12

Question 1

What is the maximum consecutive flight duty PERIODS that an air operator can assign to a flight crew member if a part of those periods falls between 02:00 and 05:59?

Answer 1

Five consecutive flight duty periods if the member is provided with a rest period of three hours in suitable accommodation during each flight duty period, and 56 consecutive hours free from duty at the end of the last consecutive flight duty period.

Explanation

CAR 700.51: (1) An air operator shall not assign to a flight crew member more than three consecutive flight duty periods if any part of those periods falls between 02:00 and 05:59. unless the air operator provides the member with one local nights rest at the end of the third flight duty period.

(2) However, an air operator may assign to a flight crew member up to five consecutive flight duty periods even if any part of those periods falls between 02.00 and 05:59 if the member is provided with
(a) a rest period of three hours in suitable accommodation during each flight duty period; and
(b) 56 consecutive hours free from duty at the end of the last consecutive flight duty period.

Question 2

A commuter operator shall provide each flight crew member with a rest period of at least ____in suitable accommodation if the flight duty period ends away from home base.

Answer 2

10 hours.

CAR 700.40

Question 3

No person shall operate an aircraft in an air taxi operation or a commuter operation unless the pilot seat and any seat beside the pilot seat are equipped with:

Answer 3

A safety belt that includes a shoulder harness.

CAR 703.69
CAR 704.68

Question 4

what are the weather minimums for a vfr flight within class E airspace?

Answer 4

The same as in class C airspace.

The same as in the controlled airspace.

The same as in class B airspace.

Explanation

car 601.02: (1) The class of any controlled airspace of a type referred to in subseccion 601.01(1) is one of the following, as specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook:

(a) Class A;
(b) Class B:

(0 Class C;

(d) class D;
(e) Class E;
(f) Class F special use Restricted; or
(g) Class F special use Advisory.

car 602.114: No person shall operate an aircraft in vfr flight within controlled airspace unless

(a) the aircraft is operated with visual reference to the surface;
(b) flight visibility is not less than three miles:

(0 the distance of the aircraft from cloud is not less than 500 feet vertically and one mile horizontally; and (d) where the aircraft is operated within a control zone.

(I) when reported, ground visibility is not less than three miles, and

(10 except when taking off or landing, the distance of the aircraft from che surface is not less chan 500 feet.

Question 5

Should an aircraft used in IMC in a commuter operation and carrying passengers have thunderstorm detection equipment or weather radar equipment on board?

Answer 5

Yes. if current weather reports or forecasts indicate that thunderstorms may be expected along the route to be flown.

Explanation
CAR 704.64: no person shall operate an aircraft with passengers on board in IMC when current weather reports or forecasts indicate that thunderstorms may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the aircraft is equipped with thunderstorm detection equipment or weather radar equipment.

Question 6

Which of the following is TRUE regarding an airline operation under ifr inside Canada?

Answer 6

no alternate aerodrome is necessary if the flight dees not exceed six hours of scheduled flight time from the aerodrome of intended landing.

Except when complying with the Safety Criteria for Approval of ETOPS Manual, the aircraft must carry sufficient fuel to descend at any point along the route to the lower of the one-engine-inoperative service celling or 10.000 feet asl, chen to cruise at this altitude to a suitable aerodrome. Then, to conduct an approach and a missed approach, and to hold for 30 minutes at an altitude of 1.500 feet above the elevation of the aerodrome selected.

CAR 705.25
CAR 725.35

Question 7

No person shall conduct a takeoff in an airline operated aeroplane if the weight of the aeroplane is greater than the weight that will allow the aeroplane to attain, with any engine inoperative, a net flight path that has a positive slope at _____ above all terrain and obstructions within _____on either side of the intended track, at all points along the route or planned diversion.

Answer 7

1.000 feet; 5 NM.

CAR 705.58

Question 8

To operate an aeroplane with 115 passengers on board in an airline operation _____ attendants) should be on each desk, unless given special authorization.

Answer 8

3

CAR 705.201

Question 9

Crew pairing restrictions in an airline operation establish minimum experience requirements for a flight crew. For example, those restrictions apply at the first transition from a ______ powered aeroplane to a ______ powered aeroplane.

Answer 9

turboprop; turbojet.

Reciprocating; turboprop.

Reciprocating; turbojet.

Explanation

CAR 725.108: (1) Crew pairing restrictions establish minimum experience requirements for a flight crew.

(2) Crew pairing restnccions apply when any of the following situations apply to either the pilot-in-command or the second-in-command when at the employ of an air operator:
(a) initial appointment to pilot-in-command or second-in-command;
(b) the first upgrade from second-in-command to pilot-in-command on any aeroplane type except the same aeroplane type;
(c) the first transition from a reciprocaang-powered aeroplane to a turbo-prop or turbo-jet powered aeroplane;
(d) the first transition from a turbo-prop-powered aeroplane to a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane;
(e) the first transition to an aeroplane whose control systems use a technology or present information in a manner that differs significantly in access, interpretation, or usage from that with which the pilot is familiar;
(f) upon completion of training on a second aeroplane type which is not covered by a common type rating regardless of previous experience, when the pilot will be flying both types of aeroplanes in service; or
(g) the transition to an aeroplane type on which the crew member has no previous experience.

Question 10

Without any renewal, a PPC expires on ____ in an airline operation.

Answer 10

The first day of the seventh month following the month in which the check was completed.

CAR 705.113:2) Subject to subsections (4) and (5). the validity period of a pilot proficiency check expires

(a) on the first day of the seventh month following the month in which the check was completed;
(b) on the first day of the thirteenth month following the month in which the check was completed, where the pilot successfully completes the six-month recurrency training that has been approved by the Minister, in accordance with the Commercial Air service Standards, as a substitute for the pilot proficiency check and that is identified in the company operations manual; or
(c) at the end of the validation penod. where the air operator has an operations specification authorizing an advanced qualification program in accordance with the Commercial Air service Standards and the pilot completes a proficiency evaluation within the evaluation period authorized for the air operator in the operations specification.

Question 11

In a commercial air service, when establishing routes in uncontrolled airspace, the air operator shall, for each route segment, establish the moca as follows:

Answer 11

For flight under IFR. a minimum altitude of 2OOO feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 10 miles from the centreline of route.

