5

Question 1

The licence of a pilot has been suspended. Does he/she have to return it and. if so. when?

Answer 1

Yes. he/she has to return it to the Minister immediately after the effective date of the suspension or cancellation.

CAR 103.03

Question 2

What are the requirements to act as a flight crew member?

Answer 2

One must hold and produce, if required, the appropriate licence, permit or rating and medical certificate.

CAR 401.03

Question 3

which of the following is not a controlled airspace?

A transition area.

A fixed RNAV route.

A low-level air route.

All of the above.

Answer 3

A low-level air route.

car 601.01: Controlled airspace consists of the following types of airspace:

(a) the Arctic Control Area. Northern Control Area and Southern Control Area;
- high level airspace;
- high level airways;
- low level airspace;
- low level airways:
- fixed RNAV routes;
- terminal control areas;
- military terminal control areas;
- control area extensions;
- transition areas;
- control zones:
- restricted airspace;
- advisory airspace;
- military operations areas: and
- danger areas.

Question 4

What is the minimum safety equipment required to be on board a multi-engine aircraft, that is able to remain in flight when one of its engines falls, flying over water at 120 kts at a distance from the shore of 51 NM?

Answer 4

a life preserver for each person on board.

CAR 602.62

Question 5

For which of the following should you change your VFR flight plan or flight itinerary?

Answer 5

When there is a planned change to your route.

Explanation

CAR 602.76(3): The pilot-in-command of an aircraft for which a VFR flight plan or a VFR flight itinerary has been filed shall follow the procedure sec out in subsection (4) where the pilot-in-command intends to make a change in the plan or itinerary in respect of:

• the route of flight:
• the duration of the flight or
• the destination aerodrome.

Question 6

which of the following should NOT be caken into account when calculating the minimum fuel amount that must be carried in an aircraft?

Taxiing and foreseeable delays prior to take off.

Meteorological conditions.

Foreseeab e air traffic routings and traffic delays.

None of che above.

Answer 6

None of che above.

Explanation

CAR 602.88: (5) Every aircraft shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to provide for

(a) taxiing and foreseeable delays prior to take-off;
(b) meteorological conditions:

(C) foreseeable air traffic routings and traffic delays;

(d) landing at a suitable aerodrome in the event of loss of cabin pressurization or. in the case of a multi-engined aircraft, failure of any engine, at the most critical point during the flight; and
(e) any ocher foreseeable conditions chat could delay che landing of the aircraft.

Question 7

Which of the following is not mandatory for a turbojet aeroplane that has 150 passenger seats and is used in airline operation for a night IFR flight if there is no MEL established?

1 - An OAT indicator

2 - An altitude alerting system

3 - A cockpit voice recorder 2-a pitot heat

5 - Two independent static pressure systems

6 - Four attitude indicators

Answer 7

6

CAR 605.18 to 36 and 705.67 to 69: Refer to the explanations.

Question 8

No person shall conduct a takeoff or continue a flight in an aircraft where icing conditions are reported to exist or are forecast to be encountered along the route of flight unless:

The pilot-in-command determines that the aircraft is adequately equipped to operace in icing conditions in accordance with the standards of airworchiness under which the type certificate for chat aircraft was issued.

Current pilot reports Indicate thac icing conditions no longer exist.

Current weather reporcs indicate that icing conditions no longer exist.

All of the above.

Answer 8

All of the above.

CAR 605.30

Question 9

The cockpit voice recorder required in some aircraft must operace:

Answer 9

From the time at which electrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.

CAR 605.34

Question 10

A standby attitude indicator should be locaced in the instrument panel of a turbojet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part vII of the CAR. and continue reliable operations for a minimum of ____ minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system.

Answer 10

30

CAR 625.41

Question 11

what is the maximum flight time that can be done during 365 consecutive days under part 705 of the cars?

Answer 11

1000 hours

RAC 700.19
CAR 700.27

Question 12

In aerial work operation (702), for which of the following reasons can flight duty time be extended beyond the maximum?

Answer 12

The flight is extended as a result of unforeseen operational circumstances.

The air operator and the pilot-m-command comply with the Commercial Air Service Standards.

The pilown-command. after consultation with the other flight crew members, considers it safe to exceed the maximum flight time and flight duty time.

All of the above. (RA)

CAR 702.94

Question 13

Consider a flight crew member of an airline company beginning their flight duty period at a location that is in a time zone other than the time zone in which home base is located, and ending their flight duty period at home base.

The local time at the location where the flight duty period began differs by four hours from the local time at home base, and the member has been away from home base for more than 36 consecutive hours.

in this situation, the air operator shall provide the flight crev/ member with a rest period of at least:

Answer 13

13 consecutive hours.

CAR 700.42

Question 14

No air taxi operator, commuter operator or airline operator shall operate a pressurized aircraft unless protective breathing equipment with a. flight crew member position _____ minute supply of breathing gas at a pressure-altitude of 8.000 feet is readily available at each

Answer 14

15

CAR 703.67 CAR 704.66 and 705.71

Question 15

in air taxi operation, when are SOPs required?

Answer 15

For all aircraft that require two or more pilots.

CAR 703.107

Question 16

No commuter operator shall authorize an ifr flight and no person shall commence such a flight unless the aircraft carries sufficient fuel to meet the fuel requirements of Part vi and to allow the aircraft:

Answer 16

To descend at any point along the route to the lower of the single-engined service ceiling or 10.000 feet, and to cruise at this altitude to a suitable aerodrome. To conduct an approach and a missed approach. Then, to hold for 30 minutes at an altitude of 1.500 feet above the elevation of the suitable aerodrome chosen previously.

CAR 704.20

Question 17

In an airline operation, when the aircraft is flying below ________ feet asl. flight crew members who are on flight deck duty shall remain at their duty stations with their safety belts, including their shoulder harnesses, fastened.

Answer 17

10000

CAR 705.29

Question 18

no person shall conduct a takeoff in an airline-operated aeroplane if the weight of the aeroplane is greater than the weight that will allow the aeroplane to attain, with any engine inoperative, a certain net flight path. For this purpose, shall be taken into account after an engine failure.

Answer 18

The effects of: Temperature
fuel jettisoning
wind.

CAR 705.58

Question 19

No person shall operate an aircraft that has more chan 150 seats and is used in an airline operation unless:

Answer 19

An emergency medical kit is carried on board.

a crash axe is carried on board.

Each flight attendant has a flashlight readily available for use.

All of the above. RA

CAR 705.91,92&97

Question 20

in a commercial air service operation, who must ensure that crew scheduling complies with flight and duty time regulations?

Answer 20

The flight crew member.

The operation manager.

The air operator.

All of the above. RA

car 700.20
car 700.28
car 723.07

Question 21

Mandatory reportable incidents concern aircraft having a maximum certificated takeoff weight greater than ____ . or of aircraft being operated under an air operator’s certificate issued under Part ___of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

Answer 21

2250 KG ; VII

Question 22

When conducting an ifr flight within controlled or uncontrolled high-level airspace, you should squawk the code ____unless otherwise instructed by atc.

Answer 22

2000

Explanation
AIM. COM 8.2: Pilots of instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft operating within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace should adjust their transponder to reply on Mode A. Code 200O and on Mode C. unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control (ATC)

Question 23

At 8.000 feet asl. you may not operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed above:

Answer 23

250 knots.

Explanation

AIM. RAC 2.5.2: According to CAR 60232. no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada:

• below 10 OOO feet asl at an indicated a rspeed of more chan 250 KT; or
• below 3 OOO feet agl within 10 nm of a controlled airport ac an indicated airspeed of more than 200 KT unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

Question 24

Within the ACA. where is the high-level Class G airspace located?

Answer 24

Between fl 180 and fl 270.

Explanation

aim. RAC 2.6: Controlled airspace within the High Level Airspace is divided into three separate areas. They are the Southern control Area (SCA). the Northern control Area (NCA) and che Arctic Control Area (ACA). Their lateral dimensions are illustrated in Figure 2.3. Figure 2.4 illustrates their vertical dimensions which are: SCA. 18 000 feet asl and above; NCA. FL230 and above; aca. FL270 and above.

Refer to figures.

Question 25

Airways based on LF/MF navigation aids have an initial width of ____NM during the first. ____NM from the station. Then, it is increased to an angle of ____from the centre line of the airway.

Answer 25

8.68; 49.66; 5.0º AIM, RAC 2.7.1

Question 26

in the Canadian Domestic Airspace, the high-level controlled airspace above FL600 is a Class airspace.

Answer 26

E AIM, RAC 2.8.5

Question 27

Why is it important to have always the center of gravity within the flight envelope limits?

Answer 27

To ensure longitudinal stability.

Question 28

_____are flat panels mounted on the upper wing surfaces, forward _____ installed to assist the ailerons in banking, and therefore turning the aeroplane.

Answer 28

Roll spoilers, flaps Explanation Roll spoilers are flat panels mounted on the upper wing surfaces installed on many jets and turboprop aircraft to assist the ailerons in banking, and therefore turning the aeroplane. These devices deploy in the slipstream on the down wing (generally in front of the flaps so as not to disturb airflow over the aileron); thus decreasing lift, and thereby helping the down wing aileron make the turn. Roll spoilers are interconnected with the ailerons and deploy under a certain speed.

Question 29

The axis of an aircraft joining both tips of the wings is called _____axis, and stability around this axis is the _____stability.

Answer 29

Lateral; longitudinal Explanation The imaginary line joining the aircrafts two wing dps is called che lateral axis. Stability around this axis is che longicudinal stability. The aircraft motion around this axis is the pitch.

Question 30

While caxiing a turboprop engine, propeller pitch will be controlled by the:

Answer 30

Power lever. Explanation The different controls of a turboprop engine are the Power Lever, the Condition Lever and the Prop Lever. The Power Lever has three positions: the Alpha mode, the Beta mode and the Reverse Thrust. On the ground, the propeller pitch changes depending on the position of this control. The Condition Lever is used to set the fuel flow. While taxiing, the Power Lever is in Beta mode, in this mode (before reverse), che propeller pitch is under direct control of the Power Lever. The engine remains idle and the fuel flow varies only slightly (via the FCU) in order to maintain the pressure needed for the propeller pitch to change and a constant RPM. in reverse mode, the Power Lever has significant control on fuel flow, and therefore on the engine power.

Question 31

in a turbojet engine, most of the energy resulting from the combustion chamber will be used to:

Answer 31

Drive the compressor(s). Explanation in a turbojec engine, the purpose of the turbine is to extract a large amount of the energy (about 75%) coming from the combustion in the combustion chamber. This energy will be used mostly to drive the compressors). The energy will also be used to drive the accessories, the propeller of a turboprop and the fan in a curbofan.

Question 32

in a turbine engine. _____% of the total air is used in the combustion process and the correct fuel/air ratio is_____

Answer 32

30; 1:15 Explanation Not all the air entering the turbine engine chamber of combuscion is involved in the combustion process: only 30% of it is involved. The greater amount of air (70%) is used to cool the combustion chamber by bypassing it and to redirect the flame in order to keep it in the centre of the chamber. The correct fuel/air ratio for this type of engine is 1:15.

Question 33

The EPR. used as a measurable indication of the thrust produced by a turbojet engine, is defined as the ratio:

Answer 33

Of total exhaust gas pressure to total pressure at the compressor inlet. Explanation Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is the total pressure ratio of a jet engine, measured as the ratio of the total pressure in the engine nozzle (behind the turbine) divided by the total pressure in the inlet seccion of the engine (in front of the compressor), in many gas turbine engines, the EPR (such as the N1. N2 and fuel flow), is used as the engine rating parameter, and as a measurable indication of the thrust chat the engine produces.

Question 34

how is the critical altitude of a turbocharger defined?

Answer 34

it is the altitude at which the turbocharger wastegate is fully closed. Explanation Sometimes, the engine turbocharger does not need to run (for example at low altitude or at low power), in such cases, a wastegate located in the exhaust system exhausts gas directly into the atmosphere, bypassing the turbine wheel. The manifold pressure then decreases to the outside pressure and the engine works as a normally aspirated engine, when denser air is needed, the wastegate closes and the turbocharger starts. The turbocharger critical altitude is the maximum altitude at which it allows the engine to provide its maximum power with wastegate fully closed. Above this altitude, the engine power will decrease.

