Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

pericardium: innervated by?

A

phrenic N

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2
Q

pericarditis: EKG

A

diffuse ST elevation

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3
Q

pericarditis: clinical presentation

A

sharp pain:

  • worse when inspire, supine
  • better when lean forward
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4
Q

pericarditis: comp

A

effusion, tamponade

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5
Q

coronary arteries: arise from?

A

ostia in sinus of valsalva (just distal to aortic valve)

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6
Q

when do the coronary arteries fill?

A

diastole

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7
Q

LAD: supplies?

A
  • 2/3 IVS

- ant RV, LV

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8
Q

LCX: supplies?

A

LV –> lat & post

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9
Q

RCA: supplies?

A
  • inf wall of RA, RV

- SA, AV nodes

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10
Q

post descending artery: br of?

A

usu RCA

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11
Q

SA nodal, AV nodal A: br of?

A

RCA

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12
Q

what determines heart dominance?

A

where post descending artery arises

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13
Q

MVP: murmur

A

mid-systolic click

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14
Q

AR: murmur

A

diastolic:
- high pitch blowing
- head bob w wide pulse pressure

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15
Q

PR: murmur

A

diastolic:
- low pitch
- increase w inspiration

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16
Q

MS: murmur

A

diastolic:
- opening snap
- late rumble

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17
Q

aortic dissection: pathophys

A

intimal layer –> tear –> false lumen bw intima & media

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18
Q

aortic dissection: assoc dz?

A
  • HTN
  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • CT disorders
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19
Q

aortic dissection: clinical findings

A
  • sudden tearing chest pain –> radiate to back
  • unequal BP in arms
  • CXR: mediastinal widening
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20
Q

aortic dissection: classification

A

Stanford A: proximal dissection

Stanford B: distal

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21
Q

aortic dissection: tx

A

Stanford A: surg

Stanford B: BB, vasodilator, observe

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22
Q

thoracic aortic aneurysm: comp

A
  • aortic root dilate –> AR

- compress struct: recurrent laryngeal, esophagus

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23
Q

syphilis: vasc comp

A

thoracic aortic aneurysm

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24
Q

who do you screen for an aortic aneurysm?

A

65-70yo who have ever smoked

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25
Q

how do you manage an aortic aneurysm?

A

M:
observe
> –> repair

F: 5.0cm

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26
Q

inf epigastric A: br of?

A

external iliac A

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27
Q

post pit: hormones

A
  • ADH

- oxytocin

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28
Q

post pit: derived from?

A

neuroectoderm

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29
Q

ant pit: derived from?

A

oral ectoderm

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30
Q

islet of Langerhans: location of B cells?

A

center

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31
Q

islet of Langerhans: location of alpha cells?

A

periphery

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32
Q

islet of Langerhans: location of delta cells?

A

interspersed

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33
Q

midgut: what happens wk6?

A

herniate thru umbilical ring

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34
Q

midgut: what happens wk10?

A
  • return to abd cavity

- rot around SMA

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35
Q

GI dev: fail to close –> rostral fold –> leads to?

A

sternal defect

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36
Q

GI dev: fail to close –> lat fold –> leads to?

A
  • omphalocele

- gastroschisis

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37
Q

GI dev: fail to close –> caudal fold –> leads to?

A

bladder extrophy

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38
Q

Down synd: GI comp

A
  • Hirschsprung’s
  • duodenal atresia
  • annular pancreas
  • celiac dz
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39
Q

differentiate: omphalocele vs gastroschisis

A
  • omphalocele: abd contents –> herniate into umbilical cord –> covered by peritoneum
  • gastroschisis: abd contents –> extrude lat to umbilicus –> not covered by peritoneum
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40
Q

diaphragm: hiatus? where?

A

I Ate(8) 10 Eggs At 12:

  • T8: IVC, R phrenic N
  • T10: esophagus, R/L vagus
  • T12: aorta, thoracic duct
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41
Q

what are the branches of the celiac artery?

A
  • L gastric
  • common hepatic
  • splenic
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42
Q

hepatic A: branches?

A
  • R gastric

- R gastroepiploic

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43
Q

splenic A: branches?

A
  • L gastroepiploic

- short gastric

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44
Q

venous blood from stomach –> drains to?

A

portal V

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45
Q

what is: falciform lig

A

lig that divide liver into R & L lobes

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46
Q

what comprises the portal triad?

A

1) bile ductule
2) portal V
3) hepatic A

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47
Q

how do blood & bile flow in relation to each other?

A

opp directions

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48
Q

what are the zones of the liver?

A

zone 1, 2, 3

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49
Q

where is zone 1 of the liver?

A

periportal

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50
Q

where is zone 3 of the liver?

A

pericentral V

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51
Q

zones of liver: viral hep

A

zone 1

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52
Q

zones of liver: ischemia

A

zone 3

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53
Q

zones of liver: toxin

A

zone 3

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54
Q

hepatocyte –> bile –> secrete into?

A

bile canaliculus

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55
Q

what is: bile canaliculus

A

dilated intercell space bw adj hepatocytes (not a duct)

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56
Q

central V of liver: fx

A

blood flow out of liver

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57
Q

what forms the common bile duct?

A
  • cystic duct

- common hepatic duct

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58
Q

spleen rupture –> leads to?

A

massive intraperitoneal hemorrhage

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59
Q

spleen: location in relation to ribs?

A

ribs 9, 10, 11

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60
Q

appendicitis –> pain at umbilicus: d/t?

A

GVA fibers to T10 dermatome

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61
Q

appendicitis –> pain at McBurney’s pt: d/t?

A

appendicitis –> irritate parietal peritoneum –> GSA fibers to RLQ

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62
Q

what is: “hourglass stomach”

A

sliding hiatus hernia

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63
Q

what is most common diaphragmatic hernia?

A

sliding hiatus hernia

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64
Q

what is: paraesophageal hiatus hernia?

A

fundus of stomach –> into chest cavity

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65
Q

sliding hiatus hernia: assoc dz

A

GERD

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66
Q

differentiate: direct vs indirect inguinal hernia –> location in relation to pertinent vessel?

A

MD’s LI:

  • direct: medial to inf epigastric A
  • indirect: lat
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67
Q

differentiate: direct vs indirect inguinal hernia –> location –> protrude thru?

A
  • direct: inguinal triangle

- indirect: internal inguinal ring –> into scrotum

68
Q

femoral hernia: location

A

below inguinal lig –> thru femoral canal

69
Q

what hernia is more common in infant?

A

indirect

70
Q

what is the most commonly fractured bone?

A

clavicle

71
Q

clavicle fracture: #1 cause?

A

sports –> fall onto:

  • outstretched hand
  • shoulder
72
Q

clavicle fracture: #1 location

A

mid 1/3

73
Q

clavicle fracture at mid 1/3: what happens to medial end? lat?

A
  • medial: pull sup (SCM)

- lat: pull inf/med (wt of arm, pec major)

74
Q

what are the nerves of the brachial plexus?

A
  • musculocutaneous
  • median
  • radial
  • ulnar
  • axillary
75
Q

axillary N: nerve root

A

C5-6

76
Q

axillary N: br of?

A

post cord

77
Q

axillary N: fx

A

innervate deltoid & teres minor

78
Q

axillary N: becomes?

A

lat brachial cutaneous

79
Q

radial N: nerve root?

A

C5-T1

80
Q

radial N: br of?

A

post cord

81
Q

radial N: fx

A

all muscles of post side of arm, forearm

82
Q

musculocutaneous N: nerve root

A

C5-7

83
Q

musculocutaneous N: br of?

A

lat cord

84
Q

musculocutaneous N: fx

A

innervate all muscles of ant side of arm

85
Q

musculocutaneous N: becomes?

A

antebrachial cutaneous N

86
Q

ulnar N: nerve root

A

C8-T1

87
Q

ulnar N: br of?

A

medial cord

88
Q

ulnar N: fx

A
  • forearm: flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus

- hand: most muscles

89
Q

median N: nerve root

A

C5-T1

90
Q

median N: br of?

A

med & lat cord

91
Q

median N: fx

A
  • forearm: most ant muscles

- hand: 3 muscles of thenar eminence, 2 lumbricals

92
Q

what are the UE reflexes?

