2_3 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Large supercooled water droplets are usually found:

Answer

A

Inside the lower levels of clouds that have formed in unstable air and when the temperature is a few degrees below the freezing level.

Cumulus clouds develop in rising air currents and are a show of unstable air.

The type of cloud where large supercooled droplets can be

In general, large supercooled water droplets can be found in the cloud area just below 0°C. If the temperature in the cloud remains around 0°C, the amount of supercooled water droplets will increase with altitude. However, if the temperature is much lower than freezing point, the greater the increase in altitude the more the temperature will decrease and the more water can be found in a solid state.

Question 2

Q

When there is a warm front in winter, freezing rain could be:

Answer

A

Inside the cold air mass, between the ground and the front of the frontal surface.

Explanation

Here are the precipitations you should expect from high to low when crossing a warm front frontal surface in winter:

snow in the higher cloud part of the warm air mass in which the temperature is below freezing point;
rain in the cloud part of the air mass in which the temperature is above freezing point;
freezing rain, caused by the rain going through cold air (usually under warm air), becoming supercooled and freezing upon contact of cold objects (like an aircraft flying at this frontal surface level);
ice pellets in the area preceding freezing rain, which result from rain freezing when passing through cold air.

If you fly at high altitude, you will only encounter snow. However, if you are at a relatively low altitude and pass from cold air frontal surface to warm air, you will first encounter snow, followed by ice pellets and freezing rain.

Question 3

Q

A thin lifting surface will catch ______ compared with a thick lifting surface.

Answer

A

More water droplets.

Explanation
When flying in icing conditions, the catch rate of supercooled water droplets depends on:

quantity of water in a liquid state in the cloud
size of water droplets
aircraft airspeed through the droplets
aircraft lifting surface profile.

A thin lifting surface will catch more droplets than a thick lifting surface.

Question 4

Q

A thunderstorm with an anvil-shaped top that produces rain precipitation is a thunderstorm:

Answer

A

That is dissipating.

Explanation
Thunderstorms start dissipating after precipitation has reached the ground. This cold precipitation cools down the lower part of the cloud, causing a loss of energy in the thunderstorm cell. The descending current, created by precipitation, extends more and more through the entire cell. Only a thin zone of the summit still has ascending currents. Precipitation decreases gradually and the summit extends in an anvil shape.

Question 5

Q

The most serious icing associated with thunderstorms will be found during the _____ stage of the thunderstorm.

Answer

A

Beginning of the mature.

Explanation

The most serious icing associated with thunderstorms will occur where the droplets are supercooled, i.e., just above freezing level. It is at the beginning of the thunderstorm mature stage that icing is the most severe.

Question 6

Q

What is the indication of precipitation originating from a towering cumulus cloud that evaporates before reaching the ground?

Answer

A

The presence of a dry microburst.

Explanation

A burst is a combination of strong descending currents and destroyer winds on the ground and in its vicinity. The bursts are divided into two categories:

macrobursts: descending gusts of a diameter of 2 NM or more reaching the ground and lasting 5 to 20 minutes. The strongest could cause damages as severe as tornadoes;
microbursts: descending gusts of a maximum diameter of 2 NM. Winds are significant for five minutes.

There are two types of microbursts:

Wet microburst: occurs in the presence of storm clouds with precipitations that reach the ground.
Dry microburst: comes from moisture-laden towering cumulus clouds. In this case, the descending air column contains virga, which further cools the air, increasing the microburst strength.

Question 7

Q

What is a macroburst and what’s the length of its diameter? how long will its peak winds last?

What is a a microburst and what’s its diameter’s length? how long will its peak winds last?

What’s a downburst?

Answer

A

A macroburst is a large downburst with a diameter of two nautical miles or more, with winds lasting from 5 to 20 minutes.

A microburst is a downburst with a diameter of less than two nautical miles, with peak winds that last less than 5 minutes.

Downbursts are severe downward rushes of air accompanied by outbursts of damaging winds on or near the ground.

Question 8

Q

Large storms must be avoided at a radius of at least _____ NM

Answer

A

20

Explanation

When you are in flight with a thunderstorm on your route, change your heading as soon as possible to avoid it. Maintain a distance of at least 5 NM between you and the thunderstorm to avoid hail. If the thunderstorm is very violent, turbulence could be experienced within 15 NM of the thunderstorm. In this case, fly farther away. 20 NM would be a good call… a violent thunderstorm will be recognizable from the frequent lightning. A thunderstorm with its top at 35,000 feet or more should be considered as very violent and extremely dangerous.

AIM, AIR 2.7.2: (a) Above all, never think of a thunderstorm as “light” even though the radar shows echoes of light intensity. Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Remember that vivid and frequent lightning indicates a severe activity in the thunderstorm and that any thunderstorm with tops 35 000 ft or higher is severe. Whenever possible:

(i) don’t land or take off when a thunderstorm is approaching. The sudden wind shift of the gust front or low level turbulence could result in loss of control;
(ii) don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm even when you can see through to the other side. Turbulence under the storm could be disastrous;
(iii) avoid any area where thunderstorms are covering 5/8 or more of that area;
(iv) don’t fly into a cloud mass containing embedded thunderstorms without airborne radar;
(v) avoid by at least 20 NM any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving intense radar returns. This includes the anvil of a large cumulonimbus; and
(vi) clear the top of a known or suspected severe thunderstorm by at least 1 000 ft altitude for each 10 kt of wind speed at the cloud top.

Question 9

Q

Hail formed in a thunderstorm:

Answer

A

Can be projected in the clear air that is ahead of the thunderstorm.

Explanation

Hail implies the presence of strong lifting currents and unstable air. Therefore, it can be found in cumulus clouds at an advanced stage. The cumulonimbus (Cb) is a giant mass of cumulus rising much higher than the freezing point, where hail is formed. When the hail becomes too heavy to be lifted by the lifting currents of the cell, it turns into showers.

Hail can be encountered between 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet in a Cb. It can be encountered in clear air in front of thunderstorms as well, when it has been raised high in the cloud and is thrown outside of it.

Question 10

Q

At what temperature range is the probability of an aircraft being struck by lightning the highest?

Answer

A

5°C to +5°C.

When you fly near a thunderstorm, the probability of being struck by lightning is higher if outside air temperature is between -5°C and 5°C.

Question 11

Q

What is the recommended course of action if accidentally entering a thunderstorm cell?

Answer

A

Slow down to the turbulence penetration speed, do not maintain a rigid airspeed or altitude, and keep your present heading.

Explanation

As much as possible, avoid flying in a thunderstorm. If you don’t have a choice, follow the advice below:

before entering the thunderstorm, reduce your airspeed to Va to reduce structural contraints
fly straight through the front and try to keep a constant heading to get out of the storm cell as fast as possible
try to keep a constant attitude power setting; because of wind shear and rain in the storm cell, your airspeed indicator could give you wrong information
do not make any sudden corrections in an attempt to maintain constant flight parameters (airspeed, attitude, etc.)
turn all the available cockpit lights on to avoid being blinded by lightning
open the carburetor heat and turn on pitot heat
tightly fasten the seat belts and do not leave any loose objects in the cabin
avoid icing zones and dark areas of the cell
if you have an autopilot system, unplug it.

AIM, AIR 2.7.2: (c) If you enter a thunderstorm:

(i) Concentrate on your instruments; looking outside increases the danger of temporary blindness from lightning.
(ii) Don’t change power settings; maintain the settings for turbulence penetration airspeed.
(iii) Don’t attempt to keep a constant rigid altitude; let the aircraft “ride the waves”. Manoeuvres in trying to maintain constant altitude increases stress on the aircraft. If altitude cannot be maintained, inform ATC as soon as possible.
(iv) Don’t turn back once you have entered a thunderstorm. Maintaining heading through the storm will get you out of the storm faster than a turn. In addition, turning manoeuvres increases stress on the aircraft

Question 12

Q

Fog that is frequently ahead of a warm front is caused by ____ , and fog that is frequently following a warm front is caused by _____

Answer

A

The evaporation of water that saturates the cold air ; advection cooling.

Explanation

Advection fog is created by warm moist air cooling that moves over a colder surface. It can occur when the air comes from warm land or a warm water surface and goes over a cold water surface. It also can appear when cooled down air is moving from the south to the north.

This fog can persist for many days and covers a wide area. It frequently occurs on the coasts.

Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over a warm water surface. Water evaporation saturates cold air. Condensation forms and creates this fog which occurs most of the time in fall over lakes and rivers.

Arctic sea smoke is a kind of steam fog.

Question 13

Q

What is the process involved in ice fog formation?

Answer

A

Deposition.

Explanation

Ice fog appears when the weather is calm and the air is moist and very cold. It is constituted of tiny ice crystals visible to the naked eye shaped by the deposition process (or desublimation). This fog can be found behind an engine, when water vapour resulting from the combustion is released in very cold air.

Question 14

Q

What type of fog is created when cold air passes above a warm water surface?

Answer

A

Steam fog.

Explanation

Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over a warm water surface. Water evaporation saturates cold air. Condensation forms and creates this fog which occurs most of the time in fall over lakes and rivers.

Question 15

Q

When would fog be more likely to form?

Answer

A

When there is high moisture content, many condensation nuclei and a condensation process.

Explanation

Basic conditions for fog development are enough condensation nuclei, high relative humidity, a small difference between temperature and dew point, and any cooling process creating condensation.

Question 16

Q

Which type of fog is more likely to form when there is a clear sky, high relative humidity and light winds?

Answer

A

Radiation fog.

Explanation

Radiation fog occurs during clear nights: the ground cools down and cools the air with which it is in contact.

Ideal conditions for this type of fog include:

moist air;
temperature slightly below dew point;
condensation nuclei;
light wind increasing cooling in low levels;
clear sky. allowing faster cooling.

Question 17

Q

A responsibility of a Flight Information Center (FIC) specialist is to provide:

Answer

A

Flight planning services.

AIM, RAC 1.1.2.1
AIM, RAC 1.1.2.2

Question 18

Q

Which of the following information will not be broadcast in the ATIS?

Answer

A

Atmospheric pressure at the airport.

The automatic terminal information service (ATIS) continuously gives information unrelated to the air traffic control (ceiling, visibility, wind. NOTAM, active runway, altimeter setting, restrictions, etc.).

Note: The standard atmospheric pressure (i.e., the altimeter setting) is different from the mean sea level pressure (MSL). To get the altimeter setting, station pressure is
reduced to sea level pressure using the standard temperature at seal level (15°C) and the standard lapse rate (1.98°C per 1,000 feet).

Question 19

Q

What does the following mean when in a METAR?

R24/1000V1900FT/D

Answer

A

The runway visual range for runway 24 touchdown zone is fluctuating between 1.000 feet and 1,900 feet and it tends to decrease.

AIM, MET 8.0

Question 20

Q

Question 20

Using the following METAR, you can see that the obscuring phenomena must have an increase of _____ (in oktas) in order to constitute a ceiling.

METAR CYYZ 041800Z 1301OKT 1 /2SM W003 BKN008 12/12 A2983 RMK NS4 SLP999=

Answer

A

None, the vertical visibility already constitutes an obscured ceiling.

Explanation

AIM, MET 8.3: A ceiling is the lesser of the following:

the height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half of the sky.
or the vertical visibility in a surface-based layer which completely obscures the whole sky.

Therefore, a ceiling exists at the height of the first layer for which a coverage symbol of BKN or OVC is reported. The existence of a vertical visibility constitutes an obscured ceiling.

Question 21

Q

Regarding surface weather charts, surface pressure patterns can be considered as representative of the atmosphere up to:

Answer

A

3,000 feet.

Explanation

AIM, MET 3.3: Analysis of MSL pressure pattern, surface location of fronts, surface precipitation and obstructions to vision based on reports. Surface pressure patterns can be considered as representative of the atmosphere up to 3 000 ft. Weather visible from the surface at any level is included.

Question 22

Q

Aircraft cleared on an Atlantic North organized track must make, record, and report meteorological observations at each designated reporting point:

Answer

A

When the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS” is included in the ATC oceanic clearance, using the AIREP form.

Explanation

AIM, NAT 1.15: Aircraft must make, record, and report meteorological observations at each designated reporting point on a routine basis. However, aircraft cleared on an organized track should be required to make, record, and report meteorological observations only upon a specific request by air traffic control (ATC). Such requests will be included in the oceanic clearance using the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS”. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) air report (AIREP) form, as contained in Appendix 1 of the Procedures for Air Navigation Services—Air Traffic Management (Doc 4444), should be used for this purpose.

Question 23

Q

The GFA depicts the most probable meteorological conditions expected to occur:

Answer

A

At or below 24,000 feet.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.1: The graphic area forecast (GFA) consists of a series of temporally adjusted weather charts, each depicting the most probable meteorological conditions expected to occur at or below 24 000 ft over a given area at a specified time. The GFA is primarily designed to meet general aviation and regional airline requirements for pre-flight planning in Canada.

Question 24

Q

In an AIRMET, the term “SFC WND SPD” will be used for winds of at least ____ knots.

Answer

A

30

Explanation

AIM, MET 5.2: AIRMET are issued when the following criteria occur or are expected to occur and were not forecast in the GFA and a SIGMET is not warranted. The abbreviations shown in all capitals will be used as described below.

Surface wind speed - Widespread mean surface wind speed above 30 kt is indicated by SFC WND SPD (along with details of the wind speed or wind speed range and units).
See the rest in the AIM section above.

Question 25

Q

GFAs display continuous winds if they exceed _____ knots, and the term “VRB” in a TAF means that the forecast winds are equal to or less than _____ knots.

Answer

A

20; 3

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.11: (g) Surface winds—The speed and direction of forecast surface winds with a sustained speed of at least 20 kt are indicated by wind barbs and an associated windspeed value. When accompanied by strong gusts, mean sustained winds of less than 20 kt may also be included, at the forecaster’s discretion, if moderate mechanical turbulence is expected to occur as a result of the wind gusts. Wind gusts are indicated by the letter “G.” followed by the peak gust speed in knots (KT).

Regarding TAF, the wind is coded in the same way as for the METAR: the direction is in true degrees and the speed in knots. If there are gusts, the letter “G” will be on the forecast with its strength. “VRB” is used when the wind is 3 knots or less, or when the wind is too strong to have only one direction.

Question 26

Q

On a GFA, the base and top of forecast clouds:

Answer

A

Are indicated if they are between the surface and 24,000 feet, 24,000 feet and more in the case of TCU, ACC or CB.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.11: Clouds: The bases and cops of forecast clouds between the surface and 24 000 ft ASL will be indicated on the GFA clouds and weather chart. The cops of convective clouds (i.e., TCU. ACC. CB) are indicated, even if they extend above 24 000 ft ASL. Cirrus clouds are not depicted on the chart. The cloud type will be indicated if considered significant; however, convective clouds, such as CU, TCU, ACC and CB. will always be stated if forecast to be present.

Question 27

Q

An AIRMET is used to provide information about in-flight hazardous weather such as:

Answer

A

Surface winds over 30 knots.