Question 35

in a jet engine, the oil system provides:

Answer 35

``` 1 - Storage 2 - Positive pressure supply 3 • Filtering 4 - Recycling 5 - Cooling 6 - Degassing 7 - Control of the operation by pressure and temperature measure 8 - Magnetic plug wear control 9 - Clogging filter control ```

Question 36

Whac is the effect of torque on an aeroplane in flight?

Answer 36

it creates a rotational force opposed to the rotation direction of the propeller. Explanation usually, the propeller rotates clockwise when seen from the cockpit. The propeller rolling motion reaction will bank the aeroplane in the opposite direction, usually to the left. This is called torque, if the aeroplane is in flight it will make a rolling motion in the direction opposite to the spinning propeller (here, to the left), if the aeroplane is on che ground, the force will exert on the left wheel. The aeroplane will make a left yaw movement.

Question 37

Generally, on a multi-engine aeroplane, how will the primary propeller governor react to prevent the propeller rotations from diminishing?

Answer 37

it will allow the oil pressure to increase in the propeller hub. Explanation usually, the propeller pitch works differently on a single engine than on a multi-engine. On the constant speed propeller of a single engine, if the pilot moves the propeller lever forward in order to increase RPM. the piston in the primary governor moves downward, allowing the oil to leave the propeller hub. Pressure in the hub decreases, which reduces the propeller pitch. On a multi-engine aeroplane. It'S the opposite: the oil pressure increasing in the hub drives the propeller to fine pitch position.

Question 38

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the accumulator of a hydraulic system? The hydraulic accumulator absorbs fluid chocks in the hydraulic lines. The hydraulic accumulator maintains pressure by storing energy in the form of compressed air. The hydraulic accumulator provides a fluid supply under pressure in case of pump failure. None of the above.

Answer 38

None of the above. Meaning that all they actually explain how the accumulator of a hydraulic system works. Explanation The accumulator is a cylinder mounted parallel to the hydraulic circuit. It is divided into two chambers by a piston or a membrane. One chamber is pressurized with nitrogen and the other is linked to the hydraulic circuit. The accumulator purposes are. among others, to maintain pressure by storing energy in the form of compressed air (it would be impossible with hydraulic fluid, as it is incompressible), to provide a fluid supply under pressure in case of pump failure, to absorb pump shocks, to absorb fluid chocks in the hydraulic lines, etc.

Question 39

how is the pressure controlled in the cabin of a pressurized aircraft?

Answer 39

By controlling the air leaving the cabin. Explanation The pressurization usually works using the air of engines compressors. The air is cooled with a combination of turbine and radiators to be send in the cabin. The pressure is then regulated by an automatic valve, creating a leak in the pressurized section, the outflow valve, and avoid the cabin pressure to being too high.

Question 40

Which of the following is TRUE regarding aeroplane pressurization? Differential pressure is the difference between the aircraft rate of climb or descent and the cabin rate of climb or descent. Airline aeroplane pressurization generally allows a cabin altitude of 12500 feet. in normal operation, the pilot controls the cabin rate of climb or descent, and the cabin altitude. None of the above.

Answer 40

None of the above. Explanation The control of cabin pressurization is done through three parameters: the cabin altitude (measured by an altimeter in the cabin; should not be more than 8.000 feet), the pressure differential (difference between aircraft pressure and outside pressure: maximum differential pressure is generally between 7 and 9 PSl. depending on the aircraft), and the cabin vertical speed indicator (which shows the speed at which the cabin climbs or descends). Pilots have different controls, depending on the aircraft: - on lighter aircraft, the pilot has a rotary knob to set cabin altitude. This knob has an inner scale showing che chosen cruise altitude and an outside scale indicating the corresponding cabin altitude. The cabin rate of descent or rate of climb is also set manually. - On airline aeroplanes, control of pressurization can be done in normal operation or In manual operation. in normal operations, the pilot does not touch anything (except, sometimes, a knob to enter the arrival airport ele/ation); computers that manage pressurization will directly get the information needed in the FMS. a knob allows the pilot to enter the arrival airport elevation manually (or the QNH. depending on the aircraft) in case, for example, of an FMS error. Generally, pressurization starts during the takeoff run. in manual operation, the pilot manually enters the desired cabin rate of climb or descent. whether or not in normal operation, the cabin vertical speed indicator should not show an indication above the aircraft vertical speed indicator. Too high a cabin vsi would be uncomfortable for passengers. During the descent, when the aircraft altitude is the same as the cabin altitude, the rate of descent indicated on the cabin vsi will be equal to the one indicated in the aircraft vsi. if necessary, a "Dump' knob allows the pilot to completely open outflow valves to depressurize the cabin.

