8 Flashcards
Which of the following are aircraft under commuter operation rules?
a multi-engine aeroplane that has a MCTOW of 8.618 kg or less and a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 10 to 19 inclusive.
a turbojet-powered aeroplane that has a maximum zero fuel weight of 50.000 pounds or less and for which a Canadian type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of not more than 19 passengers.
Any aircraft that is authorized by the Minister to be operated under these rules.
in a commuter operation, no aircraft shall take off unless the pilot-in-command determines which of the following?
That the maximum takeoff weight is within approved limits.
Explanation
CAR 704.46
Name three aspects of the use of an operational flight plan for an airline operation?
An informal operational flight plan may be used for a flight within 25 NM from the departure aerodrome.
An air operator shall keep a copy of the operational flight plan, including any amendments to the plan, for not less than 90 days.
One copy of the operational flight plan must be left at the point of departure, and another copy must be carried on board the aircraft until the aircraft reaches the final destination of the flight.
CAR 705.22
CAR 725.22
An aeroplane used in an airline operation should, if in day VFR flight, carry sufficient fuel to fly to:
The destination aerodrome and thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
CAR 705.25
Except when conducting a takeoff or landing, no person shall use an aeroplane operated in an airline service in vfr flight at less than ____or at a horizontal distance of less than_____ from any obstacle.
1.000 feet AGL 1.000 feet
CAR 705.32
No person shall dispatch a turbojet-powered aeroplane used in an airline operation unless a full-stop landing is possible within available at the alternate ____% of the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome and within_____% of the landing distance
60; 60
If it was a propeller it would be 70; 70
CAR 705.60
In an aeroplane used by an airline operator. first aid kit(s) shall be on board if this aeroplane has 150 passenger seats.
2
Explanation
car 705.90: (1) No person shall operate an aircraft unless the following number of first aid kits that meet the Commercial Air service Standards are carried on board the aircraft:
(a) 0 to 50 passenger seats, one kit:
(b) 51 to 150 passenger seats, two kits;
(c) 151 to 250 passenger seats, three kits: and
(d) 251 or more passenger seats, four kits.
(2) First aid kits shall be
(a) distributed throughout the aircraft cabin;
(b) readily available to crew members and passengers;
(C) clearly identified.
(d) marked with the date of the last inspection; and
(e) where the aircraft is equipped with only one first aid kit. located as close as practicable to an emergency exit.
(3) a stowage compartment that contains a first aid kit shall be clearly marked as to its contents.
What is the minimum number of flight attendants that must be on the deck of an aeroplane with 1 passenger and used in an airline operation?
1
Explanation
CAR 705.201: (1) No air operator shall operate an aeroplane to carry passengers unless the air operator does so with the minimum number of flight attendants required on each deck.
(2) Subject to subsections (4) to (7). the minimum number of flight attendants required on each deck of an aeroplane is determined in accordance with one of the following ratios that is selected by the air operator in respect of the model of chat aeroplane:
(a) one flight attendant for each unit of 40 passengers or for each porcion of such a unit; or
(b) one flight attendant for each unit of 50 passenger seats or for each portion of such a unit.
(3) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector or a person authorized under subsection 705.27(4) to access che flight deck is not counted as a passenger for the purposes of paragraph (2)(a).
(4) An air operator who has selected, in respect of a model of aeroplane, the ratio set out in paragraph (2Xb) shall not operate an aeroplane of that model wich only one flight attendant unless
(a) the aeroplane has a single deck and is configured for 50 or fewer passenger seacs:
(b) the aeroplane was certified under
(l) part 25. title 14. of the Code of Federal Regulations of the united Staces. in che version in effect on March 6.1SSO or after chat date.
(li) the European joint Aviation Requirements — Large Aeroplanes (JAR-25). published by the joint Aviation Authorities, in the version in effect on November 30, 1981 or after chat date.
(ill) the Certification Specifications, including Airworthiness Code and Acceptable Means of Compliance, for Large Aeroplanes (CS-25). published by the European Aviation safety Agency, in the version in effect on October 17,2C03 or after that date, or (iv) Chapter 525 — Transport Category Aeroplanes of the Airworthiness Manual, in the version in effect on July 1.1986 or after that dace;
(c) only one flight attendant was used for che emergency evacuation demonstration required for the certification of that model of aeroplane;
(d) the air operators flight attendant manual indicates how normal and emergency procedures differ depending on whether the aeroplane is operated with one flight attendant or with more than one flight attendant;
(e) the flight attendant occupies a flight attendant station that is located near a floor-level exit- and
(fj the public address syscem and the crew member interphone system are operative and are capable of being used at the flighc attendant station.
The consolidation period of a pilot working for an airline operator may take place in accordance with a time limit of_____hours in_____ days and shall begin upon successful completion of an initial PPC on each aeroplane type.
50; 60
CAR 725.106: (7) Consolidation Period (refers to subseccion 705.106(4) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)
(a) The consolidation period shall take place in accordance with the time limits from the following sliding scale and shall begin upon successful completion of an initial Pilot Proficiency Check on each aeroplane type:
(I) 50 hours in 60 days;
(II) 75 hours in 90 days; or (H0100 hours in 120 days.
High altitude training is required for all flight crew members operating aeroplanes above _____feet asl before the first assignment on a pressurized aeroplane and every_____months thereafter.
13.000; 36.
Explanation
CAR 723.98,724.115 and 725.124: High Altitude training is required for all flight crew members operating aeroplanes above 13.000 feet ASL before the first assignment on a pressurized aeroplane and every three years thereafter.
Training about hypoxia is required for all flight crew members operating aeroplanes above _____ before their first assignment on a pressurized transport aeroplane and every ___ years thereafter.
13ooo feet asl; three
Explanation
CAR 723.98,724.115 and 725.124: High Altitude training is required for all flight crew members operating aeroplanes above 13.000 feet asl before first assignment on a pressurized aeroplane and every three years thereafter.
(a) physiological phenomena in a low pressure environment, including:
(I) respiration;
(li) hypoxia;
(III) duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental oxygen;
(iv) gas expansion and gas bubble formation.
(b) other factors associated with rapid loss of pressurization including;
(I) most likely causes;
(10 noise;
(III) cabin temperature change;
(iv) cabin fogging.
(v) effects on objects located near the point of fuselage failure;
(vl) actions of crew members immediately following the event and the likely resultant attitude.
What is the means to evaluate the trainee after completion of the ground training program provided by the operator of an airline service?
A written examination.
Explanation
CAR 725.124: (II) Ground Training Examinations: The ground training program shall provide a means of evaluating the trainee after completion of the syllabus by completion of examination with a review and correction of any errors. Training examinations shall be comprehensive, and periodically reviewed and updated.
After an accident, the aircraft or its components may not be moved unless it is to:
Ensure the safety of any person.
Explanation
aim. GEN 3.4
During a VFR flight at 12.500 feet, unless otherwise indicated by atc. the transponder should show mode A and the transponder code should be:
1200.
Explanation
AIM, COM 8.4: During visual flight rules (VFR) flight in low level airspace, adjust the transponder to reply on the following unless otherwise assigned by an air traffic services (ATS) unit
(a) Mode A Code 1200 for operation at or below 12 500 ft above sea level (ASL): or
(b) Mode A. Code 1400 for operation above 12 500 ft ASL.
What are the vertical dimensions of the Northern Control Area?
FL230 and above
AIM, RAC 2.6
The splay angle of a vhf airway based on a VOR and an NDB is _____ and it will intersect the basic width of the airway ______ NM from each station.
5°; 49.66.
Explanation
aim, RAC 2.7.1: The basic lf/mf airway width is 4.34 NM on each side of the centre line prescribed for such an airway, where applicable, the airway width shall be increased between the points where lines, diverging 5° on each side of the centre line from the designated facility, intersect the basic width boundary; and where they meet, similar lines projected from the adjacent facility.
