2_2 Flashcards

1
Q

You have determined that the alternate weather minimum for CYQY at your ETA, 1300Z, is 400-1. Using the following TAF, can you use CYQY as your alternate?

TAF CYQY 111034Z 1111/1123 22008KT 3SM -DZ BKN008 OVC025 TEMPO 1611/1612 2SM +RA OVC010 FM161300 30015KT -SHRA 1SM BKN005 BECMG 1613/1617 1/2SM OVC005 FM161800 30020G30KT 2SM +TSRA OVC008 PROB30 1619/1620 1/4SM OVC001RMK NXT FCST BY 162000Z=

A

No

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.13: Aerodrome forecasts (TAF) that contain the terms BECMG, TEMPO or PROB may be used to determine the weather suitability of an aerodrome as an alternate, provided that:

  • where conditions are forecast to improve, the forecast BECMG condition shall be considered to be applicable as of the end of the BECMG time period, and these conditions shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome;
  • where conditions are forecast to deteriorate, the forecast BECMG condition shall be considered to be applicable as of the start of the BECMG time period, and these conditions shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome;
  • the forecast TEMPO condition shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome; and
  • the forecast PROB condition shall not be below the appropriate landing minima for that aerodrome.
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2
Q

Question 02
TAFCYUL 061438Z 0615/0717 14006KT P6SM SCT060 BKN170 BECMG 0616/0618 16012KT FM062300 16012G22KT P6SM BKN040 OVC100 FM070100 17012G22KT P6SM -RA OVC030 FM070500 18012G22KT 5SM -RA BR OVC020 FM071000 25015G25KT P6SM -SHRA SCT020 BKN030 OVC120 RMK NXT FCST BY 061800Z=

The above TAF was issued at ____ and is valid for _____

A

1438Z; 26 hours and 22 minutes

AIM, MET 7.4

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3
Q

TAF AMD CWWU 151937Z 1519/1618 26012KT 6SM BR OVC004 TEMPO 1519/1603 2SM SHRA BR OVC003 BECMG 1523/1601 26015G25KT FM160300 28015G25KT P6SM FEW008 BKN012 FM160600 28010G20KT P6SM SCT008 FM161200 36015KT P6SM FEW012 BECMG 1614/1616 36012G22KT RMK NXT FCST BY 160000Z=

According to the TAF above, how will the winds change at CWWU after the passage of the cold front?

A

They will blow from the north-west instead of blowing from the south-west.

Explanation

The surface wind always veers when a front passes. When flying through a cold front, you can expect to have wind shifts and gusts. It usually occurs close to the frontal surface.

AIM, MET 7.0: See explanations.

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4
Q

FBCN35 CWAO 100330 YQB

DATA BASED ON 100000Z

VALID 110000Z FOR USE 1800-0600Z

3000 6000 9000 12000 18000

2610 238-01 287-08 268-14 2627-25

According to these upper level wind and temperature forecasts, what are the winds and temperatures expected in Quebec (YQB) at 9,000 feet?

A

280ºT at 7kts, -8ºC

Explanation

AIM, MET 9.2: Upper level wind and temperature forecasts (FDs) are upper level forecasts of wind velocity, expressed in knots and to the nearest 10s true, and temperature, expressed in degrees Celsius. Temperatures are not forecast for 3 000 ft; in addition, this level is omitted if the terrain elevation is greater than 1 500 ft. All forecast temperatures for altitudes over 24 000 ft are negative.

Forecasts in digital form of the winds and the temperatures aloft (FB) are currently available over the phone. They have a similar format to FD forecasts but are updated four times a day and include other improvements. FD forecasts will continue to be available but will gradually be replaced by FB forecasts.

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5
Q

SIGMETs are issued by:

A

Meteorological watch offices.

Explanation

AIM, MET 6.1: Information message issued by a meteorological watch office (MWO) to advise pilots of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified weather phenomena, which may affect the safety of aircraft operations, and the development of those phenomena in time and space.

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6
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the SIGMET below?

WCCN34 CWUL 161526

SIGMET A3 VALID 161525/161925 CWUL-

WTN 115 NM OF 4430N05624W. TC MARIA OBS AT 1500Z. CB TOP 420 WTN 115NM OF CNTR. TC MOVG NEWD AT 45KT. FCST 1740Z TC CNTR 4648N5430W. WKNG. END/GFA34/CMAC-E/MF

A

Tropical Cyclone Maria is forecast to weaken from 1740Z.

AIM, MET 6.0: See the explanations.

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7
Q

Refer to Image 2 in the Appendix.

On a weather chart, this symbol represents:

A

Intermittent snow.

AIM, MET4.0: See the explanations.

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8
Q

On a surface weather map, winds at 2,000 feet AGL blow ______ to the isobars, and on an upper level analysis charts, wind blows ______ to the contours.

A

Parallel; paralell

Explanation

AIM, MET 10.0:4. The winds at 2000 feet AGL blow roughly parallel to the isobars - in a clockwise direction around Highs and counter-clockwise around Lows. Wind speeds vary with the distance between isobars. Where the lines are close together, one can expect moderate to strong winds; where they are far apart, expect light variable winds.