Question 41

What is "vref*?

Answer 41

The landing reference speed, generally 130% of the vso.

Question 42

which of the following is false? The Machmeter is an instrument that needs both an anemometric capsule and a barometric capsule. The Machmeter compares the tas to the local speed of sound. The Machmeter is installed on aircraft flying at high speeds because the airspeed indicator becomes less effective when the flight reaches the critical Mach number. None of che above.

Answer 42

None of che above. Explanation Because air properties are changing when an aircraft reaches its critical Mach number and during high-level flights, the airspeed indicator becomes less effective. To address this problem, aircraft flying at speeds near or above the speed of sound are equipped with machmecers. The machmeter gives an instantaneous value of che number of Mach for fast aircraft at high altitude (low temperature) by measuring the ratio between che aircraft's true airspeed and its local speed of sound. This measurement is expressed in Mach number (Mach 1 means the aircraft is flying ac the speed of sound). Mach number depends on the ambient temperature, but the machmeter measures pressure differentials. The machmeter works thanks to a connection to the aircraft static pressure source and the total pressure source. The total pressure source is connected to an anemometric capsule (sensitive to the differences between static pressure and total pressure [true airspeed]). The anemometric capsule is inside a case that also concains a barometric capsule (sensitive to altitude variations). Both capsules are linked to a rod that transmits their deviation to the instrument needle. Electronic machmeters are also using information from an air data computer. The machmeter can be twinned with the airspeed indicator to give both the aircraft's indicated airspeed and ics Mach number. This instrument is installed on most transport aircraft and can be used as a main instrument, or as an emergency instrument for aircraft equipped with electronic flight instrument systems (EFIS).

Question 43

A pilot flying above a ridge that is at 6.000 feet asl has an altimeter, in which the altimeter setting of the station on the ridge is set indicating 8.000 feet. OAT is -30°C and pressure altitude is 8.540 feet. What will be his/her clearance above the ridge?

Answer 43

1.800 feet.

Question 44

A turn coordinator indicates a rate 1 turn to the right, if the ball is on the right, then:

Answer 44

The inclination is larger than it should be for a coordinated rate one turn.

Question 45

An EFIS consists generally of:

Answer 45

An MFD. An El CAS. A PFD. Explanation An EFiS (Electronic Flight instrument System) is a flight deck instrument display system using electronic technology instead of electromechanical, usually, the EFis consists of a PFD (Primary Flight Display). MFD (Multi-Function Display) and EiCAS (Engine indicating and Crew Alerting system) display. EFIS installations vary from one to six or more display units. The PFD displays all the information critical to flight in a single display (improving the pilot's situational awareness): CAS. heading attitude, altitude, vertical speed and yaw. The PFD increases situational awareness by alerting the pilots (with colour changes or audio alerts) of unusual or potentially dangerous situations (low airspeed, too high race of descent, etc.). The MFD displays navigational (aircraft route, restricted airspace, aircraft traffic aircraft glide radius, location over terrain, etc.) and weather information from various systems (on-board radar, lightning detection sensors or ground-based sensors). The MFD can also change the colour or shape of che data to alert pilots of dangerous situations, it can also display information about aircraft systems and engines (EiCAS/ECAM).

Question 46

What is the instrument used to measure the twisting force applied to the shaft of the turboprop engine?

Answer 46

The torquemeter. Explanation a torquemeter is a device that measures a force or a torque. This device can be mechanical, hydraulic or digital. The torquemeter measures the turboprop and turboshaft engine pov.er output. To do so. it measures the twisting force applied to the shaft in order to make the propeller rotate. Torquemeters usually indicate this force in percentage units or in pounds per foot.

Question 47

Enroute High Altitude Charts (Hi) (Canada) depict:

Answer 47

