10

Question 1

Regulations about takeoff in a turbojet-powered aeroplane say:

Answer 1

no person shall conduct a cakeoff in a turbojet-powered aeroplane that has an mctow of more chan 5.700 kg that is operated under Part VII without a third attitude indicator.

No person operating under Subpart 2 or 5 of Part VII shall conduct a cakeoff in a turbojet-powered aeroplane chat has an mctow of more chan 15.000 kg (33.069 pounds) and for which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 10 or more passengers, unless the aeroplane is equipped with a ground proximity warning system.

No person shall conduct a cakeoff in a turbojet-powered aeroplane unless it is equipped with an altitude alerting system or device.

CAR 605.36
CAR 605.37
CAR 605.41

Question 2

The owner of a private aircraft has changed the oil and has cleaned the filter him/herself. Who must do the entry in the journey log book?

Answer 2

The owner of the aircraft.

CAR, Part VI, Standard 625, Appendix A:

CAR 605.85

Question 3

In the context of medical evacuation flights, no air operator shall, unless authorized, assign a flight crew member on call for flight time, and no flight crew member on call shall accept such an assignment, if the flight crew member on call total flight time in all flights conducted by the flight crew member on call will, as a result, exceed:

Answer 3

100 hours in any 30 consecutive days.

CAR 700.100
CAR 700.103

Subpart 4 or 5 or in helicopter:

         40h in any 7 consecutive days

Subpart 3 or in helicopter:

          60h in any consecutive days

         120h in any 30 consecutive days or 60h in any 7 consecutive days if on call

300h in 90 cons days

1200h in any 365 cons days

Single-pilot operation:

       8h in any 24 cons hours

The crew memeber’s flight time includes: The flight time accumulated from other flight operations

Question 4

in an aerial work operation (702). if a rest period is included in a flight duty time, how much time may the flight duty time be extended?

Answer 4

it may be extended for one half the length of the rest period, but it may not exceed 3 hours. A minimum of 4 consecutive hours of rest time must be provided.

CAR 702.93

Question 5

in an aerial work operation (702). if a rest period is included in a flight duty time, how much time may the flight duty time be extended?

Answer 5

it may be extended for one half the length of the rest period, but it may not exceed 3 hours. A minimum of 4 consecutive hours of rest time must be provided.

Question 6

when a flight crew member is notified of a delay in reporting time before leaving a rest facility and the delay is six hours, the flight crew member’s flight duty time is considered to have started hour(s) after the original reporting time.

Answer 6

4

Explanation

car 700.52: (1) if an air operator advises a flight crew member of a delay in the members reporting time before the member leaves their suitable accommodation to report for duty, che duration of the flight duty period shall, for ehe purposes of determining the maximum flight duty period in accordance with section 700.2S. be calculated starting from either the initial reporting time or the delayed reporting time, whichever results in the shorter period.

(2) Despite subsection (1). the flight duty period shall begin, if the delay in the reporting time
(a) is less than four hours, at the delayed reporting time; or
(b) is four hours or more but less than 10 hours, four hours after the initial reporting time.
(3) if the delay in the reporting time is 10 hours or more, the duration of the delay is considered to be a rest period if the air operator advises the flight crew member of che delay before they leave che suitable accommodation, and does not disturb their rest penod before an agreed time.
(4) unless che air operator and flight crew member agree on a time when the air operator may disturb the members rest period referred to in subseccion (3). che air operator shall not interrupt the member’s rest period ocher than
(a) during the 30-minute period before the time the member was initially scheduled to leave the suitable accommodation; or
(b) duhng the eo-minuce period before che initial reporting time.

Question 7

Controlled rest periods on the flight deck are authorized only during the cruise phase of the flight and shall be completed at least ____ minutes before planned top of descent.

Answer 7

30.

Explanation

CAR 700.72: (1) A filght crew member shall not take a controlled rest on the flight deck of an aircraft that is operated by an air operator unless

(a) the rest is 45 minutes or less, is taken during the cruise portion of the flight and is completed at least 30 minutes before che scheduled beginning of the descent;
(b) no ocher flight crew member is caking a rest at that time; and (0 at least two flight crew members remain on che flight deck.
(2) Before caking a controlled rest on che flight deck, a flight crew member shall
(a) transfer their dudes to a flight crew member who is not caking a rest;
(b) re/iew the scacus of the filghc. including any specific duties to be performed duhng the rest;

(0 review che wake-up criteria; and

(d) advise the flight attendants of the start and end times of the rest.
(3) a flight crew member who takes a controlled rest on the filghc deck shall not assume any dudes, and no ocher flight crew member shall transfer any dudes to them, until 15 minutes afcer che end of the rest.
(4) when a flight crew member returns to duty another flight crew member shall provide them with an operational briefing.

Question 8

A single-engine aeroplane can be used in an air taxi in night vfr flight if:

Answer 8

• it is a built, turbine-powered aeroplane
• The air operator is authorized to do so in its air operator certificate
• a chip detector system
• The aeroplane has two attitude indicators that are powered separately and independently from each other

A radar altimeter

CAR 703.22
CAR 723.22

Question 9

Regarding a commuter operation, a PPC expires on ____ month following the month in which the pilot proficiency check, competency check or training was completed, where the PPC is renewed within the last 90 days of its validity period, its validity period is extended by ____ months.

Answer 9

The first day of the thirteenth; 12.

CAR 704.111

Question 10

Under air taxi operation, when flying a multi-engined aircraft with an inoperative engine, the weight must be lower than the weight that will allow the pilot-in-command to maintain:

Answer 10

The MOCA in ifr flight.

CAR 703.32

Question 11

Without complying with the ETOPS Manual and without authorization, no airline operator shall operate a propeller twin-engine aeroplane on a route containing a point that is farther from an adequate aerodrome than the distance that can be flown in ____minutes at the ____ cruise speed, unless the flight is conducted wholly within Canadian Domestic Airspace.

Answer 11

60; one-engine-inoperadve.

Explanation

car 705.26: (1) Subject to subseccion (2). no air operator shall operate a twin-engined aeroplane on a route containing a point chat is farther from an adequate aerodrome than the discance chat can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, unless che flight is conducted wholly within Canadian Domestic Airspace.

(2) An air operator may operate an aeroplane on a route referred to in subsection (1) where
(a) the aeroplane is turbine-powered;
(b) the air operator is authorized to do so in its air operator certificate; and

(0 the air operator complies with the Safety Critena for Approval of Extended Range Twin-engine Operations (ETOPS) Manual.

Question 12

Can we fuel an aeroplane with passengers embarking, disembarking or on board?

Answer 12

Yes. under some conditions.

CAR 725.40

Question 13

Question 13

When planning a flight in an airline operation, the landing distance must be determined to take into account a maximum of ____ % of the reported headwind component or not less than ____ % of the tailwind component.

Answer 13

50; 150

CAR 705.60

Question 14

Question 14

Determine the minimum number of hand-held extinguishers that should be in a 100-passenger seat aeroplane used in an airline operation, having two class E cargo compartments and three isolated galleys.

Answer 14

A total of 9 extinguishers: 1 in the flight deck. 3 in the passenger compartment. 1 in each class E cargo compartment, and 1 in each isolated galley.

CAR 705.93

Question 15

To act as pilot-in-command or second-in-command of an aircraft used in an airline operation you must, within the previous ___ days, has completed at least ____ takeoffs and landings as the pilot at the controls and ____sector(s) assigned to duty as a flight crew member in an aircraft of that type.

Answer 15

90; 3; 1.

CAR 705.106

Question 16

The chief pilot is responsible for. among other things:

Answer 16

Developing standard operating procedures (SOPS).

CAR 723.07
CAR 724.07
CAR 725.07

Question 17

High altitude training is required for all flight crew members operating aeroplanes above _____ feet asl before the first assignment on a pressurized aeroplane and every____year(s) thereafter.

Answer 17

13000; 3

CAR 723.98
CAR 724.115
CAR 725.124

Question 18

According to the cars, which of the following would be an aviation incident?

An aircