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Pharmacology > Autonomic Pharmacology > Flashcards

Autonomic Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

origin of preganglionic neurons - Sympathetic NS

A

T/S

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2
Q

origin of preganglionic neurons - parasympathetic NS

A

Brain stem: CN 3,7,9,10
S2-S4

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3
Q

location of autonomic ganglia - sympathetic NS

A

vertebral/prevertebral

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4
Q

location of autonomic ganglia - parasympathetic NS

A

in or near the effector organs

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5
Q

length of the preganglionic axons - Sympathetic NS

A

short

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6
Q

length of preganglionic axons - parasympathetic NS

A

long

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7
Q

length of post ganglionic axons - sympathetic NS

A

long

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8
Q

length of postganglionic axons - parasympathetic NS

A

short

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9
Q

Effector organs of the sympathetic NS

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle (controls BP at rest), glands (sweat glands)

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10
Q

Effector organ of the parasympathetic NS

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands

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11
Q

neuroeffector junctions of the sympathetic NS

A

diffuse, not located in one location

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12
Q

neuroeffector junctions of the parasympathetic NS

A

diffuse, not located in one location

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13
Q

Neurotransmitter and receptor in the ganglion of the sympathetic NS

A

AcH, nicotinic receptor

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14
Q

neurotransmitter and receptor in the ganglion of the parasympathetic NS

A

AcH, nicotinic receptor

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15
Q

neurotransmitter in effector organs of the sympathetic NS

A

Norepinephrine (except sweat)

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16
Q

neurotransmitter in the effector organs of the parasympathetic NS

A

AcH

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17
Q

what are the receptor types in the effector organs - sympathetic NS

A

a1,a2,B1, B2

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18
Q

what are the receptor types in the effector organs - parasympathetic NS

A

M1-M4 (muscarinic)

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19
Q

what is the role of the sympathetic NS

A

“fight or flight”
- blood flow to heart and skeletal muscles
- brochodilation
- liver releases glucose to provide energy

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20
Q

unique roles of the sympathetic NS / Sympathetic tone

A
  • controls BP at rest (through vasoconstriction)
  • sweat glands, medulla, and blood vessels only receive sympathetic fibers
  • controls thermoregulary, renin release, and metabolic effects.
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21
Q

role of the parasympathetic NS

A

“rest and digest”
S: Salvation
L: Lachrymation
U: Urination
D: Defection

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22
Q

what input is AcH on nicotinic receptor

A

ALWAYS Stimulatory

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23
Q

what do B1 receptors typically do

A

part of the sympathetic NS and they increase the actions at the heart

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24
Q

what do parasympathetic M receptors do at the heart

A

decrease the actions at the heart

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25
Q

what are the actions of a1 receptors in the sympathetic nervous system

A

Constriction of sphincters, skeletal muscle
and dilation of the pupils

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26
Q

what are the actions of the a2 receptors in the sympathetic NS

A

relaxes the muscles of the GI

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27
Q

what is the role of B1 in the sympathetic NS

A

increases the action at the heart

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28
Q

what is the role of the B2 receptors in the sympathetic NS

A

dilate and relax the skin, skeletal muscle (aka bladder) and lungs

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29
Q

what are M2 receptors of the parasympathetic NS found on

A

the heart

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30
Q

what are M3 receptors of the parasympathetic NS found on

A

smooth muscle and the detrusor muscle

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31
Q

what is the primary therapeutic action of alpha 1 selective agonists

A

reduce nasal congestion

32
Q

what are the alpha 1 selective agonists drugs

A

( -“rine” & -“line”)
1) phenylephrine
2) pseudoedrine
3) oxymetazoline
4) xylometazoline

33
Q

what are the adverse effects of alpha 1 selective agonists

A
  • increase BP leads to decrease HR (reflex brady)
  • headache
    (heart and head)
34
Q

what is the therapeutic effect of alpha 2 selective agonist drugs

A

anti HTN

35
Q

alpha 2 selective agonist drugs

A

1) clonidine
2) methydopa

36
Q

what are the adverse effects of alpha 2 selective agonists

A

the 3 Ds
1) dizziness
2) dry mouth
3) drowsiness

37
Q

what are the alpha 1 selective antagonists (alpha blockers)

A

drugs that end in (-osin)
with the exception of phenocybezamine with controls BP for the removal of pheochromaytoma

38
Q

what is the function of alpha 1 angonists (alpha blockers)