``` 1- Radio NAVAIDS 2- Radio information 3- High-level airway system 4- special use airspace 5- Communications station information critical for a flight in the high-level structure ```

Question 48

Calculate the wind direction and velocity for a 220º track, a 240º heading, a true airspeed of 147 kts and a groundspeed of 161 kts.

Answer 48

335°/55 ktS.

Question 49

On a LO Enroute. how is a controlled RNAV route represented?

Answer 49

By a series of bold lines. Please refer to the LO Enroute legend.

Question 50

you are flying on a 245ºM heading and the local magnetic variation is 19ºW. You want to determine your position using wo NDB stations. The relative bearing on ndb 1 is 195ºM and the relative bearing on NDB 2 is 315ºM. using this information, you can plot on a map a bearing from NDB 1 of _____ºTand a bearing from NDB 2 of _____°T.

Answer 50

241; 001. Explanation in flight you can find your position using the ADF. The first thing to do is to obtain bearing of an NDB station by indicating the station frequency. The ADF needle indicates in which direction is the station in relation to the heading or to your aircraft longitudinal axis (relative bearing). Determine the magnetic bearing by adding up che magnetic heading and the relative bearing. To draw the bearing on the chart, convert the bearing into true bearing applying the deviation and variation. Draw a line from the station using the opposite of the bearing obtained earlier. Do it again with another station. The two lines cross on a point: your position on the chart. To convert from magnetic to true, remove the West variation and add the East variation. To convert from true to magnetic, add the west variation and remove the East variation. Here, we have: Magnetic bearing of NDB 1 = 245ºMh + 195°M = 440 - 360 = 080ºM True bearing of NDB 1 =80- 19 = 61T Opposite of the true bearing of NDB 1 = 61 + 180 = 241 ºT Magnetic bearing Of NDB 2 = 245BM + 3158M = 560 - 360 = 200ºM True bearing of NDB 2 = 200-19 = 181T Opposite of the true bearing of NDB 1 = 181 - 180 = 001 °T

Question 51

Regarding the stall speed of aeroplanes, which of the following is true?

Answer 51

An aeroplane can stall at any speed. Explanation Wtien respecting the manufacturer s recommendations, an aircraft will stall at its critical angle of attack regardless of its power, airspeed, altitude or attitude, it is therefore possible to reach a precise angle of attack with any airspeed or attitude.

Question 52

An aircraft can stall at any:

Answer 52

Attitude. Power setting. Airspeed. Explanation Wtien respecting the manufacturers recommendations, an aircraft will stall at its critical angle of attack regardless of its power, airspeed, altitude or attitude.

Question 53

What speed will give you the maximum range on a piston aircraft?

Answer 53

Speed that will give you the best ratio between lift and drag (L/D).

Question 54

The ______ is the maximum airspeed at which the full deflection of all available aerodynamic controls will not create overload on the aeroplane.

Answer 54

va. Explanation Manoeuvring speed (va) is the maximum airspeed at which the full deflection of all available aerodynamic controls will not create overload on the aeroplane. This airspeed is in each aircraft owner manual, in turbulent air. you should never exceed this airspeed in order to not go beyond the limit load factor and damage the aircraft primary structure. Manoeuvres where the approach to a stall or the full uses of the rudder or the ailerons is necessary must not be made at an airspeed above va.

Question 55

What IS "V3"?

Answer 55

The flap retraccion speed.

Question 56

What is "vmo"?

Answer 56

The maximum operating limit speed.

Question 57

The balanced field length allows the pilot to:

Answer 57

Respect the requirements of accelerate-stop distance and accelerate-go discance on the shortest runway length possible. Equalize the accelerate-stop distance and the accelerate-go distance. Take off with the highest weight possible regarding runway length and conditions.

Question 58

Hydroplaning is a function of:

Answer 58

The aircraft speed. The tire pressure. The water depth.

Question 59

a pilot is on final approach to land when wind shear causes the headwind to become a very strong tail wind, if he/she doesn't adjust accordingly, he/she will:

Answer 59

undershoot. Explanation Let s assume a wind going from nil to 10 knots tailwind, or a headwind abruptly decreasing by 10 knots (negative wind shear): inertia leads to a delay of seconds before che aircraft reacts to this change. During this time, the aircraft a rspeed decreases by about 10 knots, if this decreasing occurs dunng approach, when the aircraft is flying at lew speed, the approach slope will suddenly be more pronounced and a stall could occur, you should therefore increase power.