VHF airways based on two vors have an initial width of _____NM from the airway border to the airway centreline during the first _____NM from the station. Then, it is increased to an angle of ______ from the airway centreline.
4.0; 50.80; 4.5º
Explanation
aim, RAC 2.7.1: vhf/uhf Airways: The basic vhf/uhf airway width is 4 NM on each side of the center line prescribed for such an airway. Where applicable, the airway width shall be increased between the poincs where lines, diverging 4.5° on each side of the center line from the designated facility, intersect the basic widch boundary; and where they meet, similar lines projected from the adjacent facility.
which of the following is TRUE regarding special vfr inside a control zone?
you must have clearance from ATC to fly SVFR.
you must remain clear of clouds.
Explanation
aim. rac 2.73: when weather conditions are below VFR minima, a pilot operating vfr may request special vfr (SVFR) authorization in order to enter the control zone. This authorization is normally obtained through the local cower or FSS. and must be obtained before SVFR is attempted within a control zone, atc will issue an svfr authorization, traffic and weather conditions permitting, only upon a request for svfr from a pilot. SVFR will not be initiated by ATS. Once having received SVFR authorization, the pilot continues to remain responsible for avoiding other aircraft and weather conditions beyond che pilot’s own flight capabilities and the capabilities of the aircraft.
NOTES:
- All aircraft including helicopters, must be equipped with a radio capable of communicating with che atc unit and must comply with all conditions issued by the atc unit as part of che svfr authorization.
- Aircraft must operate clear of cloud and within sight of the ground at all times.
- Helicopters should operate at such reduced airspeeds so as to give the pilown-command adequate opportunity to see other air traffic or obstructions in time to avoid a collision.
- when che aircraft is not a helicopcer and is being operated at night, atc will only authorize special vfr where che authorization is for the purpose of allowing the aicraft to land at the destination aerodrome
A class D airspace could be
A control zone where a control tower is operating.
Explanation
aim. RAC 2.8.4: class D airspace is a controlled airspace within which both ifr and VFR flights are permitted, but vfr flights must establish two-way communication with the appropriate atc agency prior to entenng the airspace, atc separation is provided only to ifr aircraft. Aircraft will be provided with traffic information. Equipment and workload permitting, conflict resolution will be provided between vfr and ifr aircraft, and upon request between vfr aircraft.
Airspace classified as Class D becomes Class E airspace when che appropriate atc unit is not in operation.
a terminal control area and associated control zone could be classified as Class D airspace.
What should you do to fly into an airspace marked ‘CYA 436(T)’ on your VNC?
You could simply fly into it but should be careful.
Explanation
aim, RAC 2.8.6: Airspace may be classified as Class F advisory airspace if it is airspace within which an activity occurs that, for flight safety purposes, non participating pilots should be aware of. such as training parachuting hang gliding military operations, etc.
There are no specific restnccions that apply to the use of advisory airspace. VFR aircraft are. however, encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless participating in the activity taking place therein, if necessary, pilots of non participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, due to the nature of the aerial activity extra vigilance is recommended. Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
VFR aircraft planning to enter the adiz ___ required to file a defence flight plan or a defence flight itinerary. Position reporting points must be respected within +/-____ minutes and +/- ___NM.
Are; 5; 20.
AIM, RAC 3.8
when may a pilot perform a GPS- (TSO-Ci29/Ci29a avionics) based approach at an alternate airport?
when the alternate aerodrome and the destination aerodrome are separated by a minimum of 75 NM where both aerodromes are in either Nunavut or north of 56 degrees Norch latitude in Quebec and Labrador, and by a minimum of 100 NM where either or both aerodromes are located anywhere else in Canada.
For GPS units chat do not have fde RAIM (Fault Detection and Exclusion RAIM) the pic must do a RAIM prediction a least once before the mid-point of the flight to che destination airport.
