9 Flashcards

1
Q

in winter, when temperatures are much lower than ISA. you should fly:

A

At least 1.000 feet above che MEA/MOCA.

Explanation

aim. RAC 8.5: When temperacures are extremely cold, true altitudes will be significantly leaver than indicated altitudes. Although pilots may fly ifr at the published MEA/MOCA in the winter. when air temperatures are much lower than ISA they should operate at altitudes of at least 1000 ft above the MEA/MOCA

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2
Q

When being radar vectored with a speed adjustment, the allowable speed tolerance is:

A

+/- 10 KIAS

AIM, RAC 9.7.3

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3
Q

what is the speed limitation of a civil turbojet in a holding pattern above 14.000 feet?

A

265 KIAS

AIM, RAC 10.7

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4
Q

Throughout the NAT Region, airspace at and above _____ is Class ____ airspace, and, below this FL, it is Class ____airspace.

A

FL055; A; G.

Explanation
aim. nat 1.6: Over the high seas, the lower limit of all North Atlantic (NAT) oceanic control areas (OCA) is fl 055; there is no upper limit. Throughout the NAT region, airspace at and above fl 055 is Class A controlled airspace, and below fl 055 is Class G uncontrolled airspace. The lower limit of the Gander oceanic transition area (GOTA) is fl 290; the upper limit is fl 600. The GOTA is Class A controlled airspace.

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5
Q

For the instrument rating issuance, you need a minimum of ___ hours of instrument flight time with a least ____ hours of dual instrument time from the holder of a flight instructor rating.

A

40; 5

CAR 421.46: An applicant for the instrument rating shall have completed a minimum of. among others:

• 40 hours of instrument time of which a

maximum of 20 hours may be instrument ground time.

The 40 hours instrument time shall include a minimum of:

5 hours of dual instrument flight time acquired from the holder of a flight instructor rating.

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6
Q

A transponder is mandatory for aircraft flying:

A

inside Class A. B or C airspace and some designated Class D or E airspace.

Explanation

CAR 601.03: Transponder airspace consists of:

  • all Class A B and C airspace as specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook; and
  • any class D or E airspace specified as cransponder airspace in the Designated Airspace Handbook.
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7
Q

under which circumstances are flights inside Class F airspace authorized?

A

When national security or the security of any aircraft inside the airspace is not compromised.

Explanation

CAR 601.04: (1) The procedures for the operation of aircraft in class F special use Restricted airspace and Class F special use Advisory airspace are those specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook.

(2) no person sha l operate an aircraft in class F special use Resencted airspace unless authorized to do so by the person specified for chat purpose in the Designated Airspace Handbook.
(3) For che purposes of subseccion (2). a person specified in che Designated Airspace Handbook may auchorize the operacion of an aircraft where activities on the ground or in the airspace are not hazardous to aircraft operating in that airspace and access by aircraft to that airspace dees not jeopardize national security interests.

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8
Q

it is prohibited to fly within a radius of ___nm and an altitude of ___ feet of a forest fire.

A

5NM; 3000

Explanation

CAR 601.15: No person shall operate an aircraft

  • over a forest fire area, or over any area that is located within five nautical miles of a forest fire area, at an altitude of less than 3.000 feet AGU or
  • in any airspace chat is descnbed in a NOTAM issued pursuant to Section 601.16.

car 601.16: The Minister may issue a notam that relates to restrictions on the operation of aircraft in the case of a forest fire and that describes:

• the location and dimensions of the forest fire area; and

• the airspace in which forest fire control operations are being conducted.
© Her Majesty the Queen in Right of Canada, represented by the Minister of Transport (2021). This information has been reproduced with che permission of Transport Canada.

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9
Q

Regarding alcohol consumption: No person shall act as a crew memeber of an aircraft:

A

A pilot may not act as a crew member of an aircraft within 12 hours of consuming alcohol nor while under the influence of alcohol.

CAR 602.03: No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft

(a) within 12 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage;
(b) while under the influence of alcohol; or

(C) while using any drug that impairs che person’s faculties to the extent that the safety of che aircraft or of persons on board che aircraft is endangered in any way.

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10
Q

Without prior authorization, it is prohibited to refuel an aircraft:

A

When passengers are on board, embarking or disembarking.

Explanation

CAR 604.83: (1) No person operacing an aircraft operated by a private operator shall permit the fuelling of the aircraft while passengers are on board or are embarking or disembarking.

RAC 703.38: (2) No air operator shall permit an aircraft with passengers on board to be fuelled unless the fuelling is carried out in accordance with procedures chat meet che Commercial Air sen/ice Standards and that are specified in the air operator’s company operations manual.

RAC 704.33: (4) no air operator shall permit an aircraft with passengers on board to be fuelled unless che fuelling is carried out in accordance with procedures chat meet che Commercial Air sen/ice Standards and that are specified in the air operator’s company operations manual.

RAC 705.40: (3) No air operator shall permit an aircraft with passengers on board to be fuelled unless che fuelling is carried out in accordance with procedures chat meet che Commercial Air sen/ice Standards and that are specified in the air operator’s company operations manual.