A

1) anti HTN
2) urinatry retention and symptoms for benign prostatic hyperplasia

39
Q

adverse effects of alpha 1 antagonists (alpha blockers)

A

1) reflex tachy (decrease BP leading to increase HR)
2) orthostatic hypotension
3) dizziness

40
Q

beta 1 selective agonists drugs

A

end in -amine
1) dobutamine
2) dopamine

41
Q

what are the therapeutic effects of beta 1 agonists

A

increases HR

42
Q

what are the adverse effects of beta 1 selective agonists

A

the ABCs of the heart
1) A: arrhythmia
2) B: SOB
3) C: chest pain

43
Q

what is the therapeutic function of beta 2 selective agonists

A

brochodilation

44
Q

what are the beta 2 agonist drugs

A

1) Albuterol
2) salmeterol
3) terbutaline: helps to delay preterm labor

45
Q

what are the adverse effects of B2 selective agonists

A

nervousness, restlessness, trembling

46
Q

beta 1 selective antagonists (beta blockers) therapeutic function

A

decrease BP and HR - used for heart failure

47
Q

what are the beta 1 secetive antagonist drugs

A

(olol)
1) atenolol
2) bisoprolol
3) metoprolol
4) esmolol

48
Q

what are the mixed B1 and B2 antagonists

A

1) propranolol
2) timolol

49
Q

what is the therapeutic function of propranolol

A

decrease BP and treat migraines

50
Q

what are the adverse effects of beta blockers

A

1) bronchoconstriction
2) bradycardia
3) dizziness
4) depression
5) lethargy

51
Q

what do direct acting cholinergic agonists do

A

mimic Ach at the cholinergic receptors

52
Q

what do indirect acting cholinergic agonists do

A

ACE inhibitor

53
Q

direct acting cholinergic agents

A

1) bethanechol
2) pilocarpine
3) methacholine
4) carbachol
5) nicotine

54
Q

what is the therapeutic use of bethanechol

A

post op Gi and urinary atony - increases toicity in the detrusor muscle

55
Q

what are the adverse reactions of bethanechol

A
  • urinary urgency
  • flushing of skin
  • bronchial constriction
  • asthma attacks
56
Q

what is the therapeutic use of pilocarpine

A

used to treat glaucoma; decreases the fluid in the eye which reduces pressure in eyes

57
Q

what are the adverse effects of pilocarpine

A
  • blurred vision
  • decreased night vision
  • eye irritation
  • headache
  • increased sweating and salvation
58
Q

what is methacholine theraputic use

A

dx asthma - bronchoconstrictor

59
Q

what is the theraputic use carbachol

A

treat glaucoma

60
Q

what are the drugs that are used to treat alzheimers

A

1) Donepezil
2) Rivastigmine
3) Galantamine

61
Q

what are the drugs that are used to treat myasthenia gravis

A

1) neostigmine
2) pyridostigmine
3) edrophonium
4) ambenonium

62
Q

what are the drugs that are used to treat glaucoma

A

1) physostigmine
2) echothipate

63
Q

what are the common adverse effects of cholinergic agonists

A
  • increase (SLUD)
  • brochoconstriction
  • bradycardia
  • difficulty in visual accommodation due to pupil constriction.
64
Q

Atropine

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); used to treat bradycardia and dilate pupils

65
Q

scopolamine

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); used to treat motion sickness

66
Q

Ipratropium bromide / tiotropium bromide

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist): COPD and asthma

67
Q

oxybutynin/tolterodine

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); used to treat overactive bladder

68
Q

benztropine

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); PD (reduce tremor and rigidity)

69
Q

tropicamide

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); used to dilate the eyes

70
Q

dicyclomine

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); IBS

71
Q

Hyoscyamine

A

anti-cholinergic (M antagonist); GI disorders

72
Q

PT considerations beta blockers

A

lower HR and BP: monitor vitals
pts might be fatigued quicker then normal

73
Q

PT considerations alpha blockers

A

cause orthostatic hypotension

74
Q

PT considerations for clonidine

A

cause orthostatic hypotension and dizziness

75
Q

PT considerations for Anticholinergics

A

cause dry mouth with can cause discomfort during exercise. they also decrease sweating which can lead to overheating

76
Q

PT considerations for beta agonists

A

bronchodilators used in COPD/ashma - make sure pt has their inhalers with them

77
Q

PT considerations for ACE inhibitors

A

can cause bradycardia - monitor vitals

Pharmacology (24 decks)

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