13

Question 1

CARs define as infant as:

Answer 1

A person under 2 years of age

Explanation

CAR 101.01: “infant” means a person under two years of age.

Question 2

According to the cars, who is authorized to check a license, permit or certificate?

Answer 2

A peace, custom, immigration agent or any person authorized by the Minister.

Explanation

CAR 103.02: The owner or operacor of an aircraft shall, on reasonable notice given by the Minister, make the aircraft available for inspection in accordance with the noticed Every person who:

• is the holder of a Canadian aviation document;
• is the owner, operator or pilown-command of an aircraft in respect of which a Canadian aviation document, technical record or ocher document is kept or
• has in possession a Canadian aviation document technical record or ocher document relating to an aircraft or a commercial air service;

shall produce che Canadian aviation document technical record or other document for inspection in accordance with the terms of a demand made by a peace officer, an immigration officer or the Minister.

Question 3

What is a high-performance aeroplane?

Answer 3

An aeroplane that requires only one pilot and has a vne of 250 KIAS or more and a vso of 80 KIAS or more.

Explanation

CAR 400.01: “high-performance aeroplane”, with respect to a rating, means an aeroplane that is specified in the minimum flight crew document as requiring only one pilot and chat has a maximum speed (vne) of 250 kias or greater or a stall speed (Vso) of 80 kias or greater.

Question 4

in which circumstances is a valid private pilot license required?

Answer 4

When flying as a crew member and performing tasks in respect to one’s license.

Explanation

CAR 401.03: No person shall act as a flight crew member or exercise the privileges of a flight crew permit, licence or rating unless the person holds the appropriate permit, licence or racing and the permit licence or rating is valid.

Question 5

if a pilot who has an airline transport pilot licence does not renew their category 1 medical, he/she could act as:

Answer 5

Private pilot.

Explanation

CAR 424. Personnel Licensing and Training: Refer to the table.

Question 6

VFR cross-country pilots wishing to cross through any part of a Class C Control Zone should:

Answer 6

Advise atc of their mtenciorts and obcain a clearance.

Explanation
CAR 601.08: No person operating a VFR aircraft shall enter class C airspace unless che person receives a clearance co encer from che appropriate air craffic control unit before entering the airspace.

Question 7

VFR flight within class B airspace is permitted:

Answer 7

In accordance with an atc clearance.

Explanation
CAR 601.07: No person shall operate a vfr aircraft in class B airspace unless the aircraft is operated in accordance with an air traffic control clearance or an authorization issued by the Minister.

Question 8

Whac are some of the critical surfaces of an aircraft?

Answer 8

The wings, control surfaces, propeller, horizontal stabilizer and other stabilizer.

Explanation
CAR 602.11: in this section, “critical surfaces” means che wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any other stabilizing surface of an aircraft and. in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines, includes the upper surface of its fuselage.

Question 9

No person shall operate a MULTI-engine aeroplane over water that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than ____ unless life rafts are carried on board.

Answer 9

200 nautical miles, or the distance chat can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary.

Explanation
CAR 602.63: No person shall operate over water a MULTI-ENGINED aeroplane that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than 200 nautical miles, or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is che lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site unless life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accommodate all of the persons on board.

Question 10

Where no search and rescue initiation time is specified in a flight itinerary, when shall the pilot report to the “responsible person”?

Answer 10

as soon as practicable after landing but no later chan 24 hours after the last reported ETA.

Explanation

CAR 602.77: A ptloc-in-command of an aircraft who terminates a flight in respect of which a flight Itinerary has been filed under subsection 602.75(2) shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with an air traffic control unit, a flight service station, a community aerodrome radio station or. if the flight itinerary was filed with a responsible person, the responsible person, as soon as practicable after landing but not later chan

• the search and rescue action initiation time specified in the flight itinerary: or

• where no search and rescue action initiation time is specified in the flight itinerary. 24 hours after che last reported estimated time of arrival.

Question 11

A turbojet-powered aeroplane operated in ifr flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft, when an alternate aerodrome is specified in the flight itinerary:

Answer 11

To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes.

CAR 602.88: (4) An aircraft operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allcw the aircraft (b) in che case of a curbo-jec-powered aeroplane or a helicopter.

(i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in che flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at che descinacion aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes, or (H) where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in che flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at che descinacion aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes.

Question 12

when an aircraft does not have an MEL why might a pilot not be allowed to take off?

Answer 12

The standards of airworthiness have not been met

Explanation

car 605.10: Where a minimum equipment list has not been approved in respect of the operator of an aircraft, no person shall conduct a takeoff in the aircraft with equipment that is not serviceable or that has been removed, where that equipment is required

by:

• the standards of airworthiness that apply to day or night vfr or ifr flight, as applicable;
• any equipment list published by the aircraft manufacturer respecting aircraft equipment that is required for the intended flight;
• an air operator certificate, a private operator certificate, a special flight operations certificate or a flight training unit operating certificate;
• an airworthiness directive; or
• these Regulations.

Question 13

A third attitude indicator shall be located in the instrument panel of a _____ and continue reliable operations for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system.

Answer 13

Turbojet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part VII of the car.

Explanation

CAR 625.41: (1) Pursuant to CAR 605.41. the standby attitude indicator shall:

(a) be powered from a source independent of the electrical generating system;
(b) be operative without selection after total failure of the electrical generating system;

(C) continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system;

(d) operate independently of any attitude indicator system; and
(e) have the indicating instrument:
(l) located in an position on the instrument panel where it is plainly visible to and usable by any pilot at his pilot station; and (ii) appropriately illuminated during all phases of operation.

Question 14

According to the cars, the ____ is responsible for entering any defects found on the aircraft inside the journey log.

Answer 14

Person who discovered the defect.

Explanation
CAR 605.94 and CAR 605. Schedule I

The person responsible for the entry in the journey logbook is the person who discovered the defect.

Question 15

what is the maximum flight time a pilot can do in a single pilot ifr flight, in 24 consecutive hours?

