11 Flashcards
Low-level airways may be classified as Class ____ airspace.
E
AIM, RAC 2.8.5
Except for fire fighting, no person shall operate an aircraft in the airspace below ____ft agl within _____nm of the limits of a forest fire area.
3.000; 5.
AIM, RAC 2.9.2
When taking off from an aerodrome located in the standard pressure region and climbing to the cruising attitude also in the standard pressure region, the altimeter should be:
Sec to 29.92”Hg immediately prior to reaching(BEFORE) the flight level at which flight is to be conducted.
AIM, RAC 2.11
a pilot is planning a flight from an airport in the standard pressure region to another airport also in the standard pressure region, when should he/she set its altimeter to 29.92’Hg if its planned altitude is 10.000 feet asl?
just prior to reaching 10.000 feet
AIM, RAC 2.11
A ____is a document attesting to an aircraft’s fitness for flight.
Certificate of airworthiness.
CAR 101.01
The standard ATF frequency in use in an uncontrolled airport where there is no MF or ATF is:
123.2 MHZ.
AIM, RAC 4.5.1
A pilot intercepted in flight should:
Attempt to establish radio communication on 243.0 mhz.
Attempt to advise the appropriate air traffic services unit of the intercepcion.
Follow the radio instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.
AIM, SAR 4.7
To fly at night with passengers on board, a private pilot in possession of a night rating must have performed at least_____ takeoffs and landings in the last ___months.
5 night; 6.
CAR 401.05
What is a flight crew member on:
- call
- reserve
- standby
- A filght crew member on call is a person who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less.
- A filght crew member on reserve is a person who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of more than one hour.
- A filght crew member on standby is a person who has been designated by an air operacor OR private operator to remain at a specified location in order to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less.
CAR 101.01
A large aircraft” may be defined as an aeroplane having a maximum permissible takeoff weight in excess of 5700 kg.
5700
CAR 601.01
A controlled airspace is an airspace:
What are the types of controlled airspace?
What are the classes of controlled airspace?
Within which instruction or clearance can be given by ATC.
car 101.01: Air traffic control clearance: means an authorization issued by an air traffic control unit that authorizes an aircraft to proceed within controlled airspace in accordance with the conditions specified by that unit; (automation du contrOle de la circulation aerienne)
Air traffic control instruction: means a directive issued by an air traffic control unit for a’r traffic control purposes; (Instructions du contrdle de la circulation aerienne)
Types:
car 601.01: Controlled airspace consists of the following types of airspace:
(a) the Arctic Control Area (ACA). Northern Control Area (NCA) and Southern Control Area (SCA);
- high level airspace;
- high level airways;
- low level airspace;
- low level airways:
- fixed RNAV routes;
- terminal control areas;
- military terminal control areas;
- control area extensions;
- transition areas;
- control zones:
- restricted airspace;
- advisory airspace;
- military operations areas: and
- danger areas.
Classes:
car 601.02; The class of any controlled airspace of a type referred to in subsection 601.01(1) is one of the following, as specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook:
- Class A;
- Class B;
- Class C;
- Class D;
- Class E;
- Class F special use Restricted; or
- Class F special use Advisory.
Whac restriction applies to an aircraft flying IFR inside Class F airspace?
The aircraft must be operated under atc clearance.
CAR 601.05
SOME portable electronic devices, like cellphones:
Shall not be used on board as they may impair the functioning of the aircrafts systems or equipment.
CAR 602.08
The aircraft engine(s):
Shall not be started unless the pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is capable of controlling the aircraft.
Explanation
CAR 602.10: No person shall start an engine of an aircraft unless a pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control che aircraft
Under IFR. which of the following must be read back to the atc?
instructions to hold short of a runway when taxiing.
car 60231: (1) Subject to subseccion (3). che pilot-in command of an aircraft shall
(a) comply with and acknowledge, to the appropriate air traffic control unit, all of the air traffic control instructions directed to and received by the pilot-in-command; and
(b) comply with all of the air traffic control clearances received and accepted by the pilot-m-command and
(1) subject to subsection (2). in the case of an ifr flight, read back to the appropriate air traffic control unit the text of any air traffic control clearance received, and
(li) in the case of a vfr flight, read back to che appropriate air traffic control unit the text of any air traffic control clearance received, when so requested by the air craffic control unit
(2) Except if requested to do so by an air traffic control unit, the piloc-m-command of an ifr aircraft is not required to read back che text of an air craffic control clearance pursuant to paragraph (i)(bxi) where
(a) the air traffic control clearance is received on the ground by the pilown-command before departing from a controlled aerodrome in respect of which a standard instrument departure procedure is specified in the Canada Air Pilot; or
When flying from the altimeter setting region to the standard pressure region, when should your altimeter be reset to 29.92”Hg?
just after the aircraft’s entry into the Standard Pressure Region.