CAR 723.34
CAR 724.29
CAR 725.37

Question 12

An air operator must provide training to fiy at high altitudes to their flight crew members:

Answer 12

Before the first assignment on a pressurized aeroplane.

Every three years after the initial training.

Operating aeroplanes above 13.000 feet ASL

CAR 723.98
CAR 724.115
CAR 725.124

Question 13

The Transportation safety Board of Canada must be advised of any aviation accident:

Answer 13

as soon as possible thereafter and by the quickest means of communication available.

Explanation

Explanation
aim. GEN 333: The person making the report must send to the Board as soon as possible and by the quickest means available, all the information required that is available at the time of the occurrence; and the remainder of that information as soon as it becomes available within 30 days after the occurrence.

Question 14

When flying inside low-level airspace, if no transponder code has been given, which of the following codes should you squawk on your transponder?

Answer 14

1000

Explanation
aim. COM 8.3: During instrument flight rules (IFR) flight in controlled low level airspace other than that described in COM 8.2. adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A Code 1000. and on Mode C (if available), unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control (ATQ.

Question 15

in the _____ domestic airspace, runways are numbered in relation to their alignment with the _____ North.

Answer 15

Northern; true.

Explanation

aim. RAC 2.2.1: The Magnecic North Pole is located near the centre of che Northern Domestic Airspace, therefore magnetic compass indications may be erratic. Thus, in this airspace, runway heading is given in true and true track is used to determine cruising altitude for direction of flight in lieu of magnetic track.

Question 16

What is the speed limit to comply with below 10.000 feet asl?

Answer 16

250 KIAS.

Explanation

AIM. RAC 2.5.2: According to CAR 60232. no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada:

• below 10 OCX) feet asl at an indicated a rspeed of more chan 250 KT; or
• below 3 000 feet agl within 10 nm of a controlled airport at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 KT unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

Question 17

You are flying northbound at FL220 in the Southern control Area, what will be the next control area you enter?

Answer 17

The NCA.

AIM, RAC 2.6

Question 18

You are flying northbound at FL190 and you pass from the Southern Control Area to the Northern Control Area. To climb at FL210. you should:

Answer 18

Broadcastyour intentions on 126.7 before beginning your climb.

Question 19

Mmo IS:

Answer 19

The maximum operating Mach number

Explanation

Mach tuck is an aerodynamic effect where the aircraft nose cends to pitch downward as the airflow around the wing reaches supersonic speeds. The aircraft will first experience this effect below Mach 1; it then gradually increases as the speed is increasing above the critical Mach number (Merit), and becomes dangerous if the aircraft speed exceeds the maximum operating Mach number (Mmo).

Mmo is shown on the airspeed indicator by a barber pole.

Question 20

Class A airspace will be designated from ____ up to and including ____

Answer 20

The base of all high-level controlled airspace, or from 700 ft agl. whichever is higher; FL600

Question 21

What must you do to fly into a class F restricted airspace?

Answer 21

Obtain the user agency permission as defined in the Designated Airspace Handbook.

AIM, RAC 2.8.6

Explanation
aim. RAC 2.8.6: No person may conduce aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace, unless permission has been obtained from the user agency.

Question 22

During a flight in the altimeter setting region, your altimeter should be set to a station located at a maximum distance of _____NM of your aircraft.

Answer 22

150

Explanation
aim rac 2.10: En route - During flight the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or. where such stations are separated by more than 150 NM. che nearest station to the route of flight.

Question 23

If an air operator uses the SPLIT flight duty period system, he may extend the maximum flight duty period up to _____ hours if he gives 4 hours of rest period to the flight crew member.

Answer 23

60 minutes.

Explanation

CAR 700.50: (1) a flight crew members flight duty period may exceed the maximum flight duty period set out in seccion 700.2S by the following amount of time, if the air operator provides che member with a break, in suitable accommodation, of at least 60 consecutive minutes dunng the flight duty period:

(a) 100% of the duration of the break that is provided to the member during the period beginning at 24:00 and ending at 05:59;
(b) 50% of the duration of the break that is provided to the member dunng the period beginning at 06:00 and ending at 23:59; and

(0 in the case of an unforeseen operational circumstance. 50% of the duration of the break that is provided to the member in the case of the replanning of a flight duty period after it has begun.

Question 24

According to the wake turbulence category, the letter ____ is used to indicate a heavy aircraft, i.e. an aircraft type with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of _____ kg or more.

Answer 24

H; 136.000.

Explanation

aim. RAC 3.15.33: ICAO Wake Turbulence Category (one character):

INSERT one of the following letters to indicate the wake turbulence category of the aircraft: h (heavy) to indicate an aircraft type with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 136.000 kg (300.000 lbs) or more.

M (MEDIUM) to indicate an aircraft type with a maximum certificated take-off mass of less than 136.000 kg (300.000 lbs) but more than 7.000 kg (15.50O lbs).

L (LIGHT) to indicace an aircraft type with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 7.000 kg (15.500 lbs) or less.

Question 25

MF procedures such as frequency, distance and altitude to follow are given in the:

Answer 25

Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Canada water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).

Explanation

aim, RAC 4.5.4: For the aerodromes with an MF. the specific frequency, distance and altitude within which MF procedures apply will be published in the CFS.

Question 26

What are the two primary engine instruments to observe when starting a gas turbine engine?

Answer 26

The ITT and the high-pressure compressor.

Question 27

In a gas turbine engine, the purpose of the ____ in a centrifugal compressor is to convert the airflow velocity into pressure before delivering it to the combustion chamber.

Answer 27

Diffuser.

Explanation

in the centrifugal compressor, the a:r is first accelerated by the effect of centnfugal force caused by the diverging impeller. The accelerated air is compressed and then delivered perpendicularly to the compressor axis. The air is then routed to the diffuser (stationary component) to be straightened. The diffuser converts a part of the velocity into pressure (Bemoulll”s principle). The compressed air is then recovered and sent to the combustion chamber.

The advantage of this compressor is to offer a great rate of compression with only one step. Moreover, it is a robust compressor, on the other hand, it has a large frontal area, which is why it is primarily intended for low-powered turbojet engines (light and medium aeroplanes).

Question 28

In a turbine engine. ____ % of the total air is used in the combustion process and the correct fuel/air ratio is ____

Answer 28

30; 1:15.

Explanation

Not all the air entering the turbine engine chamber of combuscion is involved in the combustion process: only 30% of it is involved. The greacer amount of air (70%) is used to cool the combustion chamber by bypassing it and to redirect the flame in order to keep it in the centre of the chamber.

The correct fuel/air ratio for this type of engine is 1:15.

Question 29

When you open the waste gate of the engine turbocharger:

Answer 29

The exhaust gas bypasses the turbine and is discharged directly into the atmosphere.

The inlet pressure is reduced to ambient pressure.

The engine runs as if it were normally aspirated.

Explanation

Sometimes, the engine turbocharger does not need to run (for example at low altitude or at low power), in such cases, a waste gate located in the exhaust system exhausts gas directly into the atmosphere, bypassing the turbine wheel. The manifold pressure then decreases to the outside pressure and the engine works as a normally aspirated engine, when denser air is needed, the waste gate closes and the turbocharger starts.

Question 30

The effect of torque in a single-engine propeller aircraft will be greater in which of the following conditions?

Answer 30

Low airspeed, high power.

Explanation

Torque is stronger when the aeroplane airspeed is low. the power high and the angle of attack pronounced, it is in those conditions that gyroscopic effects of the propeller are the most important.

Question 31

Question 31

During the takeoff run. when the pilot raises the tail of his/her conventional gear aeroplane, there is a yaw to the ____ due to ____

Answer 31

Left; precession

Explanation

A rotacing propeller acts as a gyro, it is subject to the same laws: the gyroscopic inercia and the gyroscopic precession. During a tail wheel aeroplane takeoff run. the tail should be lifted before the takeoff. At this moment the gyroscopic effect causes a left yaw movement. This reaction can be illustrated by a force applied above the rotating propeller in order to lower the nose (and so lift the tail). Because of che gyroscopic precession, the force applies to the propeller wich an angle of 90º in the direction of its rotation, usually, propellers rotate clockwise, when seen from the cockpit. The force applies to the right of the propeller and pushes the aeroplane’s nose to the left.

By pulling on the control column to make the liftoff, the opposite occurs, still because of the gyroscopic precession of the propeller.

Question 32

If flying into icing conditions, where will ice first accumulate?

Answer 32

Antennas.

Explanation

Frost usually first appears on surfaces with slender leading edges: antennae, outside thermometers, propeller blades, horizontal stabilizers, rudders, gears, etc. Wings are the last thing on which frost appears.

Question 33

In a fuel tank, what is the magna stick?

Answer 33

A device that can be reached from the wings underside to manually measure fuel quantity when on the ground.

Explanation
Magnetic dipstick (or magna stick) is a device placed inside the fuel tank to provide an alternate manual means of measuring fuel quantity when on the ground, it consists of a calibrated rod (chat can be reached from the tank beneath), which slides within a cube extending vertically from the bottom of the fuel tank.

Question 34

In a Transport Category aeroplane, the transformer rectifier unit converts ___ current into ____ current, and the inverter converts ____ current into ____ current.

Answer 34

Alternative; direct; direct alternative.

Explanation

A transformer rectifier unit (TRU) Is used to convert alternative current (AC) into smooth direct current (DC), it is used, for example, in a battery charger.

a TRU combines two functions into one unit: transformer and rectifier. The TRU of an aircraft is generally supplied with 115 vac which is changed to a lower level by a transformer. Then, the tru converts it via a bridge rectifier assembly into 23 VDC. The output from the tru is then fed to the aircraft DC busbars.

Each tru has overheat and reverse current protections.

An inverter is an electronic device or circuitry that changes direct current (DC) (from sources such as batteries) to alternating current (AC).

Question 35

Consider an aircraft that has a hydraulic system which, when in use. has a normal operation pressure of 2.000 psi. For this aircraft, the nitrogen inside the accumulator is pre-compressed at 1.200 PSi. in normal use. after engine start, the accumulator pressure will be ____ PSi and the hydraulic system pressure will be ____ PSI.

Answer 35

2.000; 2.000.

Explanation

Hydraulic energy assists the pilot when he/she uses the ancillary controls like flaps, brakes or landing gear, in heavy aircraft, hydraulic energy is also used when the pilot acts on the primary controls.

The main components of the hydraulic system are. among others, the reservoir, the accumulator, the hydraulic lines, the hydraulic pump (driven by the engine [EDP]. by air pressure or electronically), the one-way valves and the actuators.

Generally, in heavy aircraft hydraulic energy is obtained with two main hydraulic circuits (each linked to a jet engine) and one alternate circuit that contains fluid, all connected to each other.

The accumulator is a cylinder mounted parallel to the hydraulic circuit, it is divided into two chambers by a piston or a membrane. One chamber is pressurized with nitrogen and the other is linked to the hydraulic circuit.

The accumulator purposes are. among others, to maintain pressure by storing energy in the form of compressed air (it would be impossible with hydraulic fluid, as it is incompressible), to provide a fluid supply under pressure in case of pump failure, to absorb pump shocks, to absorb fluid chocks in the hydraulic lines, etc.

For example, take an aircraft with a hydraulic system that, when in use. exerts a pressure of 2000 psi. in the aircraft, the nitrogen inside the accumulator is compressed at 1.600 psi. when the system is actuated, the fluid enters the accumulator and increases the pressure inside to 2000 psi. The nitrogen compresses to reach 2000 psi. When the hydraulic system is released, the nitrogen and fluid pressure inside the accumulator gradually decrease to 1.600 psi.

Question 36

Which of the following is true regarding the vacuum relief valve of a pressurized aeroplane?

Answer 36

It prevents ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by allowing external air to enter the cabin when ambient pressure exceeds cabin pressure.

The cabin air pressure safety valve is a combination of:

• A pressure relief valve: releases the air from the cabin to present the cabin pressure from exceeding the maximum differential pressure.
• A vacuum relief valve: pre;encs ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by allowing external air to enter the cabin when ambient pressure exceeds cabin pressure.
• A dump valve: allows the crew to dump the air in che cabin manually to the acmosphere.