Explanation

AIM, MET 5.2: AIRMET are issued when the following criteria occur or are expected to occur and were not forecast in the GFA and a SIGMET is not warranted. The abbreviations shown in all capitals will be used as described below:

Surface wind speed - Widespread mean surface wind speed above 30 kt is indicated by SFC WND SPD (along with details of the wind speed or wind speed range and units).
see the rest on the AIM.

Question 28

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.

With respect to the GFAs, which of the following is true?

Answer

A

One of the GFAs was issued at 1841Z on August 28, 2011, and is valid twelve hours into the forecast period. Also, the IFR Outlook is valid for an extra 12 hours.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.2: GFA charts are issued four times daily, approximately 30 min before the beginning of the forecast period. The GFA is issued at approximately 2330,0530,

1130 and 1730 UTC and is valid at 0000,0600, 1200 and 1800 UTC respectively. Each issue of the GFA is really a collection of six charts; two charts valid at the beginning of the forecast period, two charts valid six hours into the forecast period and the final two charts valid twelve hours into the forecast period. Of the two charts valid at each of the three forecast periods, one chart depicts clouds and weather while the other chart depicts icing, turbulence and freezing level. An IFR outlook for an additional twelve-hour period will also be included in the Final clouds and weather chart.

Question 29

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.

What can you say about the second ICG TURB & FZLVL GFA?

Answer

A

It was issued at 1732Z on August 28, 2011, and is valid at 0000Z on August 29, 2011.

Question 30

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.

According to the GFAs, the cold front at 0000Z is forecasted to be:

Answer

A

15 NM East of Gillam (YGX).

Question 31

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.

What is the forecasted weather over Montreal - CYUL at 1800Z on August 28, 2011?

Answer

A

Overcast ceiling from 3,000 feet ASL to 30,000 feet ASL, 2 to 4 SM of visibility in heavy to light rain and mist. Numerous towering cumulus clouds with tops at 32,000 feet ASL Isolated cumulonimbus clouds with tops at 40,000 feet ASL. Visibility of 1 SM in heavy thunderstorm rain and mist.

Extensive ceiling from 300 feet to 800 feet AGL.

Question 32

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.

What is the forecasted weather over Wawa - CYXZ at 1900Z on August 28, 2011 ?

Answer

A

Broken cumulus clouds from 4,000 feec co 10,000 feet, visibility of 6 SM or more, scattered towering cumulus clouds with tops at 14,000 feet ASL, visibility of more than 6SM in light rain showers, and ceilings at 1,500 feet AGL.

Question 33

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.

According to the GFAs, what is the forecasted weather over Chibougamau - CYMT at 0200Z?

Answer

A

Overcast ceiling between 12,000 feet ASL and 24,000 feet ASL, scattered clouds between 3,000 feet ASL and 6,000 feet ASL. and visibility greater than 6 SM.

Question 34

Q

Refer to the “Weather Charts / Cartes du temps” in the Appendix.
Using the GFAs, what is the forecasted weather in the extreme north-west of the Ontario-Quebec GFA at 0000Z on August 29, 2011?

Answer

A

Numerous altocumulus cascellanus clouds to 24,000 feet ASL, giving 5 to more than 6 SM of visibility in light rain showers and mist. Isolated cumulonimbus clouds at 34,000 feet ASL giving 4 SM of visibility in thunderstorm rainfalls and mist.

Question 35

Q

ln a TAF, calm wind is coded as:

Answer

A

00000KT.

AIM. MET 7.4

Question 36

Q

TAF AMD CWWU 151937Z 1519/1618 16012KT 6SM BR OVC004 TEMPO 1519/1603 2SM SHRA BR OVC003 BECMG 1523/1601 26015G25KT FM160300 28015G25KT P6SM FEW008 BKN012 FM160600 28010G20KT P6SM SCT008 FM161200 36015KT P6SM FEW012 BECMG 1614/1616 36012G22KT RMK NXT FCST BY 160000Z=

What is the time origin of the CWWU TAF amendment above?

Answer

A

1937Z.

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.0: (d) Dace and time of origin—As with che METAR format, the dace (day of the month) and time (Coordinated Universal Time [UTC]) of origin are included in all forecasts. TAFs are issued approximately 30 min before che validity period. Some forecasts have update cycles as frequent as every three hours; however, the next issue time will always be indicated in the remarks section.

Question 37

Q

METAR CYHU 111600Z AUTO 01012KT 9SM CLR 17/09 A3018 RMK SLP221 =

METAR CYHU 111500Z AUTO 02012KT 9SM CLR 15/09 A3019 RMKSLP224=

METAR CYHU 111400Z AUTO 01014KT 9SM CLR 12/09 A3019 RMK SLP224=

TAF CYHU 111138Z 1112/1212 02013G24 P6SM SCT240 TEMPO 1112/1113 4SM BR FM111600 P6SM SCT240 BECMG 1201/1203 VRB03KT RMK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 111800Z=

According to the information above, what is the maximum difference of wind intensity at CYHU at 1500Z between the observation and the forecast?

Answer

A

12 knots.

AIM, MET 7.0: See explanations. AIM, MET 8.0: See explanations.