Explanation
CAR 60237: Except where otherwise authorized by an air traffic control unit, each flight crew member who occupies a flight crew member position that is equipped with an altimeter shall:
- when flying from the altimeter-setting region into the standard pressure region, set the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury or 1.013.2 millibars IMMEDIATELY AFTER the aircraft’s entry into the standard pressure region; and
- when flying from the standard pressure region into the altimeter-setting region, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or, where the nearest stations along the route of flight are separated by more than 150 nautical miles, the altimeter setting of a station near the route of flight IMMEDIATELY BEFORE the aircrafts entry into the altimeter-setting region.
What is required to fly in an air taxi operation for a day VFR flight over water at 220 NM from the coast?
An individual flotation device for each passenger.
Life rafts with a total capacity sufficient for all the people on board.
A life preserver for each person on board.
CAR 602.62
CAR 602.63
Which of the following is true about flight itineraries?
A flight itinerary can be filed with a responsible person instead of an air traffic control unit.
Explanation
CAR 602.75: A flight Itinerary shall be filed with a responsible person, an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio station.
What is the minimum visibility for flying SVFR in a control zone?
1sm visibility
CAR 602.117
You wish to take off from an uncontrolled aerodrome, twinned with an FSS. Before departing, you have to ask for clearance from the FSS:
If the ESCAT plan is in place
Explanation
CAR 602.146:7he pilot-in-command of an aircraft who is notified by an air traffic control unit of the implementation of the ESCAT Plan shall:
• Before take-off. obtain approval for the flight from the appropriate air traffic control unit or flight service station.
Refer to images 1 to 3 in the Appendix.
According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance:
- Runway: Wet (reported braking action: medium to poor)
- Brake use: autobrake 2
- Landing gross weight: 75.000 Kg
- Airport elevation: 4.000 ft
- Head/tail winds: 20 kts headwind
- Runway gradient: Nil ■ OAT: ISA
- Approach speed: vref40
- Reverse thrust: One reverse used
- Flaps: 40
- Speedbrakes: manual
11.060 feet.
Explanation
in order to determine che landing distance using the performance tables provided in the appendices, you must first identify the appropriate line for your situation in order to obtain a reference distance.Once the line has been identified and the reference distance found, the necessary adjustments must be made by following this line from left to right.
in this question, we have a wet runway (with medium to poor reported braking action), with the flaps set to 40 and che use of che “autobrake 2” brakes.
Looking at the cable in image 3. we see that under these conditions the reference distance for a mass of 65.000 kg is 8.990 feet. With this reference distance, we will now make the adjustments corresponding to the conditions outlined in the quescion.
First of all. the weight adjustment, we can see here that for every 5.000 kg above the reference weight. 550 feet must be added. Since we are 10.000 kg above the reference weight, we add 1.100 feet, which gives us 10.090 feet.
we then apply the terrain elevation adjustment, we can see in the footnotes of the table that che standard value should be used between o and 8.000 feet which is 260 feet per 1.000 feet. For an elevation of 4.000 feet we will add 1.040 feet to our distance (260 x 4), which gives us 11.130 feet.
we will now apply the wind adjustment. We can see that we have to subcract 470 feet for every 10 knocs of headwinds, which equals to 940 feet (2 x 470). Our new distance will be 10.190 feet.
Because only one reverse is used, we have to add 700 feet to our distance resulting in 10.890 feet.
Finally, we can see chat the speed brakes are set to “Manual* so as mentioned in the footnotes below the cable we have to add 170 feet to our distance, which gives a distance of 11.060 feet.
Since che ocher conditions in the quescion are standard, the total landing distance will be 11.060 feet.
When an unpressurized aircraft is flying between 10.000 and 13.000 feet asl with 20 passengers on board. ____ oxygen mask(s) shall be available for those passengers.
2
Explanation
CAR 60531: Oxygen equipment and supply is only required for flight at more than 10.000 feet ASL for a period greacer than 30 minutes.
Refer to the table.
The flight data recorder required in some aircraft must operate:
From the start of the takeoff until the completion of the landing.
Explanation
CAR 605.34: (1) Except where otherwise permitted in this section, no person shall operate an aircraft for which a flight data recorder or cockpit voice recorder is required by these Regulations unless
(a) in the case where a flight data recorder is required, the flight data recorder is operated continuously from the start of the take-off until the completion of che landing; and
(b) in the case where a cockpit voice recorder is required, che cockpit voice recorder is operated continuously from the time at which eleccrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.
Could you fly a turbojet-powered aeroplane in a commuter operation with a MCTOW greater than 5.700 kg if this aeroplane were operated in the USA on October 10.1995. in a commercial air service?
Yes. if this aeroplane is equipped with a third attitude indicator.
Explanation
CAR 605.41: (1) No person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part VII without a third attitude indicator that meets the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aeroplane
(a) has a MCTOW of less than 5 700 kg (1Z566 pounds): and
(b) was operated in Canada in a commercial air service on October 10.1996.
Every owner of an aircraft shall preserve the Aircraft journey Log for:
One year after the date of the last entry in the log.
Explanation
CAR 605.94: (3) The owner of an aircraft shall retain every entry in a journey log for a period of not less than one year.
Which of the following will help to prevent CFIT?
using the stabilized final approach technique.