Question 60

The greater the value of the EWh in the approach configuration, the _____ the vasi is installed upwind from the threshold, and the _____ the papi is installed upwind from the threshold.

Answer 60

Farther; farther Explanation Explanation aim. aga 7.6.4.2: The vasi installations are designed according to aircraft height group categories av. V1 and V2. as indicated in Table 7.1. The greater che value of che EWH in the approach configuration, the farther the vasi is installed upwind from the threshold to provide the appropriate meht. aim. aga 7.6.43: papi and apapi installations are designed for aircraft height group categories ap. pi. pz and P3. as indicated in Table 7.2. The greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, the farther the papi is installed upwind from the threshold to provide the appropriate meht.

Question 61

The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft landing is the:

Answer 61

LDA.

Question 62

The length of the clearway that begins at the end of the tora should not exceed:

Answer 62

Half of the tora.

Question 63

Considering the information below, determine the maximum payload that can be carried: - Maximum weight - Zero Fuel: 14.500 lbs - Operational empty weight: 12.000 lbs - Pilot: 250 lbs - Fuel carried: 3.800 lbs - Limitation due to field length: 18.500 lbs

Answer 63

2.500 IbS.

Question 64

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine the maximum allowable takeoff weight: - Temperature at the airport: -10°C - Runway length: 4.800 feet - Pressure altitude: 6.000 feet - Headwind: 10 knots

Answer 64

10.700 pounds.

Question 65

Refer to images 1 and 2 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine V1 and V2 when the aircraft is loaded at its maximum: - Temperature at the airport: 105C - Runway: 24 • Takeoff length: 8.000 feet - Pressure altitude: 4.000 feet - Wlnd:060cM/10ktS

Answer 65

V1 =95ktS;V2=119ktS.

Question 66

Considering the inf At FL280: - TAS = 430 ktS - Fuel Flow = 1.530 Ibs/h - Headwind = 80 kts At FL320: - TAS = 450 kts - Fuel Flow = 1.500 lbs/h - Tailwind = 125 kts

Answer 66

FL320 with a specific ground range of 0.38 NM/lb.

Question 67

An aircraft has a stalling speed, at a given level, of 50 knots. What is the new stalling speed if the aircraft turns with a 45' bank?

Answer 67

59 knots. Explanation During a turn. the bank increasing results in a load factor increasing. The lift has to be increased to sustain a level flight To increase the lift increase the wing angle of attack: the stalling angle will be reached at a higher airspeed than in a straight flight To determine the load factor, use the following formula: 1 / [cos (angle of bank)] Here: load factor = 1 / cos(45) = 1.41 To determine the stall speed in turn, use the following formula: vs horizontal x sqr(load factor) Here: vs in a turn = 50 x sqr(1.41) = 59 knots

Question 68

Consider a turbojet aeroplane that has a speed for minimum drag of 230 knots. The maximum range speed of this aeroplane will be found at_____altitude with a value of________ knots.

Answer 68

High; 302. Explanation as for a piston engine, the maximum range of a turbojet engine and its speed for maximum range will be greater at high altitude because air density at high altitude will cause less drag than at low altitude. The maximum range speed of a turbojet engine is very close to the minimum drag speed: at this speed, stability is very low. in addition, this speed is difficult to keep regarding the changing flight conditions (changes in temperature affect power, turbulence affect drag etc.). Turbojet aeroplanes are chen usually flying at speeds above the speed for maximum range. The fuel consumption slightly increases but the flight time decreases. The relation between the speed for maximum range and the speed for minimum drag is: Speed for maximum range = 1.32 x Speed for minimum drag in this formula, you can see that both speeds are proportional.

Question 69

When cruising under constant conditions, in order to maintain the best range of turbojet aircraft, it is necessary to _______ as the fuel is consumed.

Answer 69

Reduce power and IAS Explanation in a piston engine, fuel consumption is proportional to power: che maximum range will be reached at a speed that allows the lowest ratio power/true airspeed to be obtained, in a turbojet engine, fuel consumption is proportional to thrust: the maximum range reached at che speed that allows the lowest thrusc/true airspeed to be obtained, unlike a piston-engine aircraft a turbojec aircraft will reach a greater distance with a greater TAS. Maximum range will be greater with a tailwind and at high altitude, and lower with a headwind or crosswind and at low altitude, weight also plays a role in the maximum range: the heavier the aircraft the greater the lift needed (so more power and more induced drag), and che lower the range.