Question 38

Q

How would you decode the extract of the following FD?

24000 FEET = 8599-50

Answer

A

350°T at 199 kts, temperature -50°C.

Explanation

AIM, MET 9.2: When the forecast speed is less than 5 kt, the code group is “9900,” which reads “light and variable.”

Encoded wind speeds from 100 to 199 kt have 50 added to the direction code and 100 subtracted from the speed. Wind speeds that have had 50 added to the direction can be recognized when figures from 51 to 86 appear in the code. Since no such directions exist (i.e. 510s to 860s), obviously they represent directions from 010s to 360s.

Should the forecast wind speed be 200 kt or greater, the wind group is coded as 199 kt, that is, 7799 is decoded as 270s at 199 kt or greater.

Question 39

Q

WSCN31 CWEG 212123

SIGMET L1 VALID 212155/220155 CWEG- WTN 15 NM OF LN /4942N12344W/35 NW VANCOUVER -/4903N12245W/20 SE VANCOUVER.

SEV MXD ICG FCST BLO 150 IN CVCTV CLD. SEV ICG REPD BY A340 25NM NW OF VANCOUVER AT 2131Z. AREA MOVG SW 15 KT. WKNG NXT 3 HRS. END/GFA31/CMAC-W/BSS TBG

What time was the above SIGMET issued?

Answer

A

The 21 st day of the month at 2123 UTC.

AIM, MET 6.0: See explanations.

Question 40

Q

On upper-level analysis charts, the _____ lines represent the contours and the _____lines represent the isotachs.

Answer

A

Black solid; dashed.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: (a) Height: The solid lines (contours) on all the charts represent the approximate height of the pressure level indicated by the map. The contours are labelled in decametres (10s of metres) such that on a 500 hPa map, 540 means 5 400 m and on a 250 hPa map, 020 means 10 200 m. Contours are spaced 60 m (6 decametres) apart except at 250 hPa, where the spacing is 120 m.

(d) Wind Speed: Wind speed is inversely proportional to the spacing of the height contours. If the contours are close together, the winds are strong; if far apart, the winds are light. The plotted wind arrows also provide the wind speed

On the 250 hPa chart, wind speeds are analyzed using dashed lines for points with the same wind speed (isotachs). The isotachs are analysed by a computer and are drawn at 30 kt intervals starting at 30 kt.

Question 41

Q

On 250 hPa upper-level analysis charts, meteorological parameters are measured twice a day at:

Answer

A

0000Z and 1200Z.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: Meteorological parameters in the upper atmosphere are measured twice a day (0000Z and 1200Z). The data are plotted and analyzed on constant pressure level charts.

Question 42

Q

On 250 hPa upper-level analysis charts, the letters “J,” when on the charts, represent:

Answer

A

A local peak of wind velocity.

See the 250 hPa chart legend.

Question 43

Q

In standard atmosphere, the level corresponding to a pressure of 150 hPa is close to:

Answer

A

FL450.

Explanation
Atmospheric pressure descreases with che altitude: it decreases, exponentially, by a factor of 10 for each 16 kilometres (52,500 feet). Ac 5,500 m (18,000 feet) it decreases by

half. It”s possible to use pressure to measure altitude. It is che altimeter basic principle.

Question 44

Q

On Significant Weather Prognostic High-Level Charts (SIGWX HI LVL), what is the meaning of “320/520” located just below a jet stream?

Answer

A

The 80 knocs isotach is forecast co be based at FL320 and copped ac FL520.

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: (d) Jet screams: the height and speed of jet screams having a core speed of 80 kt or more are shown oriented to true norch using arrows wich pennants and feathers for speed and spaced sufficiencly close co give a good indicacion of speed and heighc changes. A double-hacched line across che jec scream core indicaces a speed increase or decrease of 20 kc or greacer ac a jec scream speed of 100 kc or higher.

Question 45

Q

On a high-level chart, what does the term “FRQ CB” mean?

Answer

A

CB with little or no separation (greater than 75%).

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: The cumulonimbus (CB) symbol is used when thunderstorms occur, or are forecast to occur, over a widespread area, along a line, embedded in other cloud layers, or when concealed by a hazard. The amounts and the spatial coverage (in brackets) are indicated as:

ISOLD (isolated) - for individual CBs (less than 50%)

OCNL (occasional) - for well-separated CBs (50-75% inclusive)

FRQ (frequent) - for CBs with little or no separation (greater than 75%).

Question 46

Q

The height of the tropopause:

Answer

A

Will be greater at the equator.

Explanation

The troposphere is the atmosphere”s first layer. Its top can be from 28,000 feet ASL at the poles to 54.000 feet ASL at the equator. In the troposphere, pressure, density and temperature decrease quickly with altitude. Most weather phenomenons occur in the troposphere, and it is the place of most of light aviation.

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause, the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56°C.

Because of air density, the tropopause will be higher in warm air than in cold air.

Question 47

Q

In the lower stratosphere, the temperature is close to:

Answer

A

The tropopause’s temperature.