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11
Q

Unless the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special flight operations certificate - special aviation event issued pursuant to section 603.02. below 10,000 feet asl. you may not operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed above:

A

250 knots.

Explanation

CAR 60232: (1) Subject to subsection (2)l no person shall

(a) operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more chan 250 knots if the aircraft is below 10.000 feet asl or
(b) operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots if the aircraft is below 3.000 feet agl within 10 nautical miles of a controlled aerodrome unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.
(2) a person may operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed greater than the airspeeds referred to in subsection (1) if the aircraft is being operated :n accordance with a special flight operations certificate - special aviation event issued pursuant to section 603.02.
(3) if the minimum safe airspeed for the flight configuration of an aircraft is greater than the airspeed referred to in subsection (1). the aircraft shall be operated at the minimum safe airspeed.

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12
Q

At what altitude do cruising altitude rules begin to apply for a vfr flight?

A

3000 feet AGL

Explanation

CAR 602.34: The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at a cruising altitude or cruising flight level appropriate to the crack, unless che pilot-in-command is assigned another altitude or flight level by an air traffic control unit and the aircraft is operated in level cruising flight:

  • at more than 3.000 feet agl. in vfr flight or
  • in ifr flight.
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13
Q

The maximum distance at which a land aeroplane can fly away from the shore without any life preserver on board is:

A

50 NM.

Explanation

CAR 602.62: (1) No person shall conduct a take-off or a landing on water in an aircraft or operate an aircraft over water beyond a point where the aircraft could reach shore in the event of an engine failure, unless a life preserver, individual flotation device or personal flotation device is carried for each person on board.

(2) no person sha l operate a land aeroplane, gyroplane, helicopter or airship at more than 50 nautical miles from shore unless a life preserver is carried for each person on board.

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14
Q

No person shall operate a MULTI-ENGINE aeroplane over water that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than ____ or the distance that can be covered in ____ minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site unless life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accommodate all of the persons on board.

A

200NM; 60

(Do not confuse with extended operations, which are double)

Explanation

CAR 602.63: No person shall operate over water a multi-engined aeroplane that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than 200 nautical miles, or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is che lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site unless life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accommodate all of the persons on board.

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15
Q

Before setting out on any vfr flight, a pilot is required to:

A

Be familiar with all available information appropriate to the flight.

Explanation
CAR 602.71: The pilot-m-command of an aircraft shall, before commencing a flight, be familiar with the available information that is appropriate to the intended flight.

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16
Q

in which circumstances may a pilot file a flight itinerary, instead of a flight plan, with a responsible person?

A

When communications are unavailable during the flight.

When he/she is unable to file a flight plan because no phone or internet is available.

When it will be impossible on location to close the flight plan, and therefore respect the time limit to close it. after arrival.

Explanation

CAR 602.73: A pilot-in-command may file an IFR flight itinerary instead of an IFR flight plan where:

  • The flight is conducted in part or in whole outside controlled airspace;

• Facilities are inadequate to permit the communication of flight plan information to an air traffic control unit a flight sen/ice station or a community aerodrome radio station.

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17
Q

You are preparing a flight at fl 260 in a pressurized aircraft. The passengers on board must be briefed with respect to the location and means of operation of oxygen equipment:

A

Before the aircraft reaches fl 250.

Explanation

CAR 602.89: (2) The pilown-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all of the passengers on board the aircraft are briefed

(a) in the case of an over-water flight where the carriage of life preservers, individual flotation devices or personal flotation devices is required pursuant to section 602.62 before commencement of the over-water portion of the flight, with respect to the location and use of those items; and
(b) in the case of a pressurized aircraft that is to be operated at an altitude above fl 250. before the aircraft reaches fl 250. with respect to the location and means of operation of oxygen equipment.

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18
Q

A pilot in ifr flight expects to land inside an mf area, when should he/she make its initial call?

A

5 minutes before commencing the approach.

Explanation

car 602.104: (1) This section applies to persons operating ifr aircraft when approaching or landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, whether or not the aerodrome lies within an MF area.

(2) The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report
(a) the pilot-in-command’s intentions regarding the operation of the aircraft
(l) five minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing (If) when commencing a circling manoeuvre, and
(ill) as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure: and
(b) the aircraft’s position

(I) when passing the fix outbound, where the pilot-in-command intends to conduct a procedure turn or, if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft first intercepts the final approach course. (If) when passing the final approach fix or three minutes before the estimated time of landing where no final approach fix exists, and (III) on final approach.

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19
Q

Every aircraft entering the ADIZ shall give an estimated time of entry accurate to:

A

+/- 5 minutes or +/- 20 NM.

Explanation

CAR 602.145: The piloc-in-command of a VFR aircraft shall revise the estimated time and point of ADIZ entry and inform an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station, when the aircraft is not expected to arrive:

  • within plus or minus five minutes of the estimated time at .a reporting point.

.the point of ADIZ entry, or

.the point of destination within the ADIZ; or

  • within 20 nautical miles of

.the estimated point of adiz entry, or

.the center line of the route of flight indicated in the flight plan or flight itinerary.