AIM, MET 11.1: (c) Wind Direction: Wind direction may be determined at any point by using the height contours. The wind generally blows parallel to the contours and the direction is determined by keeping the “wind at your back with low heights to the left”. The plotted wind arrows also provide the actual wind direction at the stations.

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9
Q

On upper-level analysis charts, temperature is analyzed and indicated with dashed lines drawn at 5°C intervals on:

A

850 and 700 hPa charts only.

AIM, MET 11.1: (b) Temperature: Temperature is analysed on the 850 and 700 hPa charts only. Dashed lines are drawn at 5°C intervals and are labelled 5, 0, -5, etc. Temperatures at 500 and 250 hPa are obtained by reading the number in the upper left corner of each of the station plots.

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10
Q

Meteorological parameters of 250 hPa charts are measured _____ , and the charts are issued ____

A

Twice a day at 0000Z and 1200Z; about three hours after the data is recorded.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: Meteorological parameters in the upper atmosphere are measured twice a day (0000Z and 1200Z). The data are plotted and analysed on constant pressure level charts. These charts always indicate past conditions.

The 850 hPa (5 000 ft)
700 hPa (10 000 ft)
500 hPa (18 000 ft)
250 hPa (34 000 ft)

analyzed charts are available in Canada and are generally in weather offices about three hours after the data are recorded.

When using ANAL in conjunction with surface analysis charts, it is possible to have a good idea of the current weather and weather system scope.

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11
Q

What is the approximate pressure at 18,000 feet?

A

500 mbar.

AIM, MET 3.3: Upper Level Chare - ANAL are prepared for following levels:

850 hPa (1 500 m/5000 ft)

700 hPa (3 000 m/ 10 000 ft)

500 hPa (5 500 m/ 18 000 ft)

250 h Pa (10 400 m / 34 000 ft)

1 hectopascal = 1 millibar

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12
Q

Refer to Image 1 in the Appendix.
In the red box of this upper-level wind and temperature chart, the wind is from the _____ at 53 knots and the temperature is _____

A

295°T; ISA - 12°C.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.2: Upper level wind and temperature charts are issued by the world area forecast centre (WAFC), through the U.S. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s (NOAA) National Weather Service (NWS) in Washington, D.C. Winds are depicted for FL240, FL340, FL390 and FL450 using arrow shafts with pennants (50 kt each), full feathers (10 kt each) and half feathers (5 kt each). The orientation of the shaft indicates wind direction (degree true).

Temperatures (°C) are presented in bold type at Fixed grid points for the flight level. All temperatures are negative unless otherwise noted.

In North America. ICAO standard atmosphere is based on average winter and summer at 40° latitude. Here are the conditions:

  • air is a dry gas;
  • pressure at mean sea level is 29.92 inches of mercury;
  • temperature at mean sea level is 15°C;
  • temperature decreasing rate with altitude is 1.98°C for every 1,000 feet.
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13
Q

On Significant Weather Prognostic High-Level Charts (SIGWX HI LVL), what is the meaning of “OCNL embedded CB”?

A

Well-separated embedded CBs (50-75% inclusive)

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: (a) Active thunderstorms: the cumulonimbus (CB) symbol is used when thunderstorms occur, or are forecast to occur, over a widespread area, along a line, embedded in other cloud layers, or when concealed by a hazard.

The amounts and the spatial coverage (in brackets) are indicated as:

ISOL (isolated) - for individual CBs (less than 50%)

OCNL (occasional) - for well-separated CBs (50-75% inclusive)

FRQ (frequent) - for CBs with little or no separation (greater than 75%)

NOTE: The definitions of the above terms, as used in ICAO charts, differ from those used for national SIGMET, AIRMET and GFA. The ICAO definitions involve 25% greater coverage in all cases. Some charts may include SCT which refers to 25-50% areal coverage. In addition, ISOL is used by ICAO while ISOLD is used in national forecasts.

Embedded CBs may or may not be protruding from the cloud or haze layer. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the presence of CBs: ISOL embedded CB,

OCNL embedded CB, FRQ embedded CB and FRQ CB. All other clouds are depicted using OKTA amounts, followed by the cloud type. In certain cases the abbreviation LYR

(layer or layered) is used to indicate cloud structure.

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14
Q

For this series of 5 questions, refer to Image 4 in the Appendix. When was this chart issued?

A

Was issued on July 21, 2015, at 1800Z and is valid from July 22, 2015, at0600Z.

Explanation

AIM, MET 3.1

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15
Q

The longer jet stream (north of Europe):

A

Has its core located at the FL330.

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: See explanations.

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16
Q

What is the symbol “XXX” on a SIG prog chart?

A

A level below of the level of the chart

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17
Q

What is the lowest level of the tropopause on this SIGW prog chart?

A

FL 230

AIM, MET 12.2

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18
Q

What is the altitude of the lowest cumulonimbus cloud base on this chart?

A

Impossible to determine.

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19
Q

On Significant Weather Prognostic Charts, fronts and pressure centres are representative of:

A

Their surface position for the validity period of the chart.