Answer 15

8

Explanation

RAC 700.19: (1) This Division does not apply

(a) to an air operator who operates an aircraft under subpart 2 of this Part or to a flight crew member who operates an aircraft under that Subpart or
(b) to an air operator who conducts a medical evacuation flight or to a flight crew member who operates an aircraft to conduct such a flight.
(2) For the purposes of this Division, references to a time of day are
(a) if a flight crew member is acclimatized, references to the local time at their location; or
(b) if a flight crew member is not acclimatized, references to che local time at che last location where the member was acclimatized.&

car 700.27: (1) An air operator shall not assign flight time to a flight crew member, and a flight crew member shall not accept such an assignment if the members total flight time will, as a result, exceed

(a) 112 hours in any 28 consecutive days;
(b) 800 hours in any SO consecutive days;

(C) 1.000 hours in any 365 consecutive days; or

(d) in the case of a single-pilot operation. 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours.
(2) For the purpose of subsection (1). a flight crew members flight time includes
(a) the flight time accumulated from other flight operations; and
(b) the total flight time of a flight with an augmented flight crew.

car 702.92: (1) Subject to subsection (2). an air operator shall not assign flight time to a flight crew member, and a flight crew member shall not accept such an assignment, if the members total flight time will, as a result, exceed

(a) 1.200 hours in any 365 consecutive days;
(b) 300 hours in any SO consecutive days;

(C) 120 hours in any 30 consecutive days or. in the case of a flight crew member on call. 100 hours in any 30 consecutive days;

(d) 60 hours in any 7 consecutive days; or
(e) if the member conducts single-pilot IFR flights, eight hours in any 24 consecutive hours.

Question 16

If an air operator uses the split flight duty period system, he/she may extend the reserve duty period by __ hours if a break in accordance with this section is provided. There should not be more than ___ flights during the flight duty
period following the break.

Answer 16

2; 2

Explanation

car 700.50: (1) a filghc crew member’s flight duty period may exceed the maximum flight duty period set out in section 700.28 by the following amount of ame. if the air operator provides the member with a break, in suitable accommodation, of at least 60 consecutive minutes during the flight duty period:

(a) 10O9C of the duration of the break that is provided to the member during the period beginning at 24:00 and ending at 05:59;
(b) 509c of the duration of the break that is provided to the member during the period beginning at 06:00 and ending at 23:59; and

(0 in the case of an unforeseen operational circumstance. 509c of the duration of the break that is provided to the member in the case of the replanning of a flight duty period after it has begun.

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1). the duration of the break provided to the flight crew member is reduced by 45 minutes before che calculation is made.
(3) if a flight crew member is assigned to night duty, their flight duty period may only be extended under subsection (1) for three consecutive nights.
(4) The time referred to in paragraphs (ixa) and (b) is the time at the location where the flight crew member is acclimatized.
(5) if a flight crew member on reserve is assigned to flight duty that includes split duty, the air operator may extend the re$en;e duty period by two hours if a break in accordance with this section is provided. There shall not be more than two flights during the flight duty period following the break.

Question 17

An air operator asks a flight crew member to travel for the purpose of positioning immediately after the completion of a flight duty period. The flight duty period plus the travel time required for positioning exceed the maximum flight duty period set out in the CARS.

Can the flight crew member refuse this demand?

Answer 17

Yes. if the positioning would result in the members maximum flight duty period being exceeded by more than three hours.

Yes. if the member advises the air operator that they are fatigued to the extent that they are not fit for duty.

Yes. if the positioning would result in the members maximum flight duty period being exceeded by more than seven hours.

Explanation

CAR 700.26: (1) An air operator shall not allow a flight crew member to begin a flight duty period if. before the beginning of the period, the member advises the air operator that they are fatigued to the extent that they are not fit for duty.

CAR 700.43: (1) if a flight crew member is required by the air operator to travel for the purpose of positioning immediately after the completion of a flight duty period and the flight duty penod plus the travel time required for positioning exceed the maximum flight duty period set out in section 700.28. the air operator shall provide the member with a rest period before the beginning of the next flight duty period that is equal to the duration of

(a) the number of hours of work, if the maximum flight duty period is exceeded by three hours or less; or
(b) the number of hours of work plus the amount of time by which the maximum flight duty period is exceeded, if the maximum flight duty period is exceeded by more than three hours.
(2) Despite subsection (1). the rest period provided to the member by the air operator before the beginning of the next flight duty period shall not be shorter than the rest period required under subsection 700.40(1).
(3) An air operator shall not require the positioning of a flight crew member if it would result in the members maximum flight duty period being exceeded by more than three hours unless
(a) the member agrees to the positioning; and
(b) the member’s flight duty period is not exceeded by more than seven hours.
(4) An air operator shall consider the time required for the positioning of a flight crew member, that is not immediately followed tty the assignment of a flight duty period, as a flight duty period for the purpose of determining the duration of the rest periods in accordance with section 700.40.

Question 18

how long should an air taxi operator retain training records of the ppcs?

Answer 18

3 years.

Explanation
CAR 703.99: An air operator shall retain the records referred to in paragraphs (1X0 and (d) and a record of each pilot proficiency check for at least three years.

Question 19

Where the flight crew member’s line check has expired fora period of ____ months or more, that flight crew member shall successfully complete the air operator’s initial training program and a pilot proficiency check on the type of aeroplane.

Answer 19

24.

Explanation

CAR 725.113: Where the flight crew member’s pilot proficiency check, line check or training has expired for a period of 24 months or more, that flight crew member shall successfully complete the air operator’s initial training program and a pilot proficiency check on the type of aeroplane.

Question 20

A ____is a controlled airspace that is similar to a control area extension except that it may extend up into the high-level airspace.

Answer 20

Terminal control area.

AIM RAC 2.7.6: A TCA is similar to a control area extension except that:

• a TCA may extend up into the high level airspace;

• IFR traffic is normally controlled by a terminal control unit. The ACC will control a TCA during periods when a TCU is not in operation; and
• TCA airspace will normally be designed in a circular configuration, centred on the geographic coordinates of the primary aerodrome. The outer limit of the tca should be at 45 NM radius from the aerodrome geographic coordinates based at 9 500 ft agl with an intermediate circle at 35 NM based at 2200 ft agl and an inner circle at 12 NM radius based at 1 200 ft agl. Where an operational advantage may be gained, the area may be sectorized. For publication purposes the altitudes may be rounded to the nearest appropnate increment and published as heights asl The floor of a tca shall not extend lower than 700 ft agl.

Question 21

Air routes between 12.500 and 18.000 feet, exclusively, are contained within class airspace.

Answer 21

G

Explanation
aim. RAC 2.8.7: low-level air routes are contained within class G airspace. They are basically the same as a low-level airway, except that they extend upwards from the surface of the earth and are not controlled. The lateral dimensions are identical to those of a low-level airway (see RAC 2.7.1).

Question 22

A heavy aeroplane has just taken off from Runway 24R at an airport with a radar vectoring service. Your aeroplane has a MCTOW of 3.000 kg. you are next to take off from an intersection on Runway 24R. According to this information:

Answer 22

The control will impose a separation of 6 Miles

Explanation

AIM. RAC 4.1.1: Refer to the cable.

Pilot Waivers: Although controllers are not permitted to initiate waivers to wake turbulence separation minima, they will issue takeoff clearance to pilots who have waived wake turbulence requirements on their own initiative, with the following exceptions:

(a) a light or medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft and takeoff is started from an intersection or a point significantly further along the runway, in the direction of takeoff; or
(b) a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft takes off or makes a low or missed approach in the opposite direction on the same runway: or
c) a light or medium aircraft departing after a heavy aircraft makes a low or missed approach in the same direction on the same runway.

Question 23

Along off-airway tracks, the protected airspace is ____ each side of that portion of the track, which is beyond navigational and signal coverage range.

Answer 23

45 NM

Explanation
aim. RAC 6.4.6: Along off-airway tracks the “airspace to be protected” is 45 NM each side of that porcion of the crack which is beyond navigational and signal coverage range.

Question 24

When cleared at a given Mach number, if it is approved by the pilot, atc must be notified of any change of the Mach number, while enroute under an ifr flight plan, by ___

Answer 24

0.01 Mach.

Explanation
aim. RAC 8.2.1: Once accepted, the Mach number shall be adhered to within .01 Mach, unless atc approval is obtained to make a change, if an immediate temporary change in Mach number is necessary (e.g. because of turbulence), atc must be notified as soon as possible.

Question 25

At 14.000 feet, the maximum speed in a holding pattern for a civil turbojet aircraft is _____ KiAS

Answer 25

230

Explanation

aim. RAC 10.7: The size of the protected airspace for a holding pattern is based on aircraft speed, unless otherwise noted on the charts or when a shuttle procedure is specified (see RAC 10.9). holding patterns must be entered and flown at or below the airspeeds listed in Table 10.1 below: Maximum Holding Airspeeds:
- At or below 6 000 ft ASL 200 KIAS;
- Above 6 000 ft ASL up to and including 14 000 ft ASL: 230 WAS;
- Above 14 OOO ft ASL: 265 KIAS.

NOTES:

1. At Canadian military airfields, the size of the protected airspace is for a maximum of 310 kias. unless otherwise noted.
2. For helicopter procedures (COPTER), the maximum holding airspeed is 90 was. unless otherwise noted.

Pilots are to advise atc immediately if airspeeds in excess of those specified above become necessary for any reason, including turbulence, or if they are unable to accomplish any part of the holding procedure. After departing a holding fix. pilots should resume normal speed subject to other requirements, such as speed limitations in the vicinity of controlled airports, specific atc requests, etc.

NOTE: in areas where turbulence is known to exist holding patterns may be designed for speeds of 280 kias.

Question 26

You are flying at FL300 in the RVSM airspace aboard an RVSM-certified aircraft, atc will provide a separation of _____ feet between you and other aircraft.

Answer 26

1.000.

Explanation

aim. RAC 11.7.1: RVSM: The application of 1000-ft vertical separation at and above FL290 between aircraft approved to operace in reduced vertical separation minimum airspace.

Question 27

What is the final assurance of a safe takeoff in case of icing condition?

Answer 27

The pre-takeoff inspection

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.2: (b) Critical Surfaces: Critical surfaces of an aircraft mean the wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any ocher stabilizing surface of an aircraft which, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines. :nc!udes the upper surface of its fuselage. Flight safety dunng ground operations in conditions conducive to frost, ice or snow contamination requires a knowledge of:
(l) adverse effeccs of frost, ice or snow on aircraft performance and flight characteristics, which are generally reflected in the form of decreased thrust, decreased lift increased drag, increased stall speed, trim changes, altered stall characteristics and handling qualities;

(10 various procedures available for aircraft ground de-icing and anti-icing, and the capabilities and limitations of these procedures in various weather conditions, including che use and effectiveness of freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids:

(ill) holdover time, which is che escimaced cime that an application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid is effective in preventing frost, ice. or snow from adhering to created surfaces. Holdover time is calculated as beginning at the start of the final application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid and as expiring when the fluid is no longer effective. The fluid is no longer effective when its ability to absorb more precipitacion has been exceeded. This produces a visible surface build-up of contamination. Recognition that final assurance of a safe takeoff rests in the pre-takeoff inspection.

Question 28

Winglets are devices that:

Answer 28

Decrease induced drag.

Explanation

The winglets are installed on some aircraft to prevent creacion of wing dps vortices (induced drag). Their main purpose is felt during flight phases requiring minimum induced drag as the climb (for better performances) and che cruise (for minimum fuel consumption).

An disadvantage of this device is that it creates some parasite (form) drag.

Question 29

What is the purpose of vortex generators located on the leading edges of jet aeroplanes?

Answer 29

Delay the separation of the boundary layer.

Explanation

vortex generators are small plates of about 2.5 cm standing in a line, with a certain angle of attack, on the wing’s leading edge. They generate vortices that delay or prevent the breakaway of the boundary layer by re-creating it.

Question 30

What is the movement of the aircraft around its normal (or vertical) axis called?

Answer 30

Yaw

Explanation
The normal axis, also called ‘vertical axis.” is the imaginary line that runs vertically through the aircraft centre of gravity, around which the movement is called yaw. it is controlled by the rudder pedals acting on the rudder.

Question 31

Whac is the purpose of a mass balance?

Answer 31

Eliminate the risk of vibration of the control.

Explanation
Some flutters can occur during high-speed flights. To present this, manufacturers balance the controls by placing a streamline shaped mass ahead of the concrol surface hinge. This mass is called mass balance.

Question 32

In a fixed shaft turboprop engine, the propeller is driven by:

Answer 32

The turbine.

Explanation

in a free turbine turboprop engine, the air coming in through the air intake is compressed by an axial compressor before entering the combustion chamber. The hot gases coming out drive the compressor turbine. They drive the separate power turbine which drives the propeller shaft. The propeller speed is reduced at a fraction of the speed at which the turbine drives the shaft by means of the gearbox.

In the fixed shaft turboprop, the compressor and the shaft are both driven by the turbine. The propeller then rotates at the same speed as the main engine shaft. This engine makes more noise on the ground and is more demanding on the starter rotor than free turbine turboprop engines.

Question 33

in a compressor, what is the purpose of the bleed valve?

Answer 33

Prevent the stall of the compressor.

Explanation
a surge bleed valve is a device used in compressors to prevent them from stalling. They are located at critical points of the compressor and open under the control of the Fuel Control unit (FCU).

Question 34

To measure thrust of a turbofan engine. N1 is mainly used. What is N1?