A

C5: biceps
C6: brachioradialis
C7: triceps

93
Q

UE sensory test

A
C5: lat elbow
C6: lat forearm, thumb
C7: middle finger
C8: pinky
T1: medial forearm, elbow
94
Q

UE motor test

A
C5: elbow flex
C6: wrist extend
C7: elbow extend
C8: wrist flex
T1: finger abduct
95
Q

Erb palsy: aka?

A

waiter’s tip

96
Q

Erb palsy: injury to

A

upper trunk or C5-6 roots

97
Q

Erb palsy: cause

A
  • infant: delivery –> pull head away from shoulder

- adult: fall on head & shoulders simultaneously

98
Q

Erb palsy: presentation

A

arm at side –> extend, med rot –> pronate

99
Q

Klumpke palsy: injury to

A

lower trunk –> C8-T1

100
Q

Klumpke palsy: cause

A
  • upward force on infant arm

- adult: fall from tree –> grab branch

101
Q

Klumpke palsy: deficit in

A

intrinsic hand muscles

102
Q

Klumpke palsy: presentation

A

complete claw hand

103
Q

thoracic outlet synd: injury to

A
  • lower trunk

- subclavian vessels

104
Q

thoracic outlet synd: cause

A
  • displaced rib
  • neoplasm
  • scalene issue
105
Q

thoracic outlet synd: deficit in

A

similar to Klumpke (intrinsic hand muscles)

106
Q

thoracic outlet synd: presentation

A

Adson’s sign: loss of the radial pulse in the arm by rotating head to the ipsilateral side with extended neck following deep inspiration

107
Q

winged scapula: injury to

A

long thoracic N (C5-7)

108
Q

winged scapula: cause

A
  • axillary N dissection

- stab wound

109
Q

winged scapula: deficit in

A

serratus ant

110
Q

winged scapula: presentation

A
  • scapula protrude when press against wall

- can’t raise arms past horizontal

111
Q

rotator cuff: muscles

A

SItS:

  • supraspinatus
  • infraspinatus
  • teres minor
  • subscapularis
112
Q

rotator cuff: innervation

A

C5-6

113
Q

supraspinatus:
- N
- axn
- buzzword

A
  • N: suprascapular
  • axn: abduct arm
  • test: empty can test
114
Q

infraspinatus:
- N
- axn
- buzzword

A
  • N: suprascapular
  • axn: ext rot arm
  • cause: pitching injury
115
Q

teres minor:

  • N
  • axn
A
  • N: axillary

- axn: ext rot arm

116
Q

subscapularis:
- N
- axn
- buzzword

A
  • N: subscapular
  • axn: int rot arm
  • buzzword: lift off test
117
Q

humerus fracture –> surg neck –> leads to?

A

injure:
- axillary N (C5-6): lose deltoid, arm abduct
- post circumflex A

118
Q

humerus fracture –> midshaft –> leads to?

A

injure:
- radial N (C5-T1): “Sat night palsy/crutches” –> wrist drop, decreased extension
- deep brachial A

119
Q

humerus fracture –> distal end –> leads to?

A

injure:
- ulnar N: ulnar claw hand
- brachial A

120
Q

radius fracture: 2 types? which is more common?

A
#1) colle's fx
#2) smith's fx
121
Q

colle’s fracture: type of injury?

A

FOOSH –> fracture distal radius –> distal part –> displace post

122
Q

smith’s fracture: type of injury?

A

fall on back of hand –> distal part –> displace ant

123
Q

medial epicondylitis: cause? pain where?

A
  • cause: elbow –> repetitive flexion

- pain: medial aspect

124
Q

lat epicondylitis: cause? pain where?

A
  • cause: elbow –> repetitive extend

- pain: lat aspect

125
Q

what is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

A

scaphoid

126
Q

what is the most commonly dislocated bone?

A

lunate

127
Q

lunate dislocation –> leads to?

A

acute carpal tunnel synd

128
Q

scaphoid fracture: comp

A

avascular necrosis: primarily served by retrograde blood flow from radial A branches

129
Q

scaphoid: palpated where?

A

anatomic snuff box

130
Q

how do you test for carpal tunnel synd?

A
  • Phalen’s test
  • Prayer test
  • Tinel’s test
131
Q

carpal tunnel synd: cause

A

median N compressed –> numb, pain

132
Q

carpal tunnel synd: affects what muscle?

A

thenar muscles

133
Q

hand: motor innervation

A

C8-T1: all muscles

134
Q

hand: sensory innervation

A

by dermatome:

  • C6: thumb, index
  • C7: middle
  • C8: ring, pinky

by cutaneous N:

  • median
  • ulnar
  • radial
135
Q

median N: innervates what part of hand

A
  • lat thumb

- dorsal hand: thumb to mid-ring

136
Q

ulnar N: innervates what part of hand

A

mid-ring to pinky

137
Q

radial N: innervates what part of hand

A

thumb to mid-ring: palmar, fingertips

138
Q

median N –> distal to wrist –> injure –> #1 loss?

A

thumb opposition

139
Q

what N can be injured with hernia repair?

A

ilioinguinal N (L1) –> courses thru superficial inguinal ring

140
Q

lumbar plexus: N roots? N?

A

T12-L5:

  • iliohypogastric (L1)
  • ilioinguinal (L1)
  • genitofemoral (L1-2)
  • lat femoral cutaneous (L2-3)
  • femoral (L2-4)
  • obturator (L2-4)
  • lumbosacral trunk (L4-5)
141
Q

iliohypogastric N: nerve root? fx?

A

L1

  • rectus abdominis
  • cutaneous: small area of thigh
142
Q

genitofemoral N: N roots? fx?

A

L1-2

  • cremaster
  • cutaneous: small area of thigh
143
Q

femoral N: N roots? fx?

A

L2-4

ant thigh

144
Q

obturator N: N roots? fx?

A

L2-4

medial thigh

145
Q

lumbrosacral trunk: N roots? fx?

A

L4-5

join sacral plexus in pelvis

146
Q

L1: fx

A
  • sensory: proximal 1/3 ant thigh

- motor: hip flexors

147
Q

L2: fx

A
  • sensory: medial, ant thigh

- motor: hip flexor, adductor

148
Q

L3: fx

A
  • sensory: ant thigh just above knee

- motor: knee extensor

149
Q

L4: fx

A
  • sensory: medial leg
  • motor: ankle dorsiflexion
  • patellar reflex
150
Q

L5: fx

A
  • sensory: lat leg, dorsal foot, big toe

- motor: toe extensor

151
Q

S1: fx

A
  • sensory: lat malleolus
  • motor: ankle flexor
  • achilles reflex
152
Q

obturator N injury: presentation

A

decreased:
- sensory to medial thigh
- adduction

153
Q

femoral N injury: presentation

A

decreased:
- thigh flex
- leg extend

154
Q

common peroneal (fibular) N injury: presentation

A

foot drop

155
Q

tibial N injury: presentation

A
  • can’t curl toes

- decrease sensation to sole

156
Q

sup gluteal N injury: presentation

A

impair gluteus medius, minimus –> Trendelenburg sign –> pelvis drop to opp side

157
Q

inf gluteal N injury: presentation

A

impair gluteus maximus –> difficulty:

  • rise from chair, climb stairs
  • hip extend
158
Q

ACL injury: cause

A
  • hyperextend

- twist knee jt

159
Q

ACL injury: test

A
  • ant drawer

- Lachmans

160
Q

PCL injury: cause

A

car accident, severe fall –> blow to flexed knee

161
Q

MCL injury: test

A

valgus force

162
Q

LCL injury: test

A

varus force

163
Q

knee meniscus injury: test? good for?

A
  • McMurray: posterior meniscal tears

- Bounce home: more general tears

164
Q

unhappy triad: what is? cause?

A

lat force to planted leg:

  • ACL
  • MCL
  • med meniscus
165
Q

ankle –> lat –> ligaments?

A

1) ant talofibular
2) calcaneofibular
3) post talofibular

166
Q

ankle –> medial –> ligaments?

A

deltoid

167
Q

how do you grade an ankle sprain?

A

of lig involved