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20
Q

A pilot has placed the POH of his/her aircraft in the baggage compartment at the rear of the aircraft, is he/she allowed to do so?

A

No. the POH must be available to the flight crew members at their duty stations.

Explanation
CAR 605.04: No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft for which an aircraft flight manual is required by the applicable standards of airworthiness, unless the aircraft flight manual or. where established under section 604.27 or Part VIl. the aircraft operating manual is available to the flight crew members at their duty stations.

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21
Q

Are you permitted to fly an aircraft from which equipment has been removed for repair?

A

Yes. if operated in accordance with a flight permit issued for that purpose.

Explanation
CAR 605.08(2): Notwithstanding sections 605.09 and 605.10. a person may conduct a takeoff in an aircraft chat has equipment that is not serviceable or from which equipment has been removed where the aircraft is operated in accordance with the conditions of a flight permit that has been issued specifically for that purpose.

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22
Q

Can you use a flight control lock on your aeroplane?

A

Yes. if an unmistakable warning is provided whenever the flight control lock is engaged.

Explanation

CAR 605.29: No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a flight control lock in respect of the aircraft unless

(a) the flight control lock is incapable of becoming engaged when the aircraft is being operated; and
(b) an unmistakable warning is provided to the person operating the aircraft whenever the flight control lock is engaged.

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23
Q

Consider an unpressurized aircraft flying at 11.000 feet ASL for 1 hour and 30 minutes, in this case, all the crew members shall use their oxygen supply for ____ minute(s).

A

90

Explanation
CAR 60532: (1) Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes above 10.000 feet asl but not exceeding 13.000 feet asl each crew member shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at those altitudes chat is more than 30 minutes in duration.

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24
Q

A cockpit voice recorder is required in:

A

Multi-engine Turbine
6 or more passenger seats
2 pilots

A multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft that is configured for six or more passenger seats and for which two pilots are required by the aircraft type certificate or by the subpart under which the aircraft is operated

Explanation

car 60533: (1) Subject to section 605.34. no person shall conduct a take-off in any of che following multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft unless the aircraft is equipped with a flight data recorder that conforms to section 551.100 of Chapter 551 of the Airworthiness Manual and section 625.33 of Standard 625 — Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance of che General Operating and Flight Rules Standards:

(a) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued auchonzing the transport of 30 or fewer passengers, configured for 10 or more passenger seats and manufactured after October 11.1991:
(b) an aeroplane in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing che transport of 30 or fewer passengers and configured for 20 to 30 passenger seacs:

(C) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of more than 30 passengers; and

(d) an aircraft in respect of which a type certificate has been issued authonzing the transport of cargo only and operated under Subpart 5 of Part vn.
(2) Subject to seccion 605.34. no person shall conduct a take-off in a multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft that is configured for six or more passenger seats and for which two pilots are required by the aircraft type certificate or by the subpart under which the aircraft is operaced. unless the aircraft is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder that conforms to section 551.101 of Chapter 551 of the Airworchmess Manual and section 625.33 of scandard 625 — Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance of the General Operating and Flight Rules Standards.

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25
Q

The operator may operate an aircraft without a serviceable flight data recorder for a maximum period of __ days after the date of failure of the flight data recorder if the cockpit voice recorder is serviceable.

A

90

Explanation

CAR 605.34: (4) Where a minimum equipment list has not been approved by the Minister in respect of the operator of an aircraft, the operator may operate the aircraft without a serviceable flight data recorder for a maximum period of 90 days after the date of failure of the flight data recorder if

(a) where a cockpit voice recorder is required by these Regulations, the cockpit voice recorder is serviceable; and
(b) the aircraft technical records show the date of the failure of the flight data recorder.

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26
Q

Differential pressure is:

A

The difference between aircraft pressure and outside pressure.

Explanation
The control of cabin pressurization is done through three parameters: the cabin altitude (measured by an altimeter in the cabin; should not be more than 8.000 feet), the pressure differential (difference between aircraft pressure and outside pressure; maximum differential pressure is generally between 7 and 9 psi. depending on the aircraft), and the cabin vertical speed indicator (which shows the speed at which the cabin climbs or descends).

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27
Q

What are some characteristics of an anti-skid system:

A

Touchdown protection and locked wheel protection are generally incorporated in the anti-ski system.

Touchdown protection is provided to prevent the application of brake pressure prior the wheel rotates at an appropriate speed.

Locked wheel protection prevents the inadvertent turning of the aeroplane resulting from differential braking.

