force causes the bone to break forcing the broken end of the smaller bone into the broken end of the larger bone

161
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

force is so great that it splinters or crushes a segment of the bone

162
Q

What is a hairline fracture?

A

or stress fracture is a minor fracture in which the bone continues to be in perfect alignment

163
Q

What is a pathological fracture?

A

occurs when a bone, which is weakened by a preexisting disease, breaks in response to a force that would not cause a normal bone to break

164
Q

What is an occult fracture?

A

“hidden” fracture not detected until several weeks after the injury

165
Q

What are some causes (examples) of diseases that cause pathological fractures?

A

osteomalacia* and osteoporosis*

166
Q

Where is an occult fracture more likely to occur?

A

ribs, tibia, metatarsals, and navicular bones (small bones of the hands)

167
Q

What are the treatments options for fractures?

A

Closed reduction-aligning the bone fragments through manual manipulation or traction without making an incision into the skin
Open reduction-realigning the bone under direct observation during surgery using screws, pins, wires and nails internally, devices known as internal fixation devices usually used for femur and joint fractures

168
Q

what is a bone scan?

What is it used to detect?

A
  • an intravenous injection of a radioisotope which is absorbed by bone tissue and the isotope concentrated areas show up on a scan appearing darker called hot spots
  • used to detect the spread of cancer to the bones, osteomyelitis, and other changes
169
Q

what is bone marrow aspiration?
what is it used to detect?
where are the preferred sites?
how is it performed

A
  • process of removing a small sample of bone marrow from a selected site with a needle for the purpose of examining the specimen under a microscope
  • blood disorders such as severe anemia, acute leukemia, neutropenia, thromocytopenia
  • the sternum, the iliac* crest, and the broad end of the tibia*
  • using sterile techniques to prevent osteomyelitis, with needle going down to the periosteum
170
Q

What is the procedure to evaluate bone density?

A

dual energy X-ray absorptiometry* (DEXA) =An X-ray machine engery photons that pass through bones to measure the density (which works better and is more accurate than a dual photon absorptiometry)

171
Q

C1,C2,C3…

A

cervical vertebra 1, 2, 3, etc…

172
Q

DEXA

A

dual energy X-ray absorptiometry*

173
Q

DIP

A

distal interphalangeal (joint)

174
Q

Fx

A

fracture

175
Q

L1, L2, L3, …

A

lumbar vertebra 1, 2, 3, etc.

176
Q

LLE

A

left lower extremity

177
Q

LUE

A

left upper extremity

178
Q

MCP

A

metacarpophalangeal (joint)

179
Q

MTP

A

metatarsophalangeal (joint)

180
Q

PIP

A

proximal interphalangeal (joint)

181
Q

RLE

A

right lower extremity

182
Q

RUE

A

right upper extremity

183
Q

S1

A

sacrum* (when transcribing, you may hear a medical report refer to the disk space between the last lumbar vertebra and the sacrum as L5-S1)

184
Q

T1, T2, T3, …

A

thoracic vertebra 1, 2, 3, etc.

185
Q

THA

A

total hip arthroplasty

186
Q

THR

A

total hip replacement

187
Q

TKA

A

total knee arthroplasty

188
Q

TKR

A

total knee replacement

189
Q

TMJ

A

temporomandibular joint

190
Q 
The bony skeleton serves many purposes EXCEPT:
-structure
-movement
-digestion
or-red cell production
A

digestion

191
Q

True or False: To keep epiphysis and diaphysis straight, remember that epi- means outermost and dia- means through

A

True. Epiphysis also refers to either end of the bone.

192
Q

What do you think passes through the foramen magnum (“great hole”) on the underside of the skull?

  • neck muscles
  • spinal cavity
  • ball-and-socket joint
  • aorta
A

spinal cavity——The brain is connected by the medulla oblongata to the spinal cord, which passes through this opening large enough to accommodate it.

193
Q

True or False: The immovable joints in the skull and face are called fissures.

A

false-sutures

194
Q

True or False: The first three segments of the vertebral column are named by their corresponding body position.

A

True. Cervic- for neck, thorac- for chest, and lumb- for loins (lower back).

195
Q 
The false ribs connect to the cartilage of rib number \_\_\_\_ instead of the sternum.
7
11
1
9
A

7-The false ribs are 8, 9, and 10

196
Q 
The carpals are to the wrist as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are to the ankle.
phalanges
tarsals
metatarsals
metacarpals
A

tarsals—-These are the actual bones of the wrist and ankles, and adding meta- refers to the ray-like bones on the dorsum of the hands and feet which come off of them

197
Q

True or False: Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are describing the same problem, but one is more severe than the other.

A

False. Osteoporosis means the bone is still mineralized but severely porous; osteomalacia is demineralization of bone. Osteopenia is considered the precursor to osteoporosis, literally meaning “bone poverty.”

198
Q

If chondr- means cartilage, what do you think the term osteochondroma literally means?

  • cartilaginous tumor of the bone
  • bony tumor of the cartilage
  • tumor of bone or cartilage
  • tumor of bone and cartilage
A

tumor of bone and cartilage—– A cartilaginous cap covers this bony tumor, usually located within the bone marrow cavity

199
Q

I jumped down from a ledge and heard a crack in my shin. X-rays showed that the broken ends of bone were forced into each other. This is called a(n) __________ fracture.

  • greenstick
  • incomplete
  • comminuted
  • impacted
A

impacted—- Think of 2 cars hitting head-on.

200
Q

True or False: A comminuted fracture can usually be treated with a closed reduction (no surgery).

A

False. Comminuted fractures involve splinters of bone, which is more complicated. The wound will need to be opened for surgical fixation.

201
Q

True or False: The most common method to check for osteopenia and/or osteoporosis is the dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

A

True. The higher the negative value (less absorption), the more likely you are to be diagnosed with osteoporosis

Medical Terminology (65 decks)

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