Question 37

Whac is the purpose of fusible plugs on the tires of heavy aeroplanes?

Answer 37

Deflate the tires if they become too hot

Explanation

While braking after landing, the temperature of the braking system increases significantly. This increase in temperature spreads to all the parts in contact or near the braking system, it is how tires get too hot and burst, due to the pressure increasing. To avoid this, tires are equipped with fusible plugs. This device allows the tires to deflate before the pressure becomes too high.

Question 38

During a flight, a pilot notices that the oil pressure gauge shows zero but the oil temperature gauge remains inside the manufacturers standards. The pilot can therefore be sure that:

Answer 38

Explanation

Oil pressure and its temperature are strongly connected, a decrease in oil pressure should be translated into a temperature increase. When observing an oil pressure drop, but a constant temperature, the first thing we consider is an oil pressure gauge failure. But how can you know if the failure comes from the oil pressure gauge or from the oil temperature gauge? One of the two engine instruments does not work properly, but which one? in such a case, take the security seeps that apply as soon as possible.

Question 39

In a turboprop engine or a turboshaft engine, the torquemeter measures:

Answer 39

The engine power output

Explanation

a torquemeter is a device that measures a force or a torque. This device can be mechanical, hydraulic or digital.

The torquemeter measures the turboprop and turboshaft engine power output. To do so. it measures the twisting force applied to the shaft in order to make the propeller rotate. Torquemeters usually indicate this force in percentage units or in pounds per foot.

Question 40

Whac is the compass lubber line?

Answer 40

The line showing the aircraft heading on che compass.

Explanation
The lubber line is a line materialized on the magnetic compass binnacle indicating the aircraft longitudinal axis. The angle made by this line and the north direction indicated by the compass is the compass heading followed by the aircraft.

Question 41

When an aircraft acceleraces on an east heading, the acceleration error of the magnetic compass will first cause an error readout:

Answer 41

North.

Explanation
The magnetic compass is subject to acceleration and deceleration error when it follows an east or west heading.

Mnemonic:

ANDS: Acceleration North; Deceleration south.

Question 42

How does the airspeed indicator work?

Answer 42

It measures the difference between the static pressure and the pitot pressure.

Explanation

The airspeed indicator is an instrument that provides the aircraft airspeed, it measures the difference between the pitot pressure system and the static pressure system, when the aircraft is moving in the air. the dynamic pressure increases in the pitot pressure system, if the aircraft moves faster in the air, the dynamic pressure will be greater, and the airspeed indicator will indicate a higher value. Note that the pitot pressure source is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and the dynamic pressure.

Question 43

which of the following is TRUE regarding the Machmeter?

Answer 43

in a Machmeter. the same Mach number can correspond to different indicated airspeeds.

The Machmeter is an instrument that needs both an anemometric capsule and a barometric capsule.

The Machmeter is installed on aircraft flying at high speeds because the airspeed indicator becomes less effective when the flight reaches the critical Mach number.

Explanation

Because air properties are changing when an aircraft reaches its critical Mach number and during high-level flights, the airspeed indicator becomes less effecttve.

To address this problem, aircraft flying at speeds near or above the speed of sound are equipped with machmecers.

The machmeter gives an instantaneous value of che number of Mach for fast aircraft at high altitude (low temperature) by measuring the ratio between che aircraft’s true airspeed and its local speed of sound. This measurement is expressed in Mach number (Mach 1 means the aircraft is flying ac the speed of sound).

Mach number depends on the ambient temperature, but the machmeter measures pressure differentials.

The machmeter works thanks to a connection to the aircraft static pressure source and the total pressure source. The total pressure source is connected to an anemometric capsule (sensitive to the differences between static pressure and total pressure [true airspeed]). The anemometric capsule is inside a case that also concains a barometric capsule (sensitive to altitude variations). Both capsules are linked to a rod that transmits their deviation to the instrument needle.

Electronic machmeters are also using information from an air data computer.

The machmeter can be twinned with the airspeed indicator to give both the aircraft’s indicated airspeed and ics Mach number. This instrument is installed on most transport aircraft and can be used as a main instrument, or as an emergency instrument for aircraft equipped with electronic flight instrument systems (EFIS).

The machmeter is subject to antenna error: an error that involves the pitot tube (total pressure) and static ports.

Question 44

Whac is the scale used for the LO Enroute chart?

Answer 44

it is not the same sea e on all the charts.

Explanation
The LO Enroute navigation charts do not have the same scale: the scale is adapted to each chart (or chart series) to ease reading.

Question 45

On an aeronautical chart:

Answer 45

1 minute of atitude = 1 nm.

Explanation
Latitudes are measured in degrees, minutes and seconds. Each degree corresponds to 60 minutes. One minute of latitude equals approximately 1 nautical mile.

Question 46

From the following, what are the wind speed and direction?

• True track: 125ºT
• True heading: 132°T
• Groundspeed: 123 kts
• TAS: 112 ktS

Answer 46

256°T at 18 kts.

Question 47

What is the distance between these latitudes: N38°27’ and N39º12’?

Answer 47

52 SM.

Explanation

Latitudes are measured in degrees, minutes and seconds. Each degree corresponds to 60 minutes. One minute of latitude equals approximately 1 nautical mile. Here, there are 45 minutes between the two latitudes, i.e.. these two coordinates are about 45 NM apart.

1 NM = 1.15 SM

you can also use an electronic flight calculator.

Question 48

For each commuter category aeroplane, at each point along the takeoff path, starting at the point at which the aeroplane reaches 400 feet above the takeoff surface, the available gradient of climb must not be less than ____% for four-engine aeroplanes.

Answer 48

1.7

Explanation

CAR 523.57: (c) During the takeoff path determination, in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:

(1) The slope of the airborne part of the takeoff path must not be negative at any point:
(2) The aeroplane must reach V2 before it is 35 feet above the takeoff surface, and must continue at a speed as close as practical to. but not less than V2 until it is 400 feet above the takeoff surface;
(3) At each point along the takeoff path, starting at the point at which the aeroplane reaches 400 feet above the takeoff surface, the available gradient of climb must not be less than:
(l) 1.2 percent for two-engine aeroplanes;
(li) 1.5 percent for three-engine aeroplanes;

(III) 1.7 percent for four-engine aeroplanes; and

(4) Except for gear retraction and automatic propeller feathering, the aeroplane configuration must not be changed, and no change in power that requires action by the pilot may be made, until the aeroplane is 400 feet above the takeoff surface.