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28
Q

No operator shall operate a day VFR turbine-powered aeroplane that has a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of six or more, unless the aeroplane is equipped with an operative TAWS that:

A

Class A or Class B equipment
Altitude accuracy in 5 years after this section comes into force
Terrain and airport Data Base in area of operation

Explanation

CAR 605.42: (1) Subject to subsection (2). no operator shall operate a turbine-powered aeroplane that has a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of six or more, unless the aeroplane is equipped with an operative taws that

(a) meets the requirements for class A or class B equipment set out in CAN-TSO-C151 b;
(b) meets, effective on the day that is five years after the day on which this section comes into force, the altitude accuracy requirements set out in section 551.102 of Chapter 551 of the Airworthiness Manual; and
(c) has a terrain and airport database compatible with the area of operation.
(2) The operator may operate the aeroplane without its being equipped with an operative TAWS if
(a) the aeroplane is operated in day VFR only;
(b) in the event that a minimum equipment list has not been approved by the Minister and subject to subsection 605.08(1). the operation takes place within the three days after the day on which the failure of the taws occurs: or
(c) it is necessary for the pilot-m-command to deactivate, in the interests of aviation safety, the TAWS or any of its modes and the pilot-in-command does so in accordance with the aircraft flight manual, aircraft operating manual, flight manual supplement or minimum equipment list.
(3) This section does not apply in respect of aeroplanes manufactured on or before the day on which this section comes into force until the day that is two years after that day.

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29
Q

•GPWS” is used to designate:”

A

A system alerting for ground proximity.

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30
Q

What is the most important factor in obtaining better information from the radar display when flying In moderate rain?

A

The use of the tilt control.

Explanation
Airborne weather radar is only able to detect targets detected by its beam. The beam covers only a small area (from 3 to 10º). therefore tilt management of the radar antenna is important to target zones of interest (middle and lower regions of the thunderstorm, where the rain is most concentrated). This enables the pilot to control the antenna angle on the vertical plan.

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31
Q

Refer to images 8 to 10 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance:

  • Runway: Dry

• Brake use: max manual

  • Landing gross weight: 65.000 Kg
  • Airport elevation: 3.500 ft
  • Head/tail winds: 12 kts headwind
  • Runway gradient: -1.5%
  • OAT: ISA + 7°C
  • Approach speed: Vref30 + 7 kts
  • Reverse thrust: No reverse used
  • Flaps: 30
  • Speedbrakes: manual
A

5.019 feet.

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32
Q

which of the following is true regarding the cascade thrust reverser on a by-pass turbofan engine?

A

The cascades open on the side of the engine to deflect forward the cold by-pass air.

Explanation

A thrust reverser is a mobile part that is positioned to deflect, when deployed, a portion of the hot gas flow forward, allowing the aeroplane to use the brakes less and to land on a shorter distance.

Thrust reversers are most efficient at high speed, it is recommended not to use them below a certain speed to prevent dust or dirt from entering the engine.

There are different types of thrust reversers. The two mainly used are the cascade thrust re/erser and the clamshell reverser.

The cascade chrust reverser is used on by-pass turbofans, in this system, only cold fan air is used to slow the aircraft, when the power levers are moved to reverse position, a translating sleeve open, closing the blocker doors. The fan airflow stops from going aft and is redirected through the cascade vanes. Therefore, it is redirected forward and slow the aircraft. By returning the power levers to the idle position, the translating sleeve closes and the blocker doors open.

The clamshell thrust re/erser is mainly used on turbojet engines, it consists of a removable obstruction in the hot exhaust gas stream. The engine exhaust gases are diverted at a suitable angle in the reverse direcoon by the deployed clamshell, when the re/erser is not in use. the clamshell doors retract around the engine exhaust duct, usually forming the rear section of the engine nacelle.

Some by-pass turbofans use a combination of the two types.

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33
Q

in a fixed shaft turboprop engine, the turbine drives:

A

The compressor.

The propeller shaft.

The propeller.

Explanation

in a free turbine turboprop engine, the air coming in through the air intake is compressed by an axial compressor before entering the combustion chamber. The hoc gases coming out drive the compressor turbine. They drive the separate power turbine which drives the propeller shaft. The propeller speed is reduced at a fraction of the speed at which the turbine drives the shaft by means of the gearbox.

in the fixed shaft turboprop, the compressor and the shaft are both driven by the turbine. The propeller then rotates at the same speed as the main engine shaft. This engine makes more noise on the ground and is more demanding on the starter rotor than free turbine turboprop engines.

34
Q

In a turbojet engine, most of the energy resulting from the combustion chamber is extracted by the ____ to drive the compressor.

A

Turbine wheel.

Explanation
in a turbojet engine, the purpose of the turbine is to extract a large amount of che energy (about 75%) coming from the combustion in the combustion chamber. This energy will be used mostly to drive che compressors). The energy will also be used to drive the accessories, che propeller of a turboprop and the fan in a curbofan.

35
Q

in an axial compressor, what do we call the fixed blades located between each stage to direct the airflow with the correct angle to the next stage?

A

The stators.

Explanation

in the axial compressor, the turbojet engine generally has a low pressure compressor and a high pressure compressor (characterized by different sizes and by their rotation speeds). Here, the compression rate is directly linked to the compressor speed rotation and to the number of stages it has. Such a compressor consists of a set of axial stages, each composed of a rotor and a stator. The rotor consists of a disk with fins on it. and rotates in front of the stator.

Each stage of rotor/stator has the same purpose: the rotor sucks and accelerates che airflow, deviating it from the engine axis, then the stator straightens the airflow in the axis and slows it down by converting part of the speed to pressure; the air is thus increasingly compressed as it passes through the stages, it therefore has less and less volume. This compressor, more efficient and with a smaller frontal area for a given air capacity than the centrifugal compressor, is used in most heavy turbojet aeroplanes.

36
Q

What might be the cause of a compressor stall?

A

ice on the first stage compressor.

Explanation

The jet engine compressor is driven by wings chat rotate at high speed, just like the wing of an aeroplane, these blades can stall under some circumstances, causing the compressor to stall. The blades will stall if

  • air enters the inlet with a too high angle of attack, causing turbulence of the air which strikes blades at an angle above the critical angle of actack;
  • the surge bleed valve falls to open under the Fuel Control unit (FCU) control;
  • there is dust on the blades, causing airflow separation;
  • there is ice on the first-stage compressor;
  • che blades are damaged or worn, reducing che critical angle of attack.

Compressor stall may also occur when the jet engine starts or dunng acceleration.

Compressor stall will affect che entire compressor, and therefore the engine.

37
Q

In the cockpit, the EPR indicator shows you 1.0. What does it mean?

A

There is no net thrust produced by the engine.

Explanation
Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is the total pressure ratio of a jet engine, measured as the ratio of the total pressure in the engine nozzle (t>ehind the turbine) divided by the total pressure in the inlet seccion of the engine (in front of the compressor), in many gas turbine engines, the EPR (such as the N1. N2 and fuel flow), is used as the engine rating parameter, and as a measurable indication of the thrust chat the engine produces.

38
Q

you are about to fly over a mountain thac has an elevation of 5.500 feet. Your altimeter setting was taken at the nearest airport that has an elevation of 1.900 feet asl Your altimeter indicates 7.000 feet. The outside temperature is -20ºC and pressure altitude is 5.670 feet. What will be your height above the mountain?

A

1000 feet

39
Q

The turn coordinator indicates ____ and the turn and slip indicator gives an indication of _____

A

The rate of yaw and the rate of roll (it coordinates two parameters); rate of turn.

Explanation

The turn and slip indicator merges two instruments: the needle and the ball. The needle indicates direction and the aircraft race of turn, and the ball indicates the amount of bank, which is subject to the centrifugal force and to gravity, allowing it to indicate if there is a skid or slip.

The turn coordinator replaces the turn and slip indicator in a lot of aircraft it works on the same principle, but the supporting ring of the gyro is tilted at approximately 35’ to the aircraft longitudinal axis, allowing it to react to yaw and roll.

40
Q

a gyroscope relies on the principle of _____ in order to provide a stable reference.

A

Rigidity in space.

Explanation

The rotating gyroscope is affected by two fundamental principles: the gyroscopic inertia (or rigidity in space) and the gyroscopic precession.

Precession is the tendency of a rotating body, on which a force perpendicular to its rotation axis is applied, to turn 90º with respect to this axis, in the same direction as its rotation, to end on a new rotation plane parallel to the applied force. Gyroscopic inertia is the tendency of a rotating body to maintain its rotation plane when it is not disturbed.

41
Q

The flight director indications are displayed in:

A

The hsi and the ADI

Explanation

The flight director is a computer that permanently calculates the best attitude to keep the aircraft on a trajectory type chosen by the pilot.

The flight director shows the pilot the actions to take in order to correctly keep the chosen flight mode (maintain the aircraft axis on a given heading, follow a VOR radial or an ils flight slope, etc.).

The visual display of the flight director, the “crosshair or “command bars” (“cue ‘), is on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) and the attitude director indicator (ADI).
in some aircraft, the flight director can be interconnected with the autopilot system: this package is called a flight control system. The autopilot controls the aeroplane, and the flight director monitors the autopilot.

42
Q

RMl bearings are based on:

A

Magnetic bearing.

Explanation
The main benefit of che RMl (Radio Magnetic indicator) is to merge information on magnetic bearing to navaids. it shows che continued relative position of a vor stacion just as an adf station.

43
Q

in the EFis system, it is the ____ that raises the information from the various aircraft systems, processes it and sends it to the display screens in the cockpit.

A

SGU.

Explanation
in the EFis system, it is the SGU (Symbol Generator unit) that collects information from the various aircraft systems, processes it and sends it to the display screens in the cockpit.

44
Q

When testing your vor using a VOT. if the OBS is set to ____ . the to/from indicator should be ____

A

180; TO

When checking your vor on che ground using a vox you should have:

  • the indicator on FROM and the needle centred when *360°” is selected on the OBS:
  • the indicator on OFF and the needle on che right when ‘090º’ is selected on che OBS;
  • the indicator on TO and the needle centred when “180°” is selecced on the OBS;
  • the indicator on OFFand the needle on the left when ‘270º’ is selected on the OBS.
45
Q

Refer to the Navigation in the Appendix.

Between coehill VOR/DME and Tomvale Airport, you seem to be lost, you decide to use coehill VOR on your navi and Campbellford VOR on your NAV2. Your navi indicates 094/from (needle centred) and your NAV2 indicates 204/TO (needle centred), where are you?