Explanation

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause, the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56ºC

The stratosphere begins above the tropopause up to a height of about 50,000 feet over the tropopause. In the stratosphere, pressure continues to decrease, but the temperature increases to reach approximately -3°C. The water vapour amount and the winds are very low. The stratosphere’s top. the stratopause, is higher at the poles and lower at the equator. At the stratopause, temperature begins to decrease again with altitude.

Question 48

Q

When reaching the tropopause, the environmental lapse rate changes from______to ____

Answer

A

Negative; neutral or positive.

Explanation

The troposphere is the atmosphere’s first layer. Its top can be from 28,000 feet ASL at the poles to 54,000 feet ASL at the equator. In the troposphere, pressure, density and temperature decrease quickly with altitude. Most weather phenomenons occur in the troposphere, and it is the place of most of light aviation.

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause, the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56°C.

Question 49

Q

What is associated with a trough of low pressure?

Answer

A

A cyclone, or low pressure system.

Explanation

A talweg (or barometric trough) corresponds to the low pressure line between two zones of high pressure. It is U-shaped. This phenomenon can accompany a gradual wind change.

A low pressure area is called “cyclone,” “depression” or “low pressure.” A depression is a zone where the pressure is relatively low and minimum value is in the centre.

Question 50

Q

With a tailwind, the CP (critical point) will move closer to the ______ point, and with a headwind it will move closer to the ______ point.

Answer

A

Departure; arrival.

Explanation

The critical point (CP) (or equal time point) is a point located on the flight track from which it will take the exact same time to fly back to the departure point or to continue to the arrival point.

The CP is calculated before departure and is used inflight in case of an emergency. It allows the pilot to quickly respond to a situation indicating if the pilot should continue to fly to the destination or come back to the departure point. If the problem occurs before the CP, the pilot should go back; if after, he/she should keep flying on the route.

If the wind is calm, the CP will be located at the midpoint between the departure point and the arrival point.

In case of tailwind, the CP will be closer to the departure point; in case of headwind, the CP will be closer to the arrival point: we say that the CP moves to the wind.

Note: Fuel is not taken into account in the calculation of the CP.

To determine the CP, calculate groundspeed using your aircraft’s true airspeed and the winds aloft.

In case of an engine failure, the groundspeed will be lower. In this case, you should take 60% of the normal cruise speed.

In the following formulas:

DCP = Distance of the CP in relation to the departure point
TCP = Time to arrive to the CP from the departure point
Dtt = Total distance of flight
GScr = Groundspeed between the departure point and the CP, and from the CP to the arrival point, passing through the CP
GScont = Groundspeed between the CP and the arrival point
GSret = Groundspeed between the CP and the departure point

DCP = (Dtt x GSret) / (GScont + GSret)

and

TCP = DCP/GScr

Question 51

Q

According to the following information, determine the distance and the time to the critical point in case of one engine failure:

Total distance of the flight: 1,800 NM
Aircraft endurance: 9 hours
TAS with all engines running: 400 knots
TAS with one engine inoperative: 240 knots
Tailwind: 50 knots

Answer

A

712.5 NM

1h 35mins

Question 52

Q

A new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” is valid:

Answer

A

Until the End Time quoted in the NOTAM.

Explanation

AIM, MAP 3.23.4: Item B) is mandatory and always contains a 10-digit date-time group expressed as YYMMDDHHMM. All dates and times are always in UTC. For example: 1910021300 means October 2, 2019. at 1300Z. Item C) is mandatory and can be presented in 3 forms:

C) YYMMDDHHMM - should be used when the end time is known precisely. The NOTAM will expire without human intervention when the time is reached.
C) YYMMDDHHMMEST - should be used when the end time is not known with certainty (for example, in the case of equipment outages). EST means estimated or approximate. When the end time is reached, if there is no human intervention, the NOTAM will remain intact. Therefore, the NOTAM must be revised (NOTAMR) or cancelled (NOTAMC) before the time is reached.
C) PERM - used when the NOTAM promulgates a permanent change to aeronautical information. Human intervention is required to remove the NOTAM. Therefore, the NOTAM must be revised (NOTAMR) or cancelled (NOTAMC) when the NOTAM is no longer needed.

Question 53

Q

_____ routes are low-level uncontrolled fixed RNAV routes.

Answer

A

L

Explanation

AIM, RAC 11.4.4: Published fixed RNAV routes can be flight planned for use by aircraft with RNAV capability, subject to any limitations or requirements noted on the en route charts, in applicable advisory circulars, or by NOTAM.

(a) Q-routes are high-level fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route High Altitude charts using black dashed lines and require an RNAV system with performance capabilities currently only met by GNSS or distance measuring equipment/inertial reference unit (DME/ DME/IRU) systems. DME/DME/IRU navigation may be limited in some parts of Canada owing to navigational facility coverage. In such cases, the routes will be annotated as “GNSS only” on the chart.
(b) T-routes are low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route Low Altitude charts using black dashed lines and require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The airspace associated with T-routes extends upward from 2 200 ft AGL, 10 NM either side of the centreline, and does not splay. The MOCA provides obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of the track centreline and does not splay.
(c) L-routes are low-level uncontrolled fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route Low Altitude charts using green dashed lines and require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The MOCA provides obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of the track centreline and does not splay. Magnetic reference bearing (MRB) is the published bearing between two waypoints on a fixed RNAV route and will be published within the SDA. The MRB is calculated by applying magnetic variation at the waypoint to the calculated true course between two waypoints. Pilots should use this bearing as a reference only, because RNAV systems will fly the true course between the waypoints.