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.1: The CMC issues a series of significant weather prognostic charts for lower levels, from 700 to 400 hPa (FL100 to FL240). They use the same criteria as above plus the following:

  • moderate to severe icing;
  • cloud layers of significance;
  • marked mountain waves;
  • freezing level line (0°C) at 5 000-ft intervals, and labeled in hundreds of ft; and/or
  • surface positions and direction of motion (in kt) of highs, lows, and other significant features (front, trough).
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20
Q

According to Environment and Climate Change Canada’s weather radars:

A
  • Present a display of precipitation within 150NM of the facility site
  • Storms of considerable height and intensity can be seen at greater ranges.
  • These radars cannot detect turbulence.
  • Radar images are updated approximately every 10 min for individual radars
  • Upgrades coming
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21
Q

_____ is a toxic pale blue gas, almost colourless, that intercepts most of the UV radiation from the Sun.

A

Ozone

Explanation

At ambient temperature, ozone is a pale blue gas, almost colourless, recognizable by its bleach solution odour. It is toxic and causes coughing if breathed at high amounts. This gas is present in low quantities throughout Earth”s atmosphere: in the stratosphere, it forms the ozone layer (between 13 and 40 km of height) that intercepts most of the ultraviolet radiation (UV) from the sun (more than 97%).

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22
Q

Most weather phenomena occur in the:

A

Troposphere.

Explanation

The troposphere is the atmosphere”s first layer. Its top can be from 28,000 feet ASL at the poles to 54,000 feet ASL at the equator. In the troposphere, pressure, density and temperature decrease quickly with altitude. Most weather phenomenons occur in the troposphere, and it is the place of most of light aviation.

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause, the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56°C.

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23
Q

In the atmosphere’s lower levels, while flying towards an anticyclone centre that has a high pressure gradient, you should expect the barometric pressure to ____ and _____ winds.

A

Increase; strong.

Explanation

High pressure, also called anticyclone, is an area where pressure is relatively high (higher than surrounding areas).
The speed at which the air is moving from point A to point B depends on the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient, defined as the pressure variation rate for a given distance, is measured relative to the isobars.

When the isobars are far from each other, the air moving (wind) is light. When the isobars are close together, the gradient is strong and so is the wind.

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24
Q

You are flying at an altitude of 9,000 feet on track 090. You experience a strong drift to the north. Therefore, the low-pressure area is ______ and your true
altitude will ____________.

A

West; increase.

Explanation

In che Northern Hemisphere, wind blows counterclockwise around the depression and moves away from the high pressure deviating to the right (clockwise). The opposite occurs in the Southern Hemisphere.

To find che low-pressure zone, stand with the wind at your back: it will be on your left (see Buys Ballot’s law).

If you are experiencing a drift to the left, it means you are moving away from the low pressure or you are approaching a high pressure. Your altimeter will underestimate altitude.

From a high-pressure to a low-pressure area, the altitude indicated (not corrected) is higher than actual altitude. The same occurs when the altimeter passes from a warm air mass to a cold air mass.

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25
Q

During the process, no transfer of heat or matter is made between the parcel of rising air and its surroundings.

A

Adiabatic.

Explanation

As air rises, it encounters a lower pressure: it expands and cools. This process is called “adiabatic cooling.”

During the adiabatic process, no transfer of heat or matter is made between the parcel of rising air and the surrounding environment.

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26
Q

What is the consequence of differential heating of the Earth’s surface?

A

Convection.

Explanation

When air is over a warm surface, it becomes turbulent and rises fast through the atmosphere. This upward movement is called “convection.” A descending cold air current is created to replace warm air. A vertical flow appears and spreads heat through upper layers.

Think of the air that moves a small noria with a candle

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27
Q

Consider a parcel of air that rises from the ground where the temperature is 35°C. If the cloud base is at 8,000 feet, then the temperature at 15,000 feet will be °C.

A

0.5

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is 1.5°C for every 1,000 feet.

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is 3°C for every 1,000 feet.

The dew point decreases by 0.5°C for every 1,000 feet.

In this case, consider the dry adiabatic lapse rate up to 8,000 feet. The temperature at 8,000 feet will be: 35 - [(8,000 - 0) / 1.000] x 3 = 11 °C

Now take the saturated adiabatic lapse rate between 8,000 feet and 15,000 feet. The temperature at 15,000 feet will be: 11 - [(15,000 - 8,000) / 1,000] x 1.5 = 0.5°C

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28
Q

The amount of water vapour that can be contained in a volume of air is determined by:

A

Temperature.

Explanation

Temperature governs the amount of water vapour that a given volume of air can contain. Warm air can contain more water vapour than cold air. When an air volume reaches the maximum quantity of water vapour it can bear, it is saturated.

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29
Q

On what do bases of vertical development clouds depend?

A

The difference between che temperature and the dew point.

The smaller the difference between temperature and dew point, che lower the cloud development.

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30
Q

Stable air regions are usually characterized by:

A

Poor visibility.

Explanation

In stable air, there is less or no turbulence, flight conditions are comfortable and you encounter stratus clouds. Wind and precipitation are continuous. Visibility in lower levels is quite bad and you may encounter fog.

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31
Q

Subsidence dries out the air by

A

Adiabatic compression.

Explanation

The subsidence causes an increase of the ground level atmospheric pressure and, by adiabatic compression, warms up and dries out the air going down, stabilizing the atmosphere by creating a temperature inversion. The result is a dissipation of clouds from the top and a clear sky.

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32
Q

Stratus clouds at a warm front indicate that the _____ air is moist and _____

A

Warm; stable.

Explanation

Meteorological conditions at frontal systems are predicted according to the warm air mass features.

At a warm front, if warm air is moist and stable, stratus clouds will be what you encounter. If warm air is moist and unstable, you can expect to encounter convective clouds, sometimes hidden in stratus clouds. Therefore, you should expect strong showers in front of the frontal surface.

At a cold front, if warm air is stable, you will encounter stratus clouds. If warm air is unstable, you will encounter cumulus clouds. Here, the lifting agent is the frontal surface, so the vertical development force will depend on the front’s slope and speed.

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33
Q

The probabilities for a jet stream to cause strong clear air turbulence will be higher if this jet stream:

A

Curves around a deep pressure trough.

Has a curve.

Is stronger chan 110 knots at the core.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

  1. Jet streams stronger than 110 kt (at the core) have areas of significant turbulence near them in the sloping tropopause above the core, in the jet stream front below the core and on the low-pressure side of the core.
  2. Curving jet streams are more apt to have turbulent edges than straight ones, especially jet streams which curve around a deep pressure trough.
34
Q

In an upper air chart, if the _______isotherms are closer together than ________ of latitude, there is usually sufficient vertical shear for turbulence.

A

5ºC; 2º

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

  1. CAT is also related to vertical shear. From the wind-aloft charts or reports, compute the vertical shear in knots*per-thousand feet. Turbulence is likely when the shear is greater than 5 kt per thousand feet. Since vertical shear is related to horizontal temperature gradient, the spacing of isotherms on an upper air chart is significant. If the 5°C isotherms are closer together than 2° of latitude (120 NM), there is usually sufficient vertical shear for turbulence.
35
Q

_____ jet streams are more apt to have turbulent edges than _____ jet streams.

A

Curving; straight

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: 5. Curving jet screams are more ape to have turbulent edges chan straight ones, especially jet screams which curve around a deep pressure trough.

36
Q

Virga is a type of _____ that causes _____ of the air.

A

Evaporation; cooling.

“Virga” is any type of precipitation that does not reach the ground. Depending on the temperature, it is made of ice crystals sublimating or liquid droplets evaporating

under a cloud passing through a thick non-saturated layer of air. We can find virga under any type of clouds giving precipitations, whatever their altitude.

Evaporation of water droplets cools down the air.

37
Q

______ indicate(s) a shallow pressure gradient.

A

Widely spaced isobars.

Explanation
The speed at which the air is moving from point A to point B depends on the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient, defined as the pressure variation rate for a given

distance, is measured relative to the isobars.

When the isobars are far from each other, the air moving (wind) is light. When the isobars are close together, the gradient is strong and so is the wind.

38
Q

Land breeze blows during the _____ from the _____ to the _____

A

Night; land; water

Explanation

Sea and land breezes are the result of temperature differences over land or water.

We find sea breeze during the day, when land warms up faster than the water. Pressure over land becomes lower than pressure over the sea. Wind starts blowing from the sea to the land.

Land breeze blows at night when the land is cooling down. Wind blows toward water, where there”s a warm low pressure area.

39
Q

A pilot is on final approach to land when wind shear causes the headwind to become a very strong tail wind. If he/she doesn’t adjust accordingly, he/she will:

A

Undershoot

Explanation
Let’s assume a wind going from nil to 10 knots tailwind, or a headwind abruptly decreasing by 10 knots (negative wind shear): inertia leads to a delay of seconds before the

aircraft reacts to this change. During this time, the aircraft airspeed decreases by about 10 knots. If this decreasing occurs during approach, when the aircraft is flying at low

speed, the approach slope will suddenly be more pronounced and a stall could occur. You should therefore increase power.

40
Q

During a cold front, when warm air is moist and unstable, you can expect:

A

Vertical development clouds and showers.

Explanation
The weather associated with a cold front depends both on the stability and the moisture of the warm air mass lifted by the cold air mass and the cold front speed. If the

cold front is moving quickly, surface winds and gusts tend to increase. In addition, if the air of the warm air mass is unstable and moist, convective clouds (towering

cumulus, cumulonimbus, etc.) and thunderstorms will appear. They result in strong rain or hail showers.

41
Q

A trowal is:

A

A trough of warm air aloft.

Explana

A trowal (TROugh of Warm air Aloft) is a trough of warm air in altitude. It is found in warm or cold occlusion, or, in other words, when there are three air masses:

a cool air mass moving over a cold air mass
or a cold air mass moving over a cool air mass,
and a third air mass, of warm air, that creates a trough above those two colder air
masses.

42
Q

To keep your route, you must correct your heading to the _____ after having crossed a cold front

A

Right

Explanation

The surface wind always veers when a front passes. When flying through a cold front, you can expect to have wind shifts and gusts. It usually occurs close to the frontal surface. With a warm front, the change in wind direction is gradual. It occurs close to the frontal surface as well, and is stronger in low levels.

In both cases, a correction to the right will be required.

43
Q

What will the expected weather be in an area where a cold front advances rapidly, if the cold air mass is stable and dry while the warm air mass is unstable and moist?

A

Cumulonimbus clouds and thunderstorms because of the instability and the moisture of the warm air mass.

Explanation
The weather associated with a cold front depends both on the stability and the moisture of the warm air mass lifted by the cold air mass and the cold front speed. If the cold front is moving quickly, surface winds and gusts tend to increase. In addition, if the air of the warm air mass is unstable and moist, convective clouds (towering cumulus, cumulonimbus, etc.) and thunderstorms will appear. They result in strong rain or hail showers.

44
Q

A pilot is flying IMC inside a cloud where he/she encounters mixed icing. If ice crystals appear in the cloud, the pilot should expect a _____ in accumulation of
ice on its aircraft and that the icing passes from mixed to _____

A

Decrease; rime.

Explanation

Rime ice accumulates on the wing leading edges, the antennas, pitot port and other aircraft parts. It is opaque and milky white. This icing only exists when the aircraft temperature is way lower than freezing point. Droplets quickly freezes, even before it can spread over. Other conditions for rime ice are a short exposure to supercooled droplets and small size droplets.

Clear icing is a heavy clear and solid ice layer collecting when passing through a dense cloud or a precipitation zone of freezing rain. It extends irregularly on wing surfaces, tail, blades, antennas… The ice only appears when a small big supercooled droplet portion freezes during the impact. The aircraft surface temperature increases to 0°C because of heat released accompanying water state changes, from liquid to solid, during the impact of a part of the droplet. The droplet part that was liquid spread over the aircraft and slowly freezes and meets other droplets.

45
Q

In winter, you decide to melt the ice on your aircraft by putting it in a heated hangar. What risk may occur when you take the aircraft out after the ice has completely melted?

A

The water of the melted ice could refreeze in places as hinges or static lines.

Explanation
It is very important to remove any trace of snow or ice from your aircraft before departure. If you decide to melt ice or snow by putting aircraft in a heated hangar, you have to remove all water resulting from the melt. Do not forget any part, especially pitot static ports or flaps and flight controls, or it will freeze when you pull the aircraft out from the hangar, which will prevent anemometric instruments from working correctly.

46
Q

Small supercooled water droplets, which freeze on impact, will form ____ ice.

A

Rime.

Explanation
Rime ice collects on airfoil leading edges, che antennas, pitot port and ocher aircraft parts. It is opaque and milky white. This icing only exists when the aircraft temperature is much lower than freezing point. Droplets quickly freeze, even before they can spread. Other conditions for rime ice are a short exposure to supercooled droplets and small size droplets.

47
Q

Small supercooled water droplets can be found at high altitudes at temperatures as low as:

A
  • 40ºC

Explanation

Some water droplets in a liquid state have a temperature as low as -40°C, far below freezing point. To explain this phenomenon, one could say that the freezing process is triggered by various nuclei on which the water droplets are formed. The temperature at which the droplets freeze depends on the chemical characteristics of the nucleus on which they are located. This temperature also depends on the droplet size. Bigger droplets freeze at temperatures just below the freezing point, whereas smaller droplets freeze at lower temperatures. It is common to encounter supercooled droplets in clouds at temperatures between 0 and -15°C.

48
Q

Hoar frost can cover an aircraft that is parked outside during:

A

A clear night in winter.

Explanation

Hoar frost is a solid precipitation that forms in clear air and through different mechanisms on the outer surfaces when air saturation occurs and the surface already has a temperature below 0°C. This is the transfer of a gas directly to a solid (ice crystals) without going through the liquid state: deposition. This phenomenon generally occurs during winter nights when the sky is clear. Surfaces then cool by night radiation to a temperature below the surrounding air temperature.

This should not be confused with white dew, which occurs when dew droplets appear on the ground by condensation and freeze afterward.

49
Q

Question 49

Ice pellets are caused by ______ that fall(s) through air having a temperature below the freezing point.

A

Water droplets.

Ice pellets appear when water droplets or supercooled water droplets fall through cold air and freeze. They keep the shape and size of water droplets.

50
Q

Which of the following is true regarding NAT MNPS flight planning procedures?

A

South of 70°N, the planned tracks shall be defined by significant points formed by the intersection of half or whole degrees of latitude at each 10° of longitude.

North of 70°N, significant points are defined by the parallels of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes with longitudes at 20° intervals.

For northbound and southbound traffic, the planned tracks shall be defined by significant points formed by the intersection of whole degrees of longitude with parallels of latitude spaced at 5°.

AIM, NAT 1.7.1

51
Q

You are flying at FL300 in the RVSM airspace aboard a RVSM-certified aircraft. ATC will provide a separation of _____ feet between you and other aircraft.

A

1000

Explanation

AIM, RAC 11.7.1: RVSM: The application of 1000-ft vertical separation at and above FL290 between aircraft approved to operate in reduced vertical separation minimum airspace.

52
Q

In which circumstances extended range twin-engine operations (ETOPS) apply?

A

When the aircraft is on a route containing a point that is farther from an adequate aerodrome than the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

Explanation

CAR 705.26: (1) Subject to subsection (2), no air operator shall operate a twin-engined aeroplane on a route containing a point that is farther from an adequate aerodrome than the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, unless the flight is conducted wholly within Canadian Domestic Airspace.

(2) An air operator may operate an aeroplane on a route referred to in subsection (1) where
(a) the aeroplane is turbine-powered;
(b) the air operator is authorized to do so in its air operator certificate; and
(c) the air operator complies with the Safety Criteria for Approval of Extended Range Twin-engine Operations (ETOPS) Manual.

53
Q

You are planning a commercial IFR flight with several intermediate stops. How will you fill your flight plan?

A

You may not include an intermediate stop in an IFR flight plan: a new flight plan is required for each flight leg.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.9: Intermediate stops may not be included in a single instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan. A single visual flight rules (VFR) flight plan or an IFR or VFR flight itinerary including one or more intermediate stops en route may be filed provided that:

(a) for VFR flight plans, the stop will be of short duration (for purposes such as boarding passengers, and refuelling);
(b) for IFR flight itineraries, the stop will be in uncontrolled airspace; and
(c) each intermediate stop is indicated by repeating the name of the stopping point and its duration in the “Route” section of the flight plan or flight itinerary. Record the duration of the stopover in hours and minutes with four consecutive digits. Example: CYXU 0045 CYXU. You may include a phone number for the stopover in the “Remark” section of the flight plan or flight itinerary, if available, as this may be useful in case of search and rescue (SAR).

54
Q

According to the following information, what is the minimum amount of fuel that should be indicated on the flight plan?

Aircraft: Large turbojet aeroplane Type of flight: Night IFR
Total flight time: 4 hours and 30 minutes (including 20 minutes of climb)
Weather at destination: Thunderstorms
Alternate on the flight plan: Nil
Fuel consumption during climb: 550 Ibs/hour
Fuel consumption during cruise: 450 Ibs/hour
Fuel consumption for each circling: 250 lbs
Fuel consumption for an approach and an overshoot: 300 pounds

A

2583 pounds

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.12.2: An aircraft operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft (a) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane,

(i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes, or
(ii) where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes; orExplanation

AIM, RAC 3.12.2: An aircraft operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft

(a) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane.
(i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes, or
(ii) where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes; or
(b) in the case of a turbojet powered aeroplane or a helicopter,
(i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes, or
(ii) where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes.

Note: The RAC dos not include any circling.

In this question:

  • Fuel burned during the climb: 550 x 0.33 = 181.5 pounds
  • Fuel burned during the cruise (ensure to subtract time to climb): 450 x 4.17 = 1,876.5 pounds
  • Fuel needed to execute an approach and a missed approach: 300 pounds
  • Fuel needed to fly for a period of 30 minutes: 450 x 0.5 = 225 pounds
    181. 5 + 1.876.5 + 300 + 225 = 2,583 pounds
55
Q

With a tailwind, the CP (critical point) will move closer to the _______point, and with a headwind it will move closer to the _____ point.

A

Departure; arrival.

Explanation

The critical point (CP) (or equal time point) is a point located on the flight track from which it will take the exact same time to fly back to the departure point or to continue to the arrival point.

The CP is calculated before departure and is used inflight in case of an emergency. It allows the pilot to quickly respond to a situation indicating if the pilot should continue to fly to the destination or come back to the departure point. If the problem occurs before the CP, the pilot should go back; if after, he/she should keep flying on the route.

If the wind is calm, the CP will be located at the midpoint between the departure point and the arrival point.

In case of tailwind, the CP will be closer to the departure point; in case of headwind, the CP will be closer to the arrival point: we say that the CP moves to the wind.

Note: Fuel is not taken into account in the calculation of the CP.

To determine the CP, calculate groundspeed using your aircrafts true airspeed and the winds aloft.

In case of an engine failure, the groundspeed will be lower. In this case, you should take 60% of the normal cruise speed.

56
Q

In order to provide an accurate navigation, the IRS uses:

A

Accelerometers.

Explanation

An inertial navigation system (INS) is a navigation aid that needs a computer, accelerometers and gyroscopes to continuously calculate, via dead reckoning (relative to a known starting point, orientation and velocity), the position (for example, a move east or south), orientation (rotation about an axis) and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of the aircraft without any external aid.

A typical inertial measurement unit (IMU) contains three rate-gyroscopes (measuring angular velocity) and three accelerometers (measuring linear acceleration): one for each axis.

The INS initially needs to know its position

Nowadays, most of the INS have been replaced by the IRS (inertial reference system). The operation of the IRS is similar to the operation of the INS. The main difference is that the gyroscopes have been replaced by lasers (one on each aircraft axis). The lasers have the advantage of lasting longer, as they do not have any moving parts. The IRS often gives information directly to the FMS.

57
Q

The normal, reliable coverage of ILS LOCs is _____ within _____ of either side of the course centreline and ____ within _____ of the course centreline.