A

Over the city of Mlllbndge.

46
Q

calculate the density altitude under the following conditions:

  • Temperature: 27°C
  • Aerodrome elevation: 3.300 feet
  • Altimeter setting: 30.12” Hg
A

5.190 feet.

47
Q

Why is the Lambert conformal conical projection used for many aviation charts?

A

Because a straight line on this chart is close to being a greac circle on the ground.

On a Lambert conformal conic projection, a scraight line linking two points represents an arc of a great circle.

48
Q

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine the true airspeed required to fly at maximum endurance:

  • Altitude: 12.000 feet
  • Conditions: ISA - 10CC
  • Gross weight: 9.000 lbs
  • Propeller speed: 1.900 RPM
A

122 kts.

49
Q

Regarding the information below, determine the specific ground range of the aircraft at FL290.

At FL29Q:

  • TAS = 430 ktS
  • Fuel flow = 500 lbs/h
  • Headwind = 80 kts
A

0.7 NM/lb.

50
Q

Refer to image 2 in the Appendix.

According to the following information, determine the required fuel and the trip time:

  • Trip distance: 3.100 NM
  • Flight altitude: 25.000 feet asl
  • Headwind: 50 kts
  • Temperature: 10=C above standard
  • Landing weight: 600.000 lbs
  • indicated Mach: .82
A

192.000 pounds; 7 hours 51 minutes.

51
Q

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

According to the information below, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for the flight:

  • Cruising Altitude: 35.000 feet
  • Temperature: isa -1 o=C
  • Tailwind: 80 kts
  • Takeoff weight: 18.500 lbs
  • Distance to fly: 1.100 NM
A

2 hours 31 minutes; 2900 pounds.

52
Q

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

According to the information below, determine the takeoff weight required in order to land with a weight of 15.000 pounds:

  • Cruising altitude: 35.000 feet • Temperature: ISA - 10°C
  • Headwind: 80 kts -Distance to fly: 700 nm
A

17.900 pounds.

53
Q

Refer to image d in the Appendix.

At a pressure altitude of 30.000 feet, the aeroplane loaded at 110.000 pounds will encounter buffeting of high and low speed at the same load factor of:

A

x 5.3g.

54
Q

Refer to image 4 in the Appendix.

Regarding the information below, determine the buffet load factor and angle of bank of the aircraft:

• Gross weight: 30.000 lbs

• Pressure altitude: 30.000 feet
■ Mach number: 0.6M

A

1.7g; 54º

55
Q

Refer to image 5. 6 and 7 in the Appendix.

  • Temperature: 20ºC
  • Wlnd: 240º M at 17ktS
  • Altimeter setting: 29.32 inches of mercury

under the conditions above, the landing roll at Boston Brook would be _____ feet and the total landing distance with a 50-foot obstacle clearance would be _____ feet.

A

1.177:2.122.

56
Q

Refer to image 6 in the Appendix.

you want to land at an airport under the following conditions:

CRFI: CYHU CRFI 06/24 7 .3 1203311 500
Wind reported by the tower at 1500:100/20 • Runway in use: 06
Meteorological condition: Strong rain showers.

From the information above, the maximum crosswind component allowing a safe landing would be _____. The landing ____ safe.

A

10 knots; is not

57
Q

Question 57

you are taxiing at an aerodrome with LVOP procedures when visibility drops below the aerodrome operating visibility.

A

You may continue to taxi.

58
Q

Can you take off with ice caused by frozen fuel on the wing’s lower surface?

A

Yes. if the manoeuvre seems to conform to the manufacturer s instructions.

Explanation
CAR 602.11: A person may conduct a take-off in an aircraft chat has frost adhering to the underside of its wings that is caused by cold-soaked fuel, if the take-off is conducted in accordance with the aircraft manufacturers instructions for take-off under chose conditions.

59
Q

Question 59

Frost, ice or snow formations having a thickness and surface roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper, on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing, can reduce wing lift by as much as % and increase drag by %.

A

30; 40.

Explanation
aim. air 2.12.2: (d) Frozen contaminants: Test data indicate that frost, ice or snow formations having a thickness and surface roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper, on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing, can reduce wmg ift by as much as 30it and increase drag by 409c. Even small amouncs of contaminants have caused (and continue to cause) aircraft accidents which result in substantial damage and loss of life. A significant part of the loss of lift can be attributed to leading edge contamination.

60
Q

SAE Type ii and IV fluids should be used on aircraft with rotation speeds:

A

Above 100 knots.

Explanation

aim. AIR 2.12.2: Flight tests performed by manufacturers of transport category aircraft have shown that most SAE and iso Type n fluids flow off lifting surfaces by rotation speeds (vr). although some large aircraft do experience performance degradation and may require weight or other takeoff compensation. Therefore. SAE and ISO Type n fluids should be used on aircraft with rotation speeds (Vr) above 100 kias. Degradation could be significant on aeroplanes with rotation speeds below this figure.
(j) Type iv Fluids: a significant advance is Type iv anti-icing fluid. These fluids meet the same fluid specifications as the Type n fluids and in addition have a significantly longer holdover time, in recognition of the above. Holdover Time Tables are available for Type IV.

61
Q

SAE Type III fluids should be used on aircraft with rotation speeds:

A

Below 100 knots

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.2: Type ill Fluids: Type ill is a thickened freezing point depressant fluid which has properties that lie between Types i and n. Therefore, it provides a longer holdover time than Type i. but less than Type il. its shearing and flow-off characteristics are designed for aircraft that have a shorter time to the rotation point. This should make it acceptable for some aircraft that have a vr of less chan 100 KiAS.

62
Q

ISO and SAE type ___ liquids are effective for use as anti-ice when

A

II; unheated.

Explanation
aim. air 2.12.2: SAE and iso Type II fluids contain no less than 50% glycol and have a minimum freeze point of -32°C. They are considered “thickened” because of added thickening agents that enable the fluid to be deposited in a thicker film and to remain on the aircraft surfaces until the time of takeoff. These fluids are used for de-icing (when heated) and anti-icing. Type II fluids provide greater protection (holdover time) than do Type I fluids against frost, ice or snow formation in conditions conducive to aircraft icing on the ground.

63
Q

Freezing point depressant fluid holdover time is:

A

Ends when a visible surface build-up of contamination appears on the aircraft surface.

Calculated as beginning at the start of the final application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid and as expiring when the fluid is no longer effective.

Ends when the ability of the fluid to absorb more precipitation has been exceeded.

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.2: (b) Critical Surfaces: Critical surfaces of an aircraft mean the wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any ocher stabilizing surface of an aircraft which, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines. :nc!udes the upper surface of its fuselage. Flight safety dunng ground operations in conditions conducive to frost, ice or snow contamination requires a knowledge of:
(l) adverse effeccs of frost, ice or snow on aircraft performance and flight characteristics, which are generally reflected in the form of decreased thrust, decreased lift increased drag, increased stall speed, trim changes, altered stall characteristics and handling qualities;

(10 various procedures available for aircraft ground de-icing and anti-icing, and the capabilities and limitations of these procedures in various weather conditions, including che use and effectiveness of freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids:

(ill) holdover time, which is che escimaced cime that an application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid is effective in preventing frost, ice. or snow from adhering to created surfaces. Holdover time is calculated as beginning at the start of the final application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid and as expiring when the fluid is no longer effective. The fluid is no longer effective when its ability to absorb more precipitacion has been exceeded. This produces a visible surface build-up of contamination. Recognition that final assurance of a safe takeoff rests in the pre-takeoff inspection.

64
Q

Question 64

When a shock wave forms on the upper surface of the wing, the airflow temperature ____ its pressure _____ and its velocity_____

A

increases: increases; decreases.

Explanation

When looking at the subsonic movement of a wing through the air. you can see that the air splits in two parts (one going on the upper surface of the wing, and the other going on the lower surface) before it reaches the wing’s leading edge, we use to say that the wing has announced its arrival to the gas particles: this “communication” is made at the speed of sound.

as the wing accelerates to the speed of sound, the distance between the wing’s leading edge and the air split gees smaller until the distance is zero because the wing has reached the local speed of sound. At this moment, the gas parades are not ‘noafied’ of the wing’s arrival: the air split is made directly during the impact of che wing with the air. This collision causes an increase of the air temperature, pressure and density. A shock wave is created on the wing’s leading edge (the leading edge has reached its critical Mach number). The shock wave spreads on the beginning of the wing’s upper surface, where the airflow is moving at a speed greater or equal than the local speed of sound. Behind che shock wave, on the remaining wing upper surface, the airflow speed is below the local speed of sound and the air becomes turbulent. This turbulence spreads rearward, on the upper surface of the wing and on the horizontal stabilizer, causing buffets on che ailerons and on che elevator.

65
Q

Question 65

The SPEED at which the high-speed buffet of an aircraft is limited decreases if the weight of this aircraft ______ . if its load factor ____. or if its angle of bank _____

A

increases; increases; increases.

Explanation

Each aeroplane has a low-speed buffet boundary and a high-speed buffet boundary, in both cases, the boundary is associated with the airflow separation from the wing.

The low-speed buffet boundary depends on the angle of attack: buffet will appear when approaching the stall.

The high-speed buffet boundary is imposed by the shock wave that appears on the upper surface of a wing moving at a certain speed: it depends on the angle of attack and on the true airspeed of the aircraft.

By observing a buffet onset boundary graph, you can see that the speed of the high-speed boundary decreases when the aircraft’s weight increases, when its load factor increases, when its bank angle increases or when its flight altitude increases.

66
Q

What type of airflow is found on a transonic aircraft?

A

Subsonic and supersonic.

Explanation

When the airflow speed on the entire surface of an aircraft is below the local speed of sound, this aircraft is in subsonic flight. Aircraft in subsonic flights are usually flying below Mach 0.75.

When the airflow speed on some parts of an aircraft’s surface is below the local speed of sound, but the speed on other parts (usually the wing upper surfaces) is greater chan the local speed of sound, this aircraft is in transonic flight. Aircraft in transonic flight are usually flying between Mach 0.75 and Mach 1.2.