Answer 34

The speed of the low-pressure spool.

There are different techniques to measure the thrust of a gas turbine engine:

• the Engine Pressure Ratio, which is the total pressure ratio across a jet engine;
• N1, which is the speed of the low-pressure compressor and turbine (low-pressure spool): mainly used for turbofan and turbojet engines;
• N2. which is the speed of the high-pressure compressor and turbine (high-pressure spool);
• the fuel flow.

Question 35

Regarding a piston-engine aircraft, why is it more economical to fly at high altitude than at low altitude with the same power setting?

Answer 35

Because the lesser air density results in a greater TAS.

Explanation
The IAS which gives the greater range remains the same with the altitude (due to a same angle of attack). However, for a same IAS. the TAS will be greaterat high altitude than at low altitude. On average, the true airspeed increases of 2% every 1.000 feet above 20.000 feet and 1.5% every 1.000 below 20.000 feec.

Question 36

SAE Type I fluids:

Answer 36

Provide very limited anti-icing protection.

Explanation

aim. AIR Zl2.2:(g) SAE and iso Type i Fluids: These fluids in the concentrated form contain a minimum of 80% glycol and are considered “unthickened” because of their relatively low viscosity. These fluids are used for de-icing or anti-icing. but provide very limited anti-cing protection.

Question 37

in order to fly ifr. the air data computer of the autopilot must be checked and certified every:

Answer 37

24 months.

Explanation

CAR Standard 625. Appendix C Altimeters and other Altimetry devices installed in aircraft operating under instrument Flight Rules, or under visual flight rules in Class B and C Airspace or Class C and D Airspace that is designated as Transponder Airspace” shalI be calibrated at intervals not exceeding 24 months, to the parameters and tolerances outlined in Appendix B of Standard 571, or to equivalent standards acceptable to the Minister.

For the purpose of this section, the term “altimetry devices” includes any air data computer, or other barometric device, providing a flight crew station, or an auto pilot, or automatic pressure altitude reporting system, or altitude alerting system with altitude data derived from static pressure.

Question 38

Before descending below the MDA while following a FMS computer-generated GP. you should:

Answer 38

Visually scan for obstacles.

Remind that OCSs on LNAV procedures below the MDA have not been assessed.

Know that obstacles may penetrate the computer-generated flight path.

Explanation

aim. AIR 2.16.1: CAUTION: Caution should be exercised when descending below the MDA while following a FMS computer-generated GP. unlike vertically guided approaches, which have their ocss verified below the DA OCSs on lnav procedures below the MDA have NOT been assessed. As a result obstacles may penetrate the computer-generated flight path. Pilots are reminded to visually scan for obstacles before descending below the MDA

Question 39

What can you tell me about TCAS and transponders?

Answer 39

intruder aircraft equipped with only a Mode A transponder are not tracked or detected by TCASI

intruder aircraft without transponders are invisible to TCAS-equipped aircraf.

in an encounter between two tcas II-equipped aircraft, the equipment will provide traffic advisories (TAs) and coordinated vertical resolution advisories (RAs).

Explanation

AIM, COM 9.1: There are two types of TCAS:

(a) TCAS i is a system which includes a computer and pilot display^ that provides a warning of proximate traffic (TA) to assist the pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft and in the avoidance of potential collisions (it does not provide ras).
(b) TCAS il is a system, which includes a computer, pilot displays), and a Mode S transponder, that provides both TAs and vertical plane ras. ras include recommended escape manoeuvres, only in the vertical dimension, to either increase or maintain existing vertical separation between aircraft. NOTE: There is currently no tcas equipment capable of providing RAS in the lateral direction.

The following paragraphs and table describe the tcas levels of protection versus aircraft equipage.

(a) intruder aircraft without transponders are invisible to TCAS-equipped aircraft and thus TAs or ras are not provided.
(b) intruder aircraft equipped with only a Mode a transponder are not tracked or detected by tcas ii. because tcas ii does not use Mode A interrogations. Mode A transponder aircraft are invisible to TCASequipped aircraft.
(c) intruder aircraft equipped with a Mode C transponder without altitude input wi l be tracked as a non-altitude replying target. Neither a data tag nor a trend arrow will be shown with the traffic symbol. These aircraft are deemed to be at the same altitude as own aircraft
(d) in an encounter between two tcas n-equipped aircraft their computers will communicate using the Mode S transponder data link, which has the capability to provide complementary ras (e.g. one climbing and one descending).

Refer to the tables.

Question 40

If the temperature at which an aircraft is flying for a given altitude is higher than the standard temperature, how will the aircraft’s true altitude compare to the indicated altitude?

Answer 40

it will be higher.

Explanation
With too high an altimeter setting, the altimeter indicates a too high altitude. Each 0.10 inch of mercury added to che altimeter setting increases the indicated altitude on the altimeter by about 10O feet. From a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the altitude indicated by the altimeter (not corrected) is higher than the actual altitude. The same thing occurs when che altimeter passes from a warm air mass to a cold air mass.

The opposite occurs from a low pressure to a high pressure from a region of cold air to a region of warm air.

Question 41

What is the principle on which the vertical speed indicator operates?

Answer 41

It measures the difference between the rapid change of pressure inside the aneroid capsule and the relatively slow race at which this pressure is equalized in the housing in which the instrument is located.

Explanation
The vertical speed indicator is an instrument indicating the aircraft rate of climb or descent in feet per minute. Connected to the static pressure system, it is sensitive to barometric pressure changes occurring every time the altitude changes. The static pressure source pressure is directly led to the aneroid capsule in the instrument case. The air leaks from the case by a capillary tube at a relatively slow rate. The vertical speed indicator needle reacts to the difference between the quick change of the pressure in the aneroid capsule and the relatively slow rate at which the pressure is equalized in the case.

Question 42

The altimeter error, resulting from mountain waves and nonstandard temperatures, can be as much as:

Answer 42

3000 ft

Explanation
Mountain effect error is caused by a wind blowing at altitude above mountain ranges. This wind will create mountain waves which are going to cause the wrong reading of the altimeter, in addition to the mountain waves, if the air temperature is different from the standard temperature (which is often the case), the altimeter may indicate an error of up to 3.000 feet higher than true altitude.

Question 43

The turn and bank indicator shows attitude changes through:

Answer 43

This instrument does not indicate attitude changes.

The turn and slip indicator and the turn coordinator work on the gyroscopic precession principle.

When the aircraft turns, a couple of forces moving the gyro around a vercical axis appear. Because of precession, the tilt occurs 90º further in the same direction as the rotation. The tilt occurs on the side opposite the turn on a horizontal axis, a reversing device drives the needle (or the aircraft model) on the ocher side. i.e.. in the direction of the turn.

The steeper the turn, the stronger the couple of forces applied to the gyro, and the bigger the tilt due to the precession force.

The turn and slip indicator merges two instruments: the needle and the ball. The needle indicates direction and the aircraft rate of turn, and the ball indicates the amount of bank, which is subject to the centrifugal force and to gravity, allowing it to indicate if there is a skid or slip.

The turn coordinator replaces the turn and slip indicator in a lot of aircraft it works on the same principle, but the supporting ring of the gyro is tilted at approximately 35º to the aircraft longitudinal axis, allowing it to react to yaw and roll.

Question 44

Apparent drift appears on heading indicators even if they work correctly. They will drift by approximately 15º per hour because of:

Answer 44

The Earth s rotation while the gyroscopic axis remains fixed in space.

Explanation
The heading indicator’s apparent drift (or precession) is caused by the earth’s rotation, whereas the gyro stays fixed in space. The heading indicator’s gyro then has an apparent movement relative to the earths rotation below.

Question 45

Which of the following instruments) work(s) on the principle of gyroscopic precession?

Answer 45

The turn and bank indicator and the turn coordinator.

The turn and slip indicator and the turn coordinator work on the gyroscopic precession principle.

When the aircraft turns, a couple of forces moving che gyro around a vercical axis appear. Because of precession, che alt occurs &0e further in the same direction as che rotation. The tilt occurs on the side opposite the turn on a horizontal axis, a reversing device drives the needle (or che aircraft model) on the ocher side. i.e.. in the direction of the turn.

The steeper the turn, che stronger the couple of forces applied to the gyro, and che bigger the alt due to the precession force.

Question 46

What does the EFIS consist of? What kind of information does it transmit to the pilot?

How many displays can we see in EFIS installations?

What are the characteristics of these displays?

Answer 46

The amount of information displayed in an EFIS may vary a lot

The EFIS is an electronic flight instrument system.

Explanation

An EFis (Electronic Flight instrument System) is a flight deck instrument display system using electronic technolog/ instead of electromechanical, usually, the EFIS consists of a PFD (Primary Flight Display^ MFD (Multi-Function Display) and EICAS (Engine indicating and Crew AJercing System) display.

EFIS installations vary from one to six or more display units.

The pfd displays all the information critical to flight in a single display (improving the pilot’s situational awareness): CAS. heading, attitude, altitude, vertical speed and yaw.

The pfd increases situational awareness by alerting the pilots (with colour changes or audio alerts) of unusual or potentially dangerous situations (low airspeed, too high rate of descent, etc)

The MFD displays navigational (aircraft route, restricted airspace, aircraft traffic, aircraft glide radius, location over terrain, ecc.) and weather information from various systems (on-board radar, lightning detection sensors or ground-based sensors). The MFD can also change the colour or shape of the data to alert pilots of dangerous situations, it can also display information about aircraft systems and engines (EiCAS/ECAM).

Question 47

how many degrees are in standard time zone? Are they degrees of longitude or latitude?

Answer 47

15; longitude.

Explanation
The earth is divided into 24 time zones of 15º longitude. These zones are numbered from 1 to 12 around the prime mendian. The change of day occurs on che 180th meridian. An hour is therefore equal to 15º of longitude.

Question 48

Question 48

Your aircraft has a fuel consumption of 9.2 gallons per hour, if you fly at a groundspeed of 132 kts for 72 NM. how much fuel have you consumed?

Answer 48

5 Gallons

Question 49

Question 49

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix.

Between Midland VOR/DME and North Bay VOR/DME. you notice that you have drifted from your track. You decide to set your VOR on Midland vor and your adf on Muskoka ndb. you put 009 on the OBS of your VOR. The needle is centred with a from indication. Your adf indicates 104. what is your position?

Answer 49

Over Parry Sound Area Muni airport.

Question 50

Consider two situations to approach and land at two different airports. Airport A is located at an elevation high above sea level, while Airport B is located at sea level. The aircraft, temperature and wind are identical in both situations. Considering this information, the groundspeed during the final approach to Airport B will be ____ than the groundspeed during the final approach to Airport A.

Answer 50

Lower

Explanation

Density alcitude affects aircraft performance and stall speed. The higher the altitude, the lower the air density. An aircraft moving in air that is less dense will need to move faster to meet the same quantity of particles, and to create the same lift as if it was in a denser air. The indicated airspeed becomes lower than the true airspeed as the altitude increases.

a rule of thumb to calculate an approximate true airspeed is to apply the following correction:

• For altitudes between mean sea level and 20.000 feet, add 1.5% to the indicated airspeed every 1.000 feet of pressure altitude;
• For altitudes starting at mean sea level and rising above 20.000 feet, add 2% to the indicated airspeed every 1.000 feet of pressure alcitude.

Question 51

As the aircraft altitude increases, the true stall speed _____ and the indicaced stall speed _____

Answer 51

increases; remains the same.

Explanation

Density alcitude affects aircraft performance and stall speed. The higher the altitude, the lower the air density. An aircraft moving in air chat is less dense will need to move faster to meet che same quantity of particles, and to create the same lift as if it was in a denser air. The mdicaced airspeed becomes lower chan the true airspeed as che altitude increases.

a rule of thumb to calculate an approximate true airspeed is to apply che following correction:

• For altitudes between mean sea level and 20.000 feet, add 1.5% to the mdicaced airspeed every 1.000 feet of pressure altitude;
• For altitudes starting at mean sea level and rising above 20.000 feet, add 2% to the indicated airspeed every 1.000 feet of pressure alcitude.

The stalling true airspeed is greacer at a higher altitude, but the scalling indicated airspeed stays the same.

Question 52

in winter, when temperatures are much lower than ISA. you should fly:

Answer 52

At least 1.000 feet above che MEA/MOCA

Explanation

aim. RAC 8.5: When temperacures are extremely cold, true altitudes will be significantly lower than indicated altitudes. Although pilots may fly ifr at che published MEA/MOCA

Question 53

Does a wing always stall at the same angle of attack?

Answer 53

Yes

Explanation

When respecting the manufacturer’s recommendations, an aircraft will stall at its critical angle of attack regardless of its power, airspeed, altitude or attitude.

Question 54

Which of the following performances is obtained with a maximum L/D on a propeller aircraft?

Answer 54

Maximum range and maximum gliding distance.