Question 49

Refer to images 1 and 2 in the Appendix.

you are approaching Runway 24 and the ATC informs you that winds are from 200. The runway Is covered with sanded packed snow. What is the maximum wind strength to land safely if using minimum braking?

Answer 49

52 kts

Explanation
Here, the difference between wind direction and runway in use is: 240 - 200 = 40s: the wind is then blowing with a 40s angle with the runway.

According to the expected range of CRFI by surface type figure, the CRFi in those conditions is 0.23. When you draw a straight vertical line from this CRFI ending on the line of the 40s crosswind component you see the maximum wind strength is 5 knots for a safe landing.

Question 50

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

According to the information below, determine the recommended landing distance with reverse thrust:

• Aircraft type: Turbojet
• Runway: 07 at CYOW
• Wind: Nil
• Landing field length on bare and dry runway: 2.000 feet
• Current CRFI: CYOW CRFI RWY 07/25 - 4C .35 1201191200

Answer 50

2.220 feet.

Explanation

The answer is the intersection between the given CRFi (0.35. on che top of the table) and the given Landing Field Length (2.000 feet) for a turbojet aircraft (60% factor, on the right of the table [refer to the paragraph 4 below]): 2.220 feet.

aim. air 1.6.7:1. The recommended landing distances in Table 2 are based on a 95 percent level of confidence. A 95 percent level of confidence means that in more than 19 landings out of 20. the stated distance in Table 2 will be conservative for properly executed landings with all systems serviceable on runway surfaces with the reported CRFi.
2. The recommended landing distances in Table 2 take into account the reduction in landing distances obtained with the use of discing and/or reverse thrust capability for a turboprop-powered aeroplane and with the use of reverse thrust for a turbojet-powered aeroplane. Table 2 is based on the landing distances recommended in Table 1 with additional calculations that give credit for discing and/or reverse thrust. Representative low values of discing and/or reverse thrust effect have been assumed, hence the data will be conservative for properly executed landings by some aeroplanes with highly effective discing and/or thrust reversing systems.
3. The recommended landing distances in CRFi Table 2 are based on standard pilot techniques for the minimum distance landings from 50 ft. including a stabilized approach at VRef using a glide slope of 3° to 50 ft or lower, a firm touchdown, minimum delay to nose lowering, minimum delay time to deployment of ground lift dump devices and application of brakes and discing and/or reverse thrust, and sustained maximum antiskid braking until stopped, in Table 2. the air distance from the screen height of 50 ft to touchdown and che delay distance from touchdown to the application of full braking remain unchanged from Table 1. The effects of discing/reverse thrust were used only to reduce the stopping distance from the application of full braking to a complete stop.
4. Landing field length is the landing distance divided by 0.6 (turbojets) or 0.7 (turboprops), if the AFM expresses landing performance in terms of landing distance, enter the Table from the left-hand column. However, if the AFM expresses landing performance in terms of landing field length, enter the Table from one of the right-hand columns, after first verifying which factor has been used in the AFM.

Question 51

You have applied a type iv de-icing fluid on your aircraft but ice has formed over the fluid. Can you take off?

Answer 51

No.

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.2: (c) The Clean Aircraft Concept: cars prohibit takeoff when frost, ice or snow is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft. This is referred to as •’The Clean Aircraft Concept”.

it is imperative that takeoff not be attempted in any aircraft unless the piloc-in-command has determined that all critical components of the aircraft are free of frost, ice or snow contamination. This requirement may be met if the pilot-m-command obtains verification from properly trained and qualified personnel that the aircraft is ready for flight.

Question 52

You are cruising at FL310 in an aeroplane that has fuel tanks inside the wings. After four hours of flight, you make a stopover at an airport where temperature is 5ºC and where relative humidity is high, you will take off within the next 15 minutes without adding any fuel. What should you do before taking off?

Answer 52

Check whether there is no ice on the wings by touching It with the bare hand just prior to closing the cabin door.

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.2: (e) The Cold-Soaking Phenomenon: where fuel tanks are locaced in the wings of aircraft, the temperature of the fuel greatly affects the temperature of the wing surface above and below these tanks. After a flight, the temperature of an aircraft and the fuel carried in the wing tanks may be considerably colder than the ambient temperature. An aircraft’s cold-soaked wings conduct heat away from precipitation so that, depending on a number of factors, clear ice may form on some aircraft, particularly on wing areas above the fuel tanks. Such ice is difficult to see and. in many instances, cannot be detected ocher than by touch with the bare hand or by means of a special purpose ice detector.

As well, cold-soaking can cause frost to form on the upper and lower wing under conditions of high relative humidity. This is one type of contamination that can occur in above freezing weather at airports where there is normally no need for de-icing equipment or where the equipment is deactivated for the summer. This contamination typically occurs where the fuel in the wing tanks becomes cold-soaked to below-freezing temperatures because of low temperacure fuel uplifted during the previous stop, or cruising at altitudes where low temperatures are encountered, or both, and a normal descent is made into a region of high humidity, in such instances, frost will form on the under and upper sides of the fuel tank region during the ground turn-around time, and tends to re-form quickly even when removed.

Question 53

Frost generally forms:

Answer 53

On an aircraft in flight when descent is made from below-freezing conditions to a layer of warm, moist air.

Question 54

SAE Type II fluids should be used on aircraft with rotation speeds:

Answer 54

Above 100 knots.

Explanation

aim. AIR 2.12.2: Flight tests performed by manufacturers of transport category aircraft have shown that most SAE and iso Type II fluids flow off lifting surfaces by rotation speeds (vr). although some large aircraft do experience performance degradation and may require weight or other takeoff compensation. Therefore. SAE and ISO Type II fluids should be used on aircraft with rotation speeds (Vr) above 100 kias. Degradation could be significant on aeroplanes with rotation speeds below this figure.

Question 55

Which of the following is true regarding freezing point depressant fluids?

Answer 55

as the ice melts, the freezing point depressant mixes with the water, thereby diluting the freezing point depressant.

Question 56

In 705 operation, should a personal safety briefing be given to a visually impaired person?

Answer 56

Yes

CAR 725.43:(1) Standard Safety Briefing

The standard safety briefing shall consist of an oral briefing provided by a crew member or by audio or audio-visual means in both official languages which includes the following information as applicable to the aeroplane, equipment, and operation:

(2) individual Safety Briefing

The individual safety briefing shall include:

(a) any information contained in the standard safety briefing and the safety features card that the passenger would not be able to receive during the normal conduct of that safety briefing; and
(b) additional information applicable to the needs of that person as follows:
(l) the most appropriate brace position for that passenger in consideration of his/her condition, injury, stature, and/or seat orientation and pitch;
(li) the location to place any service animal that accompanies the passenger;
(iv) for a visually impaired person:

(A) detailed information of and facilitating a tactile familiarization with the equipment that he/she may be required to use:

(B) advising the person where to stow his/her cane if applicable:

(C) che number of rows of seats between his/her seat and his/her closest exit and alternate exit;

(D) an explanation of the features of the exits; and

(E) if requested, a taccile familiarization of che exit;

(vii) for a passenger who is responsible for another person on board, information pertinent to the needs of the ocher person as applicable:

(A) in the case of an infant (i) seat belt instructions;

(li) method of holding infant for take-off and landing;
(ill) instructions pertaining to the use of a child restraint system;

(IV) oxygen mask donning instructions;

(V) recommended brace position; and

(VI) location and use of life preservers, as required.

(B) in the case of any ocher person

(I) oxygen mask donning instructions;

(li) instructions pertaining to the use of a child restraint system; and (ill) evacuation responsibilities;

Question 57

You are a pilot of a light aircraft and you intend to land on the runway of an airport where a heavy aircraft has just landed. To avoid its wake turbulence, you should plan your approach ____ that of the heavy aircraft and land _____ this aircraft’s touchdown point.

Answer 57

Above; after.

Explanation
aim. air 2.9.2: When behind a large aircraft landing on the same runway, stay at or above the preceding aircrafts final approach flight path, note the touchdown point and land beyond this point if it is safe to do so.

Question 58

How can a commercial flight be authorized?

Answer 58

In accordance with the company’s operations manual.

Explanation
CAR 702.13,703.17 and 704.16: No person shall commence a flight unless the flight has been authorized in accordance with the procedures specified in the air operators company operations manual.

Question 59

in flight, volcanic ashes cannot be located with:

Answer 59

Aviation radars.

Explanation

aim. air 2.6: Aviation radar is not effective in detecting volcanic ash clouds. There is no reliable information regarding volcanic ash concentrations which might be minimally acceptable for flight.

St. Elmo’s fire is usually a telltale sign of a night encounter, although rapid onset of engine problems may be the first indication. Pilots should exit the cloud expeditiously while following any engine handling instructions provided in the aircraft flight manuals for such circumstances.

Pilots should be aware that they may be the first line of volcanic eruptions detection in more remote areas, in the initial phase of any eruption there may be little or no information available to advise pilots of the new ash hazard, if an eruption or ash cloud is obsen;ed. an urgent pirep (see met 2.5 and 3.17) should be filed with the nearest ATS unit.

Question 60

An isolated thunderstorm is in close proximity to your aerodrome of intended landing. You should:

Answer 60

Hold over a known point clear of the thunderstorm until It is well past the aerodrome.

Explanation

aim. air 2.7.2: Above all, never think of a thunderstorm as light” even though the radar shows echoes of light intensity. Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Remember that vivid and frequent lightning indicates a severe activity in the thunderstorm and that any thunderstorm with tops 35 OCX) ft or higher is severe.

whenever possible:

• don’t land or take off when a thunderstorm is approaching. The sudden wind shift of the gust front or lew level turbulence could result in loss of control;
• don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm even when you can see through to the other side. Turbulence under the storm could be disastrous:
• avoid any area where thunderstorms are covering 5/8 or more of that area;
• don’t fly into a cloud mass containing embedded thunderstorms without airborne radar;
• avoid by at least 20 NM any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving intense radar returns. This includes the anvil of a large cumulonimbus; and
• clear the top of a known or suspected severe thunderstorm by at least 1 000 ft altitude for each 10 kt of wind speed at the cloud top.

Question 61

Roll upset describes a(n) rolling moment caused by airflow separation ____

Answer 61

uncommanded; in front of the ailerons.

Explanation

AIM. AIR 2.12.3.3: Roll upset describes an uncommanded and possibly uncontrollable rolling moment caused by airflow separation in front of the ailerons, resulting in self-deflection of unpowered control surfaces, it is associated with flight in icing conditions in which water droplets flow back behind the protected surfaces before freezing and form ridges that cannot be removed by de-icing equipment. Roll upset has recently been associated with icing conditions involving large super-cooled droplets; however, it theoretically can also occur in conventional icing conditions when temperatures are just slightly below 0°C.

Question 62

how would you avoid tailplane stall during a flight in icing conditions?

Answer 62

• Plan the approach with minimum flap setting
• if symptoms occur shortly after flap extension, immediately retract the flaps to the previous setting
• if equipped with a pneumatic de-icing system, operate several times to attempt to clear ice from the tailplane

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.3.4: Symptoms of incipient tail plane stall may include:
(a) abnormal elevator control forces, pulsing, oscillation, or vibration;
(b) an abnormal nose-down tnm change (may not be detected if autopilot engaged);
(c) any ocher abnormal or unusual pitch anomalies (possibly leading to pilot induced oscillations):
(d) reduction or loss of elevator effectiveness (may not be detecced if the autopilot is engaged);
(e) sudden change in elevator force (control would move down if not restrained); and/or
(f) a sudden, uncommanded nose-down pitch.

Corrective Actions: if any of the above symptoms occur, the pilot should consider the following actions unless the aircraft flight manual dictates otherwise:

1. Plan approaches in icing conditions with minimum flap settings for the conditions. Fly the approach on speed for the configuration.
2. if symptoms occur shortly after flap extension immediately retract the flaps to the previous setting, increase airspeed as appropriate to the reduced setting.
3. Apply sufficient power for the configuration and conditions. Observe the manufacturers recommendations concerning power settings. HIGH POWER settings may AGGRAVATE tail plane stall in some designs.
4. Make any nose-down pitch changes SLOWLY, even in gusting conditions, if circumstance allow.
5. if equipped with a pneumatic de-icing system, operate several times to attempt to clear ice from the tail plane.

Question 63

What is vref?

Answer 63

The landing reference speed.

Explanation

aim. GEN 1.7: vref: Landing reference speed.

Question 64

Whac is one of the advantages of a sweepback wing?

Answer 64

To increase critical Mach number.

Explanation

The advantages of sweepback wings are not only lateral and directional stability: they also delay the formation of shock wave at high speed by presenting a longer chord to the airflow than a conventional wing. The critical Mach number will be higher.

Question 65

Refer to image 7 in the Appendix.

Which runway(s) should be used for a landing at Kingston Airport (CYGK) under the following conditions:

• EWH of the aircraft: 15 feet -Wind: Nil

Answer 65

19.

Explanation

aim. aga 7.6.4.3: papi and apapi installations are designed for aircraft height group categories ap. P1. P2 and P3. as indicated in Table 7.2. The greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, the farther the papi is installed upwind from the threshold to provide the appropriate meht.

Refer to the table.
© Her Majesty the Queen in Right of Canada, represented by the Minister of Transport (2021). This information has been reproduced with the permission of Transport Canada.

Question 66

Can an aircraft be operated in an airline operation without a flight attendant on board?

Answer 66

Yes. if no passenger is on board.

Explanation

CAR 705.201: (1) No air operator shall operate an aeroplane to carry passengers unless the a r operator does so with the minimum number of flight attendants required on each deck.

(2) Subject to subsections (4) to (7). the minimum number of flight attendants required on each deck of an aeroplane is determined in accordance with one of the following ratios that is selected by che air operator in respect of the model of that aeroplane:
(a) one flight attendant for each unit of 40 passengers or for each portion of such a unit: or
(b) one filghc attendant for each unit of 50 passenger seats or for each portion of such a unit.

Question 67

Which of the following is true when a fuel jettisoning system is required in a turbine engine powered-aircraft?

Answer 67

The dumped fuel or fumes must not enter any parts of the aircraft,

If the aircraft is not equipped with an auxiliary jettisoning control, means must be provided to prevent the fuel from the tanks used for take-off and landing from being drained in flight below a fuel level required to climb from sea level to 10.000 feet and 45 minutes of cruising at a speed corresponding to the maximum range.

No jettisoning control may be near any fire extinguisher or other control used to combat fire

Explanation

CAR 525.1001: (a) A fuel jettisoning system must be installed on each aeroplane unless it is shown that the aeroplane meets the climb requirements of 525.119 and 525.121(d) at maximum take-off weight, less the actual or computed weight of fuel necessary for a 15 minute flight comprised of a take-off. go-around. and landing at the airport of departure with the aeroplane configuration, speed, power, and thrust the same as that used in meeting the applicable take-off. approach, and landing climb performance requirements of this chapter.

(b) if a fuel jettisoning system is required it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within 15 minutes, starting with the weight given in paragraph (a) of this section, to enable the aeroplane to meet the climb requirements of 525.119 and 525.121(d). assuming that the fuel is jettisoned under the conditions, except weight, found least favourable during the flight tests prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Fuel jettisoning shall be demonstrated beginning at maximum take-off weight with flaps and landing gear up and in:
(1) A power-off glide at 1.3 V5R1;
(2) A climb at the one-engine inoperative best rate-of-climb speed, with the critical engine inoperative and the remaining engines at maximum continuous power; and
(3) Level flight at 1.3 VSR1; if the results of the tests in the conditions specified in paragraphs (c)(1 ) and (2) of this section demonstrate that this condition could be critical.
(d) During the flight tests prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, it must be shown that
(1) The fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard;
(2) The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane;
(3) Fuel or fumes do not enter any parts of the aeroplane; and
(4) The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.
(e) For reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes, means must be provided to prevent jettisoning the fuel in the tanks used for take-off and landing below the level allowing 45 minutes flight at 75 percent maximum continuous power. However, if there is an auxiliary control independent of the main lettisoning control, the system may be designed to lettison the remaining fuel by means of the auxiliary letasoning control.
(f) For turbine engine powered aeroplanes, means must be provided to prevent jettisoning the fuel in the tanks used for take-off and landing below the level allowing climb from sea level to 10.000 feet and thereafter allowing 45 minutes cruise at a speed for maximum range. However, if there is an auxiliary control independent of the main jettisoning control, the system may be designed to jettison the remaining fuel by means of the auxiliary jettisoning control.
(g) The fuel jettisoning valve must be designed to allow flight personnel to close the valve during any part of the jettisoning operation.
(h) unless it is shown that using any means (including flaps, slots, and slats) for changing che airflow across or around the wings does not adversely affect fuel jettisoning, there must be a placard, adjacent to the jettisoning control, to warn flight crew members against jettisoning fuel while the means that change the airflow are being used.

(I) The fuel jettisoning system must be designed so that any reasonably probable single malfunction in the system will not result in a hazardous condition due to unsymmetrical jettisoning of. or inability to jettison, fuel.

RAC 525.1161: Each fuel jettisoning system control must have guards to prevent inadvertent operation. No control may be near any fire extinguisher control or other control used to combat fire.

Note: since che dumped fuel is not pumped but delivered by gravity feed. The dump rate is not constant and depends on the amount of fuel inthe tanks.

Question 68

During a uniform climb in ISA. you maintain a constant CAS. Which of the following is true?

Answer 68

The Mach number and the TAS increase.

Explanation

in the following formula, you can see that TAS. Mach number and temperature depend on each other: TAS = 39 x M sqr T

For example, if the temperature decreases (this is what happens during a climb in the ISA), the tas decreases too. Or if the temperature decreases but the Mach number increases, the tas may keep the same value. Easy methods to know which speeds decrease or increase based on the current conditions are:

• During a climb with a decreasing temperature: (-ECTM+)

With: E = EAS; C = CAS; T = TAS: M = Mach

if one speed is consistent, the left speed(s) are decreasing and the right speed(s) are increasing.