Question 54

Q

High Level Airspace (HLA) with North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (NAT MNPSA) is between ______ and_____

Answer

A

FL285; FL420.

Explanation

AIM, NAT 1.19.1: The MNPS shall be applicable in chat volume of airspace between FL 285 and FL 420 within the OCAs of Bodo Oceanic, Gander Oceanic, New York Oceanic East, Reykjavik, Santa Maria, and Shanwick excluding the Brest Oceanic Transition Area (BOTA) and the Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA).

Question 55

Q

Within the NCA, flights operating on random routes shall plan their flights and make position reports as follows:

Answer

A

Explanation

AIM, RAC 11.4.5: Within the Northern Control Area (NCA), flights operating on random routes shall flight plan and make positions reports as follows:

(a) flights operating on predominately north or south tracks (315°T clockwise through 045°T or the reciprocals) shall report over reporting line points formed by the intersection of parallels of latitude spaced at 5° intervals expressed in latitude by whole degrees and meridians of longitude expressed in either whole degrees or whole and half degrees;
(b) south of 75°N latitude, flights operating on predominately east or west tracks (046°T clockwise through 134°T or the reciprocals) shall report over reporting line points formed by the intersection of either whole degrees or whole and half degrees of latitude coincident with each 10° of longitude. For flights operating north of 75°N latitude, where 20° of longitude is traversed in less than 60 min, reporting line points are to be defined by parallels of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes coincident with meridians of longitude at 20° intervals;
(c) as requested by ATS.

Question 56

Q

After an emergency landing, the pilot should switch ON the ELT:

Answer

A

As soon as possible and leave it on.

Explanation

AIM, SAR 3.5: Emergency locator transmitters(ELTs) in general aviation aircraft contain a crash activation sensor, or G-switch, which is designed to detect the deceleration characteristics of a crash and automatically activate the transmitter. However, it is always safest to place the ELT function switch to “ON” as soon as possible after the crash, if practicable.

Question 57

Q

The _____ is a primary radar.

Answer

A

TSR.

PAR.

ASDE

Weather Radar

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.1: PSR computes target positions by determining the range and azimuth of transmitted and reflected radio frequency energy. It is a passive surveillance system and therefore does not rely on information transmitted from the aircraft.

Primary radar is used in the following applications:

(a) TSR: In general, a short-range PSR (80 NM) operating on 1 250 to 1 350 MHz complements SSR for terminal operations.
(b) PAR: A high-definition, short-range PSR operating on 9 000 to 9 180 MHz and is used as an approach aid. PAR provides the controller with altitude, azimuth and range information of high accuracy to assist pilots in executing approaches. While PAR is mainly a military system, it is available at some civilian airports and may be used by civilian pilots. Civil aircraft approach limits are published in the CAP and the Restricted Canada Air Pilot (RCAP).
(c) ASDE: Surveillance of surface traffic is provided at airports where traffic warrants it. ASDE is a highdefinition PSR operating on 16 GHz. Tower controllers use ASDE to monitor the position of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring areas of the airport (runways and taxiways), particularly during conditions of reduced visibility.
(d) Weather radar: Weather radar is a PSR used by the Meteorological Service of Canada (MSC) to monitor for hazardous weather conditions.

Question 58

Q

ADS-B is a surveillance technology that:

Answer

A

Uses aircraft avionics, satellites and/or ground infrastructure to relay a range of aircraft parameters to ATC.

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.3: ADS-B is a surveillance technology that gives controllers the opportunity to provide radar-like services. It uses aircraft avionics, satellites and/or ground infrastructure to relay a range of aircraft parameters to ATC. The system is automatic since no external stimulus is required for operation, and dependent because it relies on aircraft avionics to provide surveillance services through broadcast messages.

Question 59

Q

Regarding a weather radar, echo intensity _____ as thunderstorm distance decreases.

Answer

A

increases

Explanation
The weather radar is a very effective instrument to spot thunderstorms. It detects and displays on screen any important meteorological phenomenon that is on the flight path. To do so. it precisely measures rain density in the target observed. It cannot detect turbulence, but precipitation intensity is a good way to know the turbulence strength in a thunderstorm cell.

Question 60

Q

On what kind of radar is the weather radar on board an aircraft based?

Answer

A

Primary radar.

Explanation

Weather radar uses the same principle as primary radar (PSR) and transmits on the SHF frequency range. Its antenna radiates a very narrow and highly directional beam ahead of the aircraft in the X-band of the radio spectrum.

Question 61

Q

When using the tilt management of the radar antenna in order to detect a thunderstorm, it is recommended to first target the ______ of the storm cell.

Answer

A

Lower area.

Explanation

Airborne weather radar is only able to detect targets detected by its beam. The beam covers only a small area (from 3 to 10°), tilt management of the radar antenna is then important to target wanted zones. It enables the pilot to control the antenna angle on the vertical plan.