When the airflow speed on the entire surface of an aircraft is greater than the local speed of sound, this aircraft is in supersonic flight. Aircraft in supersonic filghcs are usually flying above Mach 1.2.

67
Q

The critical Mach number is the:

A

Number beyond which appears, on the upper surface of a wing, an area where the airflow reaches then exceeds the local speed of sound.

It may be also defined as the speed at which the first shock waves are formed, usually on the upper part of the wing, where airflow goes faster.

68
Q

On an aeroplane, wing tip vortices are only produced when:

A

The aeroplane creates lift.

69
Q

in relation to a swept-back wing aeroplane, a straight-wing aeroplane will have:

A

A lower critical Mach number.

Explanation

The advantages of sweepback wings are not only lateral and directional stability: they also delay the formation of shock wave at high speed by presenting a longer chord to the airflow than a conventional wing. The critical Mach number will be higher.

70
Q

Whac is the purpose of the wing dihedral?

A

increase lateral stability.

The dihedral is the angle of each wing relative to the horizon, it increases lateral stability.

71
Q

Which of the following devices can reduce the turbulence caused by the tub at high angles of attack by letting the air go so it can stand out on top of the wing?

A

Leading edge slots

Explanation

The leading edge slot is a passageway located near the wing’s leading edge, when the angle of attack is large, the air flows through the slot and re-emerges on the upper surface of the wing. This system reduces the drag caused by the eddies at large angles of attack.

72
Q

What is the heart of CRM?

A

Communication.

73
Q

which of the following is a characceristic of an ineffective pilot-in-command?

A

which of the following is a characceristic of an ineffective pilot-in-command?

The pilot-in-command knows that the flight safety depends on him/her alone. He/she puts the comments of the other crew members in the back of his/her mind.

The pilot-m-command has a greater likelihood of having a tense flight deck.

The pilot-in-command does not hesitate to make “macho”jokes to maintain a relaxed and harmonious flight deck.

74
Q

Effects of hypoxia include:

A

Thinking becoming confused, less able to make good judgement calls, a dizzy feeling, nauseous, and perhaps get a headache.

75
Q

At 20.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is:

A

5 to 12 minutes.

TP 12863E - Human Factors For Aviation - Basic Manuel => Chapter 5: The Body - What The Body Takes In:

Types of hypoxia - Effects of Hypoxia • Time of useful Consciousness: The most common measure of the effects of hypoxia is Time of useful Consciousness (Tuq. TUC indicates how much time you have to function in a reasonably competent way without supplemental oxygen. As altitude increases, your ability to perform declines rapidly.

Times of useful Consciousness at altitude:

  1. 000 feet: 5-12 minutes
  2. 000 feet: 45-75 seconds
  3. 000 feet: 13-30 seconds
  4. 000 feet and above: 12-15 seconds or less
76
Q

During a rapid ascent, the rapid lowering of the external barometric pressure allows nitrogen gas to form small bubbles in the lungs, causing chest pain and shortness of breath called the:

A

Chokes

Explanation

aim. air 3.3: At ground level, the body tissues are saturated with mcrogen. the inert gas that makes up 80 percent of our atmosphere. During a rapid ascent, the rapid lowering of the external barometric pressure allows che nitrogen gas to form small bubbles (an example of this phenomenon is the bubbles formed when a bottle of pop is opened). The nitrogen bubbles form in and around blood vessels, joints and muscles, causing pain and cramps (the bends). They can also form under the skin, causing itching and tingling (the creeps), or in che lung, causing chest pain and shortness of breath (the chokes). Severe cases may result in a loss of consciousness. The risks associated with decompression sickness increase with high rates of climb, age. obesity, physical activity and low temperatures. Flight operations above a cabin altitude of 20 OCX) ft asl (6 1 CO m) should noc be attempted unless crew members and passengers have completed specialized high-altitude indoctrination training, when decompression sickness is encountered, an immediate descent to a lower altitude is required.

77
Q

Clearing the ears on a rapid descent may be assisted by:

A

Opening the mouth widely or yawning.

a valsalva manoeuvre.

Swallowing.

Explanation

aim. AIR 3.6: Pressure in the ears can be equalized by opening and closing the mouth, swallowing yawning chewing gum or by holding the nostrils shut while gently blowing the nose, if the pressure in the ears (or sinuses) cannot be relieved by these manoeuvres, it is best to climb back to the original altitude or to a higher level (if this is necessary, atc should of course be kept informed).

78
Q

Among these factors, which ones could cause a pilot to run a too-low approach?

A
  • An up-sloping runway.
  • Rain on the windshield.
  • A narrow runway.
79
Q

During a vfr flight in snow, above a snow surface when the horizon is obscured, the pilot must pay particular attention to the:

A

Whiteout.

80
Q

During an approach in IMC you are forced to execute the missed approach procedure. Because of the illusion caused by the acceleration of the aircraft during the climb you will most likely tend to:

A

Decrease the aircraft’s rate of climb.