• During a climb with an increasing temperature (in case of inversion): (-ECMT+)
• During a climb with a constant temperature (in case of isothermal layer): in this case. Mach and TAS will do the same.
• During a descent, you just have to reverse “+” and “-“ and (+ECTM-)

Question 69

The _____ drag is inversely proportional to the square of the aircraft speed.

Answer 69

induced.

Airfoil drag is expressed by the following formula: Cd x 1/2. p V^2x S

•Cd” stands for the drag coefficient. ”p” stands for the air density. ‘V^2’ stands for the square of the true airspeed, and “S” stands for the airfoil plan area.

With this formula, you can see drag is proportional to the square of the airspeed.
By analyzing the curve in the Flight Training Manual. Exercise 10: Flight for Range and Endurance, you can see that the induced drag is inversely proportional to the square of the speed.

Question 70

What is the boundary layer?

Answer 70

A very thin sheet of air that tends to adhere to the surface of the wing.

Explanation
The boundary layer is a very thin air layer ccvering all the aircraft surfaces moving in the air. Air. being viscous, tnes to adhere to surfaces. The boundary layer plays an important part in the upper lifting surfaces of the aircraft (including lift and drag). A boundary layer that is smooth and regular and follows the wing profile camber is called a “laminar layer.”

Question 71

Which of the following aeroplanes will produce the weaker wing tip vortices?

Answer 71

An aeroplane having high aspect ratio wings and flying at high speed.

Explanation

The aspect ratio of a wing is the relation existing between its length (or span) and its width (or chord), it equals the span divided by the lifting surface. Compared to a wing with a small aspect ratio, a wing with a large aspect ratio will create more lift and less induced drag.

aim. AIR 2.9: The strength of these vortices is governed by the shape of the wings, and the weight and speed of the aircraft the most significant factor is weight. The greatest vortex strength occurs under conditions of heavy weight, clean configuration, and slow speed.

Question 72

Which of the following is a type of hypoxia?

Answer 72

Not enough blood in the brain.

Lack of oxygen in the blood.

Too much carbon monoxide in hemoglobin.

Explanation

aim, AIR 3.2.1: The literal definition of hypoxia is low oxygen”. Therefore, hypoxia implies a lack of sufficient oxygen for the body to operate normally, its onset is insidious and may be accompanied by a feeling of well being, known as euphoria. Even minor hypoxia impairs night vision and slows reaction time. More serious hypoxia interferes with reasoning gives rise to unusual fatigue and. finally, results in a loss of consciousness. Hypoxia is classified into four different types; all are relevant to pilots and merit consideration.

• Hypoxic hypoxia: hypoxic hypoxia is the result of low oxygen levels in the bloodstream.
• Anaemic hypoxia: oxygen in blood is carried by haemoglobin, which is found in red blood cells. When the red blood cell count decreases, or the haemoglobin does not function properly, less oxygen can be carried by the blood.
• ischaemic hypoxia/scagnant hypoxia: the term ischaemia refers to inadequate supply of blood, and ischaemic hypoxia occurs when there is inadequate Wood flow to body tissues.
• Histotoxic hypoxia: histotoxic hypoxia refers to an inability of the cells of the body to use the oxygen available.

Question 73

You are in the base leg of a circuit where the winds are strong and come from your 6 o’clock. When you turn in the final leg. you will have the feeling ____ bringing you to ___

Answer 73

Of skidding; put the rudder in the direction of the turn.

Explanation
in a tun from downwind to upwind the aircraft seems to skid outward, although the ball is cencred. This is an illusion, but the drift is real and ample room must be allowed between the aircraft and obstructions on the outside of the turn.

Question 74

If a pilot consumes alcohol or drugs, he/she may not fly during a period of ____ hours, or while he/she is still under the influence.

Answer 74

12

Explanation

CAR 602.03: No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft

(a) within 12 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage;
(b) while under the influence of alcohol; or

(0 while using any drug that impairs the person’s faculties to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or of persons on board the aircraft is endangered in any ways

Question 75

What is the first symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?

Answer 75

Difficulty concentrating

Explanation

aim. air 3.2.2: The symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are insidious, initially, there is an inability to concentrate, thinking becomes blurred, and subsequently dizziness and headache develop, if any of these symptoms are noticed, pilots should turn off the heater, open the air ventilators and descend to a tower altitude if it is safe to do so. if oxygen is available, it should be used, if an exhaust leak is suspected, the pilot should land che aircraft as soon as possible.

Question 76

Complete the following personal pre-flight verification method:

IMSAFE

Answer 76

I: Ilness (disease)
Medication; 
stress; 
Alcohol; 
Fatigue.
Eating (food)

Question 77

Which of the following is a leading cause of communication errors between a flight crew and the atc?

Answer 77

The use of non-standard and/or ambiguous phraseology.

Explanation

The recent survey from the IATA earned out with more than zooo amine pilocs. found chat the use of non-standard and/or ambiguous phraseology between atc and crew members was one of the biggest communication issues. Ambiguous messages consist of words or sentences with more chan one meaning.

To reduce ambiguity, crew members and controllers should use aviation scandard terminology.

Question 78

Refer to images 4 to 6 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance:

• Runway: wee (reporting braking action: good to medium)
• Brake use: autobrake 1
• Landing gross weight: 40.000 Kg -Airport elevation: 1.350 ft
• Head/tail winds: 5 kts tailwind
• Runway gradient: Nil
• OAT: ISA - 15°C
• Approach speed: Vrefi 5 - 10 kts
• Reverse thrust: use of both
• Flaps: 15
• Speedbrakes: auto

Answer 78

9218 feet.

Question 79

which of the following resources are taken into account in the CRM?

Answer 79

The aircraft and its systems
Computer software 
Printed materials 
The cockpit crew
Anyone who may interact with the cockpit crew

Question 80

While in flight in an airline operation, you are at the halfway point of your “before landing” checklist when you receive a call from the ATC. What should you do in order to not miss any items of your checklist?

Answer 80

Hold your finger on the last item performed, answer the ATC. then resume the checklist.