A

18 NM; 10°; 10 NM; 35°.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.11.1: The normal, reliable coverage of ILS LOCs is 18 NM within 10° of either side of the course centreline and 10 NM within 35° of the course centreline.

58
Q

What can you say about the localizer of an ILS?

A

The localizer coverage extends up to 18 NM.

The localizer operates at frequencies from 108.1 to 111.9 MHz.

The localizer of an ILS approach may be out of runway heading with the runway by 3°.

AIM, COM 4.11.1

59
Q

What does an “X” as the first letter of the localizer frequency identifier mean?

A

That the localizer centreline is not within 3° of the runway centreline.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.11.1: LOC alignment exceeding 3° of the runway heading will have an “X” as the first letter of the indicator, whereas LOCs and back courses with an alignment of 3º or less will have an T as the first letter.

60
Q

The ILS transmitter localizer operates in the _____ frequency range, and the glide-slope transmitter operates in the ____ frequency range.

A

VHF; UHF.

Explanation
Distance measurement equipment (DME) and the glide slope of the ILS are navaids that both work on the ultra-high-frequency range (UHF), between 300 and 3,000 MHz.

The ILS runway localizer transmitter works on the VHF range between 108.1 and 111.9 MHz.

61
Q

The track bar sensitivity of a localizer is approximately _____ times greater than the track bar of a VOR.

A

4

The full deflection of the LOC track bar is about 2.5° (0,5° per dot).

The full deflexion of the VORs CDI represents 10°: 2° per dot.

62
Q

When using the GNSS during the approach part of an IFR flight, the full deflection of the CDI needle corresponds to +/- NM from the selected track.

A

0.3

Explanation

When using the GNSS, the CDI deflection depends on the aircraft position in relation to the departure or arrival airport.

  • If the aircraft is located more than 30 NM from the departure airport or less than 30 NM from the arrival airport (en-route mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 5 NM (1 NM per dot) without WAAS and 2 NM with WAAS (0.4 NM per dot) from the selected track.
  • If the aircraft is located less than 30 NM from the arrival airport and more than 2 NM from the FAF (terminal mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/-1 NM from the selected track (0.2 NM per dot).
  • If the aircraft is located less than 2 NM from the FAF (approach mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 0.3 NM from the selected track (0.06 NM per dot).
63
Q

How are GNSS stand-alone approach procedures referred as?

How are GNSS approaches retrieved? Can pilots generate their own waypoints?

What do GNSS stand-alone approach procedure charts present?

A

GNSS stand-alone approach procedures are referred as “RNAV RWY XX” by ATC.

GNSS approaches must be retrieved from current avionic databases, and pilots are not allowed to generate their own waypoints.

GNSS stand-alone approach procedure charts present a series of waypoints in a “T” or “Y” shape therefore rendering useless procedure turns.

AIM, COM 5.4.2

64
Q

Prior to starting your LNAV approach, you see that the approach-level RAIM is not available. What could you do?

A

Delay the approach
Proceed to the alternate
Fly another type of approach

AIM, COM 5.4.2.1

65
Q

Which of these radar systems works with a transponder?

A

The SSR.

Unlike the primary radar, the secondary surveillance radar (SSR) detects only aircraft that have a transponder on board.

66
Q

If you are approaching to land using a VASI, once the aircraft is on the right approach slope, colors of VASI bars should be:

A

Upwind: red; Downwind: white

Explanation

AIM, AGA 7.6.2: The VASI (VI and V2) consists of four light units situated on the left side of the runway in the form of a pair of wing bars (two light units per wing bar), referred to as the upwind and downwind wing bars. Each light unit of a wing bar projects a beam of light. The upper part of the beam shows white while the lower part shows red. When the pilot is:

(a) above the approach slope, both upwind and downwind bars show white.
(b) on the approach slope, the upwind bar shows red and the downwind bar shows white.
(c) below the approach slope, both upwind and downwind bars show red.
(d) well below the approach slope, the lights of the two wing bars merge into one red signal.

67
Q

The greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, the ______ the VASI is installed upwind from the threshold, and the ______ the PAPI is installed upwind from the threshold.

A

Farther; farther.

Explanation

AIM, AGA 7.6.4.2: The VASI installations are designed according to aircraft height group categories AV, V1 and V2. as indicated in Table 7.1. The greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, the farther the VASI is installed upwind from the threshold to provide the appropriate MEHT.

AIM, AGA 7.6.4.3: PAPI and APAPI installations are designed for aircraft height group categories AP. P1, P2 and P3, as indicated in Table 7.2. The greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, the farther the PAPI is installed upwind from the threshold to provide the appropriate MEHT.

68
Q

You are approaching a runway with a descent angle of 3° indicated on a PAPI. If the headwind decreases during the approach, what action should you take to maintain your descent angle of 3°?

A

Increase your rate of descent.

Explanation
During a power-assisted approach, a decrease in the headwind strength or an increase in the tailwind will increase the aircraft ground speed. You’ll reach the runway threshold faster than expected. If you do not change the approach angle, you will come too high above the touchdown point. An increase in the angle of descent will be necessary in order to maintain the proper descent alignment toward the touchdown point. A decrease of your power setting will then be required.