For a better thunderstorm detection, it is recommended to first target the lower area of the storm cell.

Question 62

Q

What is identified by -V- in a high level chart?

Answer

A

A severe squall line.

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: (f) Severe squall lines—Severe squall lines are depicted using the symbol -V- and are oriented to true north with a representative length.

Question 63

Q

An airborne weather radar may be susceptible to a great reduction of its storm cell detection capabilities. This reduction is known as “attenuation” and can be caused by:

Answer

A

The large amount of ice that accumulates on the radome.

Explanation

Airborne weather radar is limited, based on conditions. When there is moisture near the aircraft, radar beams are scattered. Heavy rain zones block out the return of the radar echo, preventing the radar from detecting significant weather at some distance from the aircraft. This problem is called attenuation. This is encountered when ice or moisture is on the radome, when heavy water droplets are in the targeted cell storm or when the air in which the aircraft flies is very moist.

Question 64

Q

On the weather radar screen, level 3 represents an area of _____ rain, level 2 an area of medium rain, and level 1 an area of _____ rain.

Answer

A

Heavy; light.

Explanation

Weather radar computers can measure rainfall rate. Colour codes allowing the rainfall levels to be differentiated are then represented on che screen:

Green target: Level 1: light rain
Yellow target: Level 2: medium rain
Red target: Level 3: heavy rain

Answer 65

A

Skip zone.

Explanation

Regarding radio signals, a skip zone is a place between where ground waves end and reflected sky waves strike the Earth. In this zone, the receiver receives only erratic signals or no signals.

Answer 66

A

±5º; ± 10º

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.6: Accuracy: NDB systems are flight checked to an accuracy of at least ±5° for an approach and ±10° for en route.

Answer 67

A

Advise ATC immediately.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 6.3.3: The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in IFR flight within controlled airspace should report immediately to the appropriate ATC unit any malfunction of navigation or air-to-ground communications equipment.

Examples:

Loss of VOR, ADF or low frequency navigation capability - Complete or partial loss of ILS capability.*!}-; - Impairment of air-to-ground communications capability.^ -Impairment of transponder serviceability.

Having received this information, ATC will take into account any limitations in navigation or air-to-ground communications equipment in further clearances to the aircraft.

Answer 68

A

030°; 340°.

Answer 69

A

Explanation

You can determine a VHF radionav reception distance such as VOR with the following formula: Reception Distance (in NM) = 1.23 ‘’/Altitude AGL (in feet)

Here, reception distance is: 1.23 sqr(3,800) = 76 NM

Answer 70

A

10°; 2º

Answer 71

A

+/- 4°; +/- 6°.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.5.1: While standard avionics maintenance practices are used for checking aircraft VOR receivers, dual VOR equipment may be checked by tuning both sets to the same VOR facility and noting the indicated bearings sent to that station. A difference greater than 4s between the aircraft’s two VOR receivers indicates that one of the aircraft’s receivers may be beyond acceptable tolerance. In such circumstances, the cause of the error should be investigated and, if necessary, corrected before the equipment is used for an IFR flight.

AIM, COM 4.5.2: Aircraft VOR equipment may also be checked while airborne by flying over a landmark located on a published radial and noting the indicated radial. Equipment which varies more than 6° from the published radial should not be used for IFR navigation.

Answer 72

A

Montreal Trudeau VOR is not in service, and therefore you cannot use it.

Answer 73

A

4º

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.5.1: A difference greater chan 4= between the aircraft’s two VOR receivers indicates that one of the aircraft’s receivers may be beyond acceptable tolerance. In such circumstances, the cause of the error should be investigated and, if necessary, corrected before the equipment is used for an IFR flight.

Answer 74

A

5 minutes 30 seconds.

Explanation

VOR (time to the station) formula:

Time to the station (minutes) = Time (seconds) / Radial (degree)

Here: 2 minutes 30 seconds from radial 097 to radial 124.

150/27 = 5.55 = 5 minutes 30 secondes

Answer 75

A

It measures the phase difference between two transmitted signals.

The principle of the VOR is based on the phase difference between two transmitted signals.

Answer 76

A

The needle will first be to the right of the centre with the indication FROM, and then it will swing to the left as you fly abeam the station still with the FROM indication

Answer 77

A

You are over the station.

Explanation

When above a station, DME provide the vertical distance above the station, not the horizontal distance. All DME distances are in nautical miles.

Right-angle triangle with:

A = aircraft vertical height above ground
B = horizontal distance between the station and the aircraft position in relation to the ground
C = distance between the station and the aircraft position in the air

DME Distance = A2 + B2 = C2

Answer 78

A

UHF; secondary radar.

Explanation

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is an electronic transmitter/receiver that provides a seamless reading of the distance between the aircraft and a ground station. As a secondary surveillance radar, the DME requires equipment aboard the aircraft capable of returning a strong signal to the transmitter.

Distance measurement equipment (DME) and the glide slope of the ILS are navaids that both work on the ultra-high-frequency range (UHF), between 300 and 3,000 MHz.

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