Question 70

After takeoff and during climb, when an aeroplane leaves the ground effect, the induced drag:

Answer 70

Suddenly increases.

Question 71

Mach tuck is found when:

Answer 71

The centre of pressure of an aircraft moving at high speed moves rearward.

Question 72

Refer to images 3 to 5 in the Appendix. According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance: - Runway: Dry • Brake use: max manual - Landing gross weight: 45.000 Kg - Airport elevation: 11.000 ft - Head/tail winds: 10 kts tailwind - Runway gradient: Nil ■ OAT: ISA - 5°C - Approach speed: Vref40 * 10 kts - Reverse thrust: use of both - Flaps: 40 - Speedbrakes: manual

Answer 72

5.075 feet.

Question 73

Generally, an aircraft in supersonic flight is an aircraft that is moving at Mach ______ or more.

Answer 73

1.2 Explanation When the airflow speed on the entire surface of an aircraft is below the local speed of sound, this aircraft is in subsonic flight. Aircraft in subsonic flights are usually flying below Mach 0.75. When the airflow speed on some parts of an aircraft's surface is below the local speed of sound, but the speed on other parts (usually the wing upper surfaces) is greater than the local speed of sound, this aircraft is in transonic flight. Aircraft in transonic flights are usually flying between 0.75 and Mach 1.2. When the airflow speed on the entire surface of an aircraft is greacer than the local speed of sound, this aircraft is in supersonic flight. Aircraft in supersonic flighcs are usually flying above Mach 1.2.

Question 74

At 40.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is:

Answer 74

13 to 30 seconds. TP 12863E - Human Factors For Aviation - Basic Manuel => Chapter 5: The Body - What The Body Takes In: Types of hypoxia - Effects of Hypoxia • Time of useful Consciousness: The most common measure of the effects of hypoxia is Time of useful Consciousness (Tuq. TUC indicates how much time you have to function in a reasonably competent way without supplemental oxygen. As altitude increases, your ability to perform declines rapidly. Times of useful Consciousness at altitude: 20. 000 feet: 5-12 minutes 30. 000 feet: 45-75 seconds 40. 000 feet: 13-30 seconds 45. 000 feet and above: 12-15 seconds or less

Question 75

After a deep scuba dive, a pilot must wait at least _____ hour(s) before flying.

Answer 75

24.

Question 76

a decrease of night vision may be noticed from an altitude as low as _____ feet.

Answer 76

5.000.

Question 77

if you stay in a coordinated level turn for a while without any visual reference to the ground, what illusion might you experience?

Answer 77

as if you were on a scraight and level flight.

Question 78

Fog moving across a run way could give a pilot a false sense of drift. This illusion is called _____ Illusion.

Answer 78

Vection ``` Explanation a vection (visually induced perception of self-motion) illusion is produced by the nearly uniform motion of a large part of the visual field, resulting in the person feeling chat they are moving opposite to the motion observed in the visual field. Therefore, fog moving across a runway could give a pilot a false sense of drift However, this illusion will be relatively easily overcome if sufficient stationary cues are available, such as additional lighting, in this occurrence, as desenbed above, che available visual cues were marginal to allow the landing to be carried out effectively, even in the absence of a vection illusion. The presence of moving elemencs in the visual scene, such as blowing fog or snow, would only compound che problem. ```

Question 79

The black hole illusion often causes an approach to be flown:

Answer 79

TOO low. Explanation At night, approaching a lighted runway in rural areas, you will have false perceptions of altitude and attitude. The false perceptions are the result of no visual light references dunng approach (underneath and beside) plus the darkness, it is called the black hole illusion. Your only visual light reference is the runway. Even with a lot of experience, the Illusion can make you think you are flying too high, causing you to approach too lew and land too short.

Question 80

Which of the following is false? G tolerance varies greatly with the individual. Positive or negative G tolerance is the same for everyone. G tolerance is affected by diet and good physical conditioning. G tolerance is lowered by obesity, ill health, low blood pressure, pregnancy and many medications.

Answer 80

Positive or negative G tolerance is the same for everyone.