69
Q

ACAS/TCAS system is based on:

A

A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) that intercepts signals from transponders, regardless ground equipment.

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.2: Secondary surveillance radar (SSR) determines aircraft range by measuring the interval between transmitting an interrogation to and receiving a reply from an airborne transponder.

SSR is a cooperative surveillance system and does not provide a position for an aircraft without an operating transponder. SSR offers significant operational advantages to air traffic control (ATC), such as increased range, positive identification and aircraft altitude, when the aircraft has an altitude-encoding transponder.

AIM, COM 9.1: TCAS equipment alerts flight crews when the path of the aircraft is predicted to potentially collide with that of another aircraft. A TCAS-equipped aircraft interrogates other aircraft in order to determine their position. TCAS is designed to operate independently of air traffic control(ATC) and. depending on the type of TCAS. will display proximate traffic and provide traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution advisories (RAs).

(a) TAs provide information on proximate traffic and indicate the relative positions of intruding aircraft. TAs are intended to assist flight crew in visual acquisition of conflicting traffic and to prepare pilots for the possibility of an RA.
(b) RAs are divided into two categories: preventative advisories, which instruct the pilot to maintain or avoid certain vertical speeds; and corrective advisories, which instruct the pilot to deviate from the current flight path (e.g. “CLIMB” when the aircraft is in level flight).

70
Q

What do TCAS II or ACAS II systems include?

A

They are systems including a computer, pilot display(s), and a Mode S transponder.

AIM, COM 9.1

71
Q

For this question, refer to Image 3 in the Appendix.

On a TCAS II, what is the indication given by this symbol?

A

It is a TA that indicates an intruder that is 900 feet in level flight below your aircraft.

Explanation

AIM, COM 9.16: See explanations.

72
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the use of the TCAS?

A

b - In the event of an RA to alter the flight path, the alteration of the flight path should be limited to the minimum extent necessary to comply with the RA

c - Pilots should notify the appropriate ATC unit of the deviation and when the deviation has ended, as soon as possible

d - When a pilot reports a manoeuvre induced by an RA, the controller should not attempt to modify the aircraft flight path until the pilot reports returning to the terms of the existing ATC instruction or clearance, but should provide traffic information as appropriate

e - Pilots who deviate from an ATC instruction or clearance in response to an RA should promptly return to the terms of that instruction or clearance when the conflict is resolved and advise ATC

73
Q

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may deviate from an air-traffic control clearance or an air traffic control instruction to the extent necessary to carry out a collision avoidance manoeuvre, where the manoeuvre is carried out:

A

In response to a warning from a GPWS system on board the aircraft.
In response to a warning from a WS detection system on board the aircraft.
In accordance with a resolution advisory generated by an ACAS or a TCAS.

AIM, COM 9.1
AIM, RAC 6.1

74
Q

After the response to a TCAS RA is completed and a return to the ATC clearance or instruction is initiated, the crew members should inform the control by saying:

A

CLEAR OF CONFLICT. RETURNING TO (assigned clearance).

AIM, COM 9.10: Refer to Che cable.

75
Q

After an ATC clearance or instruction contradictory to the TCAS RA is received, the flight crew will follow the RA and inform ATC directly by saying:

A

UNABLE, TCAS RA.

AIM, COM 9.10: Refer to Che cable.

76
Q

When travelling, the higher range of the HF band:

A

Has a more important attenuation than the lower range.

Explanation

Ground waves are affected by surface attenuation. This phenomenon leads to a loss of wave energy when in contact with the ground. The surface wave will continue to travel until it disappears because of surface attenuation.

The surface attenuation depends on the type of soil on which the wave travels. It wil

The attenuation also depends on the frequency used: the higher the frequency, the higher the surface attenuation. VLF waves are then able to travel several thousand

miles. HF waves are very affected by attenuation. VHF and UHF waves are not affected.

77
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the HF SSB?

A

It allows for increased power, increased range, and saves spectrum space.
It has no carrier wave and only has one sideband.
When arriving at the HF SSB receiver, the carrier has to be re-inserted in order to recover the information.

78
Q

The PDC is:

A

A way to get the electronic delivery of initial IFR clearances via air-ground data link.

AIM, COM 3.8

79
Q

What is the purpose of the SELCAL?

A

To reduce noise in the cockpit when using a HF radio.

Explanation

The SELCAL is a selective call system that allows the radio operator of a ground station to alert the pilot that he/she wants to communicate with him/her. This system can work in VHF or HF, but is mostly used in HF.

The SELCAL has mainly been developed to reduce background noise caused by the use of HF in the cockpit. The pilot may reduce the noise level of the radio receiver until he/she is alerted by the SELCAL.

When the operator of a ground station wants to communicate with the pilot, he/she selects the SELCAL code (composed of 4 letters) of the aircraft (available in the flight plan). The SELCAL recognizes the code and transmits a visual and/or audible alert in the cockpit. Then the pilot increases the noise level to communicate with the calling station.

80
Q

An aircraft’s 121.5 MHz ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime:

A

During the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.

AIM, SAR 3.8.2