Explanation

“Right Training Manual”, Exercise 10 “Right for Range and Endurance”:

Angle of Attack; As far as the aerodynamics of the aircraft arc concerned, maximum range is achieved when the aircraft is being operated at the angle of attack giving the greatest ratio of lift to drag. The angle of attack that gives the best lift/drag ratio for a given aircraft will always be the same and is not affected by changes in altitude or gross weight.

Question 55

What is manoeuvring speed?

Answer 55

The highest speed at which an aircraft can be stalled without causing structural damage.

Explanation

Manoeuvring speed (va) is the maximum airspeed at which the full defleccion of all available aerodynamic controls will not create overload on the aircraft. This airspeed is in each aircraft owner manual. In turbulent air, you should never exceed this airspeed in order to not go beyond the limit load factor and damage the aircraft primary structure.

Manoeuvres where the approach to a stall or the full uses of the rudder or the ailerons is necessary must not be made at an airspeed above va.

Question 56

What is vr?

Answer 56

The rotation speed.

Explanation
aim. GEN 1.7: vr: Rotation speed

Question 57

What is vmc?

Answer 57

The minimum control speed with critical engine inoperative.

Explanation
AIM. GEN 1.7: Vmc: Minimum control speed with critical engine inoperative.

Question 58

At V1. the pilot can:

Answer 58

Abort the takeoff and stop the aeroplane on the remaining runway length plus the stopway. or continue takeoff in order to reach vr then V2 at 10.7 metres above the runway end.

Explanation

Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA): The length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway, if provided.

The accelerace-stop distance is the distance required to accelerate the aeroplane up to its VI. then completely stop it (for example in case of engine failure at Vi or before).

The accelerace-go distance is the distance required to accelerate the aeroplane up to its V1. reach its vr after an engine failure at its V1. then reach its V2 at 10.7 metres (35 feet) above the runway.

The decision speed (or engine failure recognition speed) (V1) is an indicated airspeed. The pilot decides to continue or stop the takeoff after the failure of one engine based on this speed and the remaining runway length.

V1 may vary according to the aeroplane weight. The pilot may therefore make arrangements to have the accelerate-stop distance equalling the accelerace-go distance: what is called balanced field length, it allows a takeoff with the highest weight possible regarding runway length and conditions.

Question 59

During a landing on a wet runway, a distracced pilot brakes too abruptly, causing a slip of the aircraft main wheels, leading to a loss of adhesion, what is this type of hydroplaning called?

Answer 59

Reversion rubber hydroplaning.

Explanation
Reverted-rubber hydroplaning can occur on a wet or icy runway when a tire stops turning: it skids and heats, causing the rubber to de-vulcanize. The rubber particles collect behind the tire, forming a dam that presents the water from escaping correctly. The trapped water heats and passes into the vapour phase. The steam pressure ends up lifting che tire off the ground.

Question 60

You are on final approach to land when a wind shear causes the headwind to become a very strong tail wind. What is the first action to take?

Answer 60

Push on the control column to avoid stall.

Explanation
We assume a wind going from ml to 10 knots tailwind, or a headwind abruptly decreasing of 10 knots (negative wind shear): inertia leads to a delay of seconds before the aircraft reacts to this change. During this time, the aircraft speed decreases of about 10 knots, if this decreasing occurs during approach, when aircraft is flying at low speed, the approach slope will be suddenly more pronounced and a stall could occur, you should therefore increase power.

Question 61

In non-radar departure. ATC will apply a 3-minute delay between a light aircraft (departing after) and:

Answer 61

Medium aircraft if the light aircraft is departing from an intersection.

Explanation

aim, RAC 4.1.1: controllers will apply a three-minute separation interval to any aircraft that takes off into the wake of a known heavy aircraft, or a light aircraft that takes off into the wake of a known medium aircraft if:

• the following aircraft starts its takeoff roll from an intersection or from a point further along the runway than the preceding aircraft; or
• the controller has reason to believe that the following aircraft will require more runway length for takeoff than the preceding aircraft

ATC will also apply separation intervals of up to three minutes when the projected flight paths of any following aircraft will cross chat of a preceding heavy aircraft.

Question 62

Consider two runways with a length of 7.000 feet. Runway A has a CLEARWAY length of 1.000 feet. Runway B has a STOPWAY length of 2.000 feet, in this case, the TORA of Runway A is _____ feet and its ASDA is _____ feet. Regarding Runway B. the TODA is _____ feet and its ASDA is _____ feet.

Answer 62

7000; 7000; 7000; 9000

Explanation

aim. aga 3.8: A stopway is defined in the Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as “a rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aeroplane can be stopped in the case of a rejected takeoff”, where paved, it is marked over its entire length with yellow chevrons (when its length exceeds 60 m) as shown in aga 5AZ Figure 5.6. and is lit with red edge and end lights in the take-off direction, its length is included in che accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA) declared for the runway.
aim. aga 3.9: A clearway is defined in che Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as “a defined rectangular area over land or water under the control of the aerodrome operator, selected as a suitable area over which an aircraft may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height”.
aim. aga 3.10: The Canada Air Pilot (CAP) provides information on declared distances, which are defined in che fifth edition of the Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as follows:

“The distances chat the aerodrome operator declares available for aircraft take-off run. take-off distance, accelerate stop discance. and landing distance requirements. These distances are categorized as follows:

(a) Takeoff Run Available (TORA): The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off.
(b) Takeoff Discance Available (TODA): The length of che takeoff run available plus the length of che clearway, if provided.

(0 Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA): The lengch of the takeoff run available plus the length of che scopway. if provided.

(d) Landing Discance Available (LDA): The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft landing.”

Question 63

The _____ of an aircraft is the weight of this aircraft multiplied by its distance from the balance datum line.

Answer 63

Moment.

Explanation

The moment (or balance moment) of an aircraft is the weight of this aircraft multiplied by its distance from che balance datum line.

Question 64

Imagine an aircraft loaded as follows:

• weight on the ramp: 8.360 lbs
• CG position: 85.8 inches aft of datum

just before starting the engines, a passenger decides not to take off because he/she is too scared. This passenger weights 230 lbs and was seated 95 inches aft of datum, where is the new CG of the aircraft without this passenger?

Answer 64

85.5 inches aft of datum.

Explanation

For this question, you must deduct the moment of the person who disembarks from the aircraft from the aircraft’s total moment before they disembarked, and deduct their weight from the aircraft’s total weight before they got off. with the results you get. you will be able to calculate the centre of gravity.

we know that: Moment = Weight x Arm

The loaded aircraft total moment was: 8.360 x 85.8 = 717.288 pounds per inch.