AIM, COM 5.9.1
In flight, you are approaching an airport where an MF is in use. You should establish radio contact:
Before entering the MF area and. where circumstances permit, at least 5 minutes before entering the area.
AIM, RAC 4.5.7
What is the correct sequence of ifr position reports?
(IPTAINNR) identification position time altitude IFR next reporting point and ETA name only of the next succeeding reporting point remarks.
IFR planned speeds should be adhered to within ____ Mach or ____
0.01; 5% KTAS
AIM, RAC 8.2.1
AIM, RAC 8.2.2
in a compressor, what is the purpose of the bleed valve?
Prevent the stall of the compressor.
What is the most likely moment for compressor stall to occur?
Engine start.
Explanation
The jet engine compressor is driven by wings chat rotate at high speed, just like the wing of an aeroplane, these blades can stall under some circumstances, causing the compressor to stall. The blades will stall if:
- air enters che inlet with a too high angle of attack, causing turbulence of the air which strikes blades at an angle above the critical angle of actack;
- the surge bleed valve falls to open under the Fuel Control unit (FCU) control;
- there is dust on the blades, causing airflow separation;
- there is ice on the first-stage compressor;
- che blades are damaged or worn, reducing che critical angle of attack.
Compressor scall may also occur when the jet engine starts or during acceleration.
Compressor scall will affect che entire compressor, and therefore the engine.
The EPR can be defined as:
The amount of energy imported to the airscream by the jet engine.
Explanation
Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is the total pressure ratio of a jet engine, measured as the ratio of the total pressure in the engine nozzle (behind the turbine) divided by the total pressure in the inlet seccion of the engine (in front of the compressor), in many gas turbine engines, the EPR (such as the N1. N2 and fuel flow), is used as the engine rating parameter, and as a measurable indication of the thrust chat the engine produces.
a turbojet engine is limited by:
Inter turbine temperature.
Rotation speed.
Turbine inlet temperacure.
Explanation
jet engines are limited by maximum temperature and maximum rotation speed. We will consider one of those limitations based on the phase of flight. The temperature of gas is measured at two different locations:
- between the combustion chamber exit and the high-pressure turbine section encry (Turbine inlet Temperature or TIT);
- between the high- and low-pressure turbine stages (inter Turbine Temperature or ITT).
ITT is often used because TIT is difficult to measure due to high-pressure gases.
Maximum rotation speed may have one or more limits (based on the number of shafts or spools). Limits can be found on N1. N2. or both.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the auxiliary power unit?
it produces electrical power.
it is used to start the aircraft engines.
it supplies pneumatic pressure.
It can be used on the ground and on flight
Explanation
The Auxiliary Power unit (APU) is a device (generally a turbine generator) designed to power the various onboard systems of the aircraft (electrical voltage, pneumatic and hydraulic pressure, cooling, etc.) when the engines are stopped to save fuel, it may or may not be used in flight, apus are generally located at the rear of the aircraft (tail cone) and are powered by the kerosene of the aircraft tanks. They produce the energy (pneumatic, hydraulic or electrical) needed to start the engines.
What is the main difference between a turbocharger and a supercharger?
The turbocharger is powered by exhaust fumes while the supercharger works through the engine.
Explanation
The supercharger needs up to 16% of the engine power to work, it is located downstream from the carburetor and causes forced induction by compressing the fuel/air mixture after leaving the carburetor. The turbocharger is a system allowing the density of air coming into the engine to be increased, it is a very efficient system at high altitude powered by exhaust gas energy.
What precautions should be caken before shutting down a piston engine with a turbocharger system?
Allow the engine to run at low speed for a while to allow the turbocharger to slow down and cool.
Explanation
The piston engines (with or without a turbocharger) are affected by very hot temperatures when they are in use. it is recommended to idle them for a few minutes just after their start, but also before the shutdown. This allows the oil to circulate to cool systems and remove residual heat.