Explanation
aim. air 2.16.1: Controlled Flights into Terrain (CRT) continue to be a major threat to cMl aviation safety in Canada. A stabilized final approach during an npa has been recognized by the icao CFIT Task Force as an aid to present CFiT. The step-down technique presumed by npa procedure design may have been appropriate for early piston transport aircraft, but it is less suited to larger jet transport aircraft.
when using che step-down technique, the aircraft files a senes of vertical descents dunng the final approach segment as it descends and levels off at the minimum ifr altitudes published for each segment of the approach. The successive descents and level-offs result in significant changes in power settings and pitch attitudes and for some aircraft, may present che landing configuration from being established until landing is assured, using che step-down technique, the aircraft may have to be flown at minimum ifr altitudes for each segment of the approach and consequently be exposed to reduced obstacle separation for excended periods of time, a premature descent or a missed level-off could render che aircraft vulnerable to a CFIT accident.
Many air operators require their flight crews to use a stabilized approach technique which is entirely different from that envisaged in the onginal npa procedure design. The stabilized approach is calculated to achieve a constant race of descent at an approximate 3° flight path angle with stable airspeed, power setting, and attitude, and also with the aircraft configured for landing. The safety benefits derived from the stabilized final approach have been recognized by many organizations including icao. the faa and TCCA. Those air operators not already doing so are encouraged to incorporate stabilized approach procedures into their sops and training syllabi.
CAUTION: Caution should be exercised when descending below the mda while following an FMS-generated vertical path, unlike vertically guided approaches, which have their ocss verified below che da. ocss on lnav procedures below the MDA have NOT been assessed, as a result, obstacles may penetrate the computer-generated flight path. Pilots are reminded to visually scan for obstacles before descending below the MDA.
vasi and papi are calibrated for a defined geometric vercical path angle, in cold temperatures, a non-temperature compensated barometric FMS-generaced vertical path may be lower than that of a calibrated vasi or papi. in high temperatures, a barometric FMS-generated vertical path will be higher chan chat of a calibrated vasi or papi. Pilots should be aware of this limitation and operate accordingly
When a portion of compressor air is used to drive the cabin air conditioning system, thrust of the gas turbine engine ____ and temperature in the turbine ____.
Decreases; increases.
When do we have to check the RAIM on a LNAV approach?
When intending to perform a lnav approach, the RAIM prediction feature should be verified prior to takeoff and prior to start the descent.
Explanation
aim, COM 5.4.2.1: Pilots using TSO C129/C129a avionics should use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that approach-level RAIM will be supported at the destination or alternate airport for the ETA (=15 min). This should be done before takeoff, and again prior to commencing a GNSS-based approach, if approach-level RAIM is not expected to be available, pilots should advise ATS as soon as practicable and state their intentions (e.g. delay the approach, fly another type of approach, proceed to alternate).
A bleed-air leak warning light on the annunciator panel indicates:
A bleed-air leak that could lead to a fire on the aircraft.
Explanation
in a gas turbine engine, bleed-air is compressed air that is taken from che engine compressor stage (upscream of che combustion chamber), it can be taken from the high stage (in descent and ocher low-power setting operations) or low stage (during high-power setting operations) from the engine compressor section.
Bleed-air has a high temperature (between 200 and 250°C and a high pressure (275 kPa).
Bleed-air can be used for the internal cooling of the engine, to cross-start another engine, for engine and airframe anti-icing cabin pressurization (after it has been cooled), pneumatic actuators, air-powered motors, for pressurizing the hydraulic reservoir, waste and water storage tanks, etc.
Because of the high temperature of this air. a leak in the system could cause structural damages on the aircraft. To avoid damage (like fire if left unattended), a bleed-air leak detector control is installed. This device is a fire-decection system that responds to
heat. High temperature causes a chemical reaccion in the sensing element, which provides a ground for the warning circuit and turns on an indicator light on the annunciator panel.
Weather radar systems are based on the principle of _____and transmit in the frequency band.
Primary Radar; SHF.
Explanation
Weather radar uses the same principle as primary radar (PSR) and transmits on the SHF frequency range, its antenna radiates a very narrow and highly directional beam ahead of the aircraft in the x-band of the radio spectrum.
What effect will flaps extension have on stalling speed?
Decrease of the stalling speed.
Explanation
One advantage of flaps use is the stall speed decreasing, when they are extended, flaps change the wing profile by increasingthe wing upper surface camber, it allows the aircraft to have a lower landing speed.
The wing tip stall can be controlled by:
Washout, Krueger flap, leading edge flap.
Explanation
When an aeroplane is made, the wings are twisted so that the angle of incidence at the wing tip is lower than the angle at the wing root. This is called wash-out (or wash-in) and enables wings to stall more abruptly because the wing near the root stalls before the wing top. Ailerons, being wing tip, stay efficient while a part of the wing is already stalled.
When leading edge flaps are dropped, the wing camber increases. The wing then has a higher lift coefficient at big angles of attack and weaker airspeed. Krueger flaps do essentially the same job.