The moment of the people who disembark is: 230 x 95 = 21.850 pounds per inch.

The new aircraft moment is now: 717.288 • 21.850 = 695.438 pounds per inch.

The new aircraft weight is: 8.360 ■ 230 = 8.130 pounds.

The new aircraft centre of gravity is: 695.438 / 8.130 = 85.54 inches aft of datum.

Question 65

Refer to image 2 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine VI:

• Temperature at the airport: ao5C
• Elevation: 2.300 feet
• Altimeter setting: 28.12 inches of mercury
• Aircraft gross weight: 17.000 lbs
• Headwind: 10 knots
• Runway gradient: 0.2% uphill
• Antl-lce system: ON

Answer 65

V1 =115 kts.

To use this speed graph, use the altitude pressure at the airport.

Here, it is 4000 feet.

Draw a straight vertical line from the temperature (in eq on the inferior index. From the intersection point between the straight line and the curve standing for the pressure altitude (in feet), draw a straight horizontal line to the graph end.

Question 66

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

According to the following information, determine the required fuel and the trip time:

• Trip distance: 2OOO NM
• Flight altitude: 33.000 feet asl
• Headwind: 50 kts
• Temperature: 10=C below standard
• Landing weight: 550.000 lbs

Answer 66

104,000 pounds; 5 hours 6 minutes.

Explanation

First, find che wind outlined on che wind index (on the bottom left): draw a straight horizontal line to che right. Now. find the trip discance on the inferior index of the graph. From this distance, draw a scraighc vercical line to che wind reference line. From the reference line, follow the wind curve (downward if it is a tailwind and upward if it is a headwind) to the scraighc horizontal line drawn previously. From the intersection point, draw a straight vertical line up to the top of che graph.

The fuel required will be determined with the intersection point between the straight vertical line drawn earlier and the first curve representing the flight pressure altitude. From this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line to the right to the landing weight reference line. On the inferior index of the landing weight, draw a straight vertical line upward beginning at the estimated landing weight. From che previous intersection point, draw a line chat follows the weight curve to che straight vertical line that you just drew. Now. from this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line up to the right index. Here, you can read the fuel required in these conditions.

The trip time will be determined with the intersection point between the scraighc vercical line drawn in che pre/ious step and the second curve standing for the flight pressure altitude. From this intersection point, draw a straight honzoncal line from the left to the temperacure reference line. On the inferior index of the temperature, draw a scraighc vertical line upward beginning at the temperature outlined. From the intersection point of the previous step, draw a line that follows the temperature cun;e to che straight vertical line chat you just drew. Now. from this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line to che left index. Here, you can read che trip time in these conditions.

Question 67

Refer to image 4 in the Appendix.

According to the information below, determine the recommended landing distance with reverse thrust:

• Aircraft type: Turboprop
• Runway: 25 at CYOW
• wind: Nil
• unfactored landing distance on bare and dry run way: 4,000 feet
• Current CRFI: CYOW CRFI RWY 07/25 - 4C .30 1201191200

Answer 67

7.540 feet.

Explanation

The answer is the intersection between the given CRFi (0.30. at the top of the table) and the given unfactored landing distance (4.000 feet, at the left of the table): 7.540 feet.

aim. air 1.6.7:1. The recommended landing distances in Table 2 are based on a 95 percent level of confidence. A 95 percent level of confidence means that in more than 19 landings out of 20. the staced distance in Table 2 will be conservative for properly executed landings with all systems serviceable on runway surfaces with the reported CRFi.
2. The recommended landing distances in Table 2 take into account the reduction in landing distances obtained with che use of discing and/or reverse thrust capability for a turboprop-powered aeroplane and with the use of reverse thrust for a turbojet-powered aeroplane. Table 2 is based on the landing distances recommended in Table 1 with additional calculations that give credit for discing and/or reverse thrust. Representative low values of discing and/or reverse thrust effect have been assumed, hence the data will be conservative for properly executed landings by some aeroplanes with highly effective discing and/or thrust reversing systems.
3. The recommended landing distances in CRFi Table 2 are based on standard pilot techniques for che minimum distance landings from 50 ft. including a stabilized approach at VRef using a glide slope of 3° to 50 ft or lower, a firm touchdown, minimum delay to nose lowering, minimum delay time to deployment of ground lift dump devices and application of brakes and discing and/or reverse thrust, and sustained maximum antiskid braking until stopped, in Table 2. che air distance from the screen height of 50 ft to touchdown and che delay distance from touchdown to the application of full braking remain unchanged from Table 1. The effects of discing/reverse thrust were used only to reduce the stopping distance from the application of full braking to a complete stop.
4. Landing field length is the landing distance divided by 0.6 (turbojets) or 0.7 (turboprops), if the afm expresses landing performance in terms of landing distance, enter the Table from the left-hand column. However, if the AFM expresses landing performance in terms of landing field length, enter the Table from one of the right-hand columns, after first verifying which factor has been used in the AFM.

Question 68

Ice on the wing can cause:

Answer 68

An increased stall speed and a decreased rate of climb.

Explanation
An accumulation, even very fine, of frost, snow or ice on the aircraft surfaces will impair ics charactenstics. On the airfoils, a thin layer of frost affects che uniform airflow on the wing’s upper surface and causes boundary layer separation. The stall speed will increase and the stall angle of attack will decrease. Snow or ice accumulation will affect even more aircraft charactenstics. With an important accumulation, the aircraft would be unable to take off. the stall speed being so high. An increase in the aircraft’s weight plays a role as well, though less important on the stall speed increasing. Before caking off. it is imperative to remove all traces of snow, ice or frost from the aircraft, in flight, avoid icing conditions if the aircraft is not equipped for chose conditions.

Question 69

Among the following factors, which can influence whether frost, ice or snow will accumulate, cause surface roughness on an aircraft and affect the anti-icing properties of freezing point depressant fluids?

Answer 69

1	- Ambient temperature
2	- Aircraft surface temperature
3	- De-icing and anti-icing fluid type
4	- De-icing and anti-icing fluid temperature
5	- Relative humidity
6	- Wind speed
7	- Wind direction
8	- De-icing and anti-icing fluid concentration

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.2: (d) More than 30 factors have been identified that can influence whether frost, ice or snow will accumulate, cause surface roughness on an aircraft and affect the anti-icing properties of freezing point depressant fluids. These factors include ambient temperature: aircraft surface temperature; the de-icing and ana-icing fluid type, temperature and concentration; relative humidity: and wind speed and direction. Because many factors affect che accumulation of frozen contaminants on the aircraft surface, holdover times for freezing point depressant fluids should be considered as guidelines only, unless che operators ground icing operations program allows otherwise.

Question 70

What can you tell me about wing tip vortices?

Answer 70

Vortices normally settle below and behind the aircraft.

Lateral movement of vortices, even in a no wind condition, may place a vortex core over a parallel runway.

With a light cross-wind, one vortex can remain stationary over the ground for some time.

Explanation

aim. air 2.9.1: Because of ground effect and wind, a vortex produced within about 200 feet agl tends to be subject to lateral drift movements and may return to where it started. Below 100 feet agl. the vortices tend to separate laterally and break up more rapidly than vortex systems at higher altitude. The vortex sink rate and levelling off process result in little operational effect between an aircraft in le.’el flight and other aircraft separated by 1 OOO feet vertically. Pilots should fly at or above a heavy jet’s flight path, altering course as necessary to avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft, vortices start to descend immediately after formation and descend at the rate of 400 to 5CO feet per minute for large heavy aircraft and at a lesser rate for smaller aircraft, buc in all cases, descending less chan I OOO feet in total in 2 minutes.

vortices spread out at a speed of about 5 KT. Therefore, a crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus, a light wind of 3 to 7 kt could resulc in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone for a period of time or hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway. Similarly, a call wind condition can move the vortices of the preceding landing aircraft forward into che touchdown zone.

Question 71

With regard to a flight itinerary, the “responsible person” means an individual who:

Answer 71

Has agreed to report the aircraft overdue.

Explanation

CAR 602.70: Responsible person: means an individual who has agreed with the person who has filed a flight itinerary to ensure that the following are notified in the manner prescribed in this Division, if the aircraft is overdue, namely.

• an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station, or
• a Rescue co-ordination centre, (personne de confiance)

Question 72

Consider an aeroplane that requires a thrust of 2.000 pounds to fly at 200 knots. To fly at 400 knots, this aeroplane will need a thrust of:

Answer 72

8.000 pounds.

Explanation
If you wish to increase an aeroplanes airspeed with the weight and configuration remaining the same, you must give more thrust (or power). To double an aircrafts airspeed, the thrust must be increased four times.

Question 73

What is a Reduced visibility Operations Plan (RVOP)?

Answer 73

A plan that calls for specific procedures established by the aerodrome operator and/or atc when aerodrome visibility is below RVR 2600 (1/2SM) down to and including rvr 1200 (1/4 SM).

Explanation

Reduced/Low Visibility Operations Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs):

2. What is a Reduced visibility Operations Plan (RVOP)?

it is a plan that calls for specific procedures established by the aerodrome operator and/or ATC when aerodrome visibility is belcw RVR 2600 (1/2SM) down to and including RVR 1200 (1/4 SM).

Question 74

How can the maximum operating Mach number of an aeroplane be defined?

Answer 74

The maximum operating speed of the aeroplane in relation to the speed of sound.

Explanation

Mach tuck is an aerodynamic effect where the aircraft nose tends to pitch downward as the airflow around the wing reaches supersonic speeds. The aircraft will first experience this effect below Mach 1; it then gradually increases as the speed is increasing above the critical Mach number (Merit), and becomes dangerous if the aircraft speed exceeds the maximum operating Mach number (Mmo).

Mmo is shown on the airspeed indicator by a barber pole.

Question 74

The critical Mach number may be defined as:

Answer 74

Number below which no airflow on the aircraft is supersonic.

Explanation
The critical Mach is the number beyond which appears, on the upper surface of a wing, an area where the airflow reaches then exceeds the local speed of sound.

The critical Mach number (Merit) may be defined as the speed at which the first shock waves will be created on some parts of the aircraft (usually the wing’s upper surface, where the airflow is moving faster).

Question 75

What effect would a light cross-wind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off? A light cross-wind:

Answer 75

Could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time.

Explanation

aim. air 2.9.1: vortices spread out at a speed of about 5 KT. Therefore, a crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus, a light wind of 3 to 7 kt could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone for a period of time or hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway. Similarly, a tail wind condition can move the vortices of che preceding landing aircraft forward into the touchdown zone.

Question 76

What is one of the advantages of a sweepback wing?

Answer 76

To delay the formation of high-speed drag by delaying the formation of the first shock wave.

Explanation
The advantages of sweepback wings are not only lateral and directional stability: they also delay the formation of shock wave at high speed by presenting a longer chord to the airflow than a conventional wing. The critical Mach number will be higher.

Question 77

What is the biggest danger when ice forms on an aircrafts wings?

Answer 77

its stall speed increases considerably.

Explanation

By accumulating on lifting surfaces, ice can modify their profile. This change leads to an increase in drag and a decrease in lift. An ice layer with the thickness of sandpaper destroys lift by 30% and increases drag by 40%. The consequence of this effect is an increase in stall speed. The mass of accumulated ice is the least dangerous factor.

Question 78

You are in climb when you have a sudden sensation of ear-popping. This is caused by:

Answer 78

The pressure inside your ear was greater than the outside pressure. The Euscachian tube opened to equalize the pressure.

TP 12864E - Human Factors For Aviation - Advanced Handbook => Chapter 4: Physiology - Flying at High Altitudes:

Cabin Depressurization and Trapped Gases • Barotitis: The most common form of trapped gas is barotitis, or middle ear block, in flying, this occurs during ascents or descents, and is most noticeable closer to the ground. The air in the middle ear is unable immediately to equalize with the changing oucside pressure because the Eustachian tube is blocked, especially in cases of inflammation due to a cold or allergy. During ascents, the pressure in the middle ear is higher than the outside pressure and causes the eardrum to bulge outward, sometimes painfully. During descents, the outside pressure is greater and causes che eardrum to bulge inward, in cases of extreme pressure differential, che eardrum may even rupture, thus alleviating the. pain but likely resulting in temporary grounding.

The standard techniques for clearing middle ear block are yawning, swallowing or using the valsalva manoeuvre, which consists in holding the nose and blowing out gently against it (as if blowing che nose), in most cases, this will open the Eustachian tube and equalize the pressures.

Question 79

What is a low visibility Operations Plan (LVOP)?

Answer 79

A plan that calls for specific procedures established by the aerodrome operator and/or atc when aerodrome visibility is below RVR 1200 (1/4 SM).

Explanation

Reduced/Low Visibility Operations Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs):

4. what is a Low visibility Operations Plan (LVOP)?
   LVOP (Low visibility Operations Plan) means a plan that calls for specific procedures established by the aerodrome operator and/or ATC when aerodrome visibility is below rvr 1200 (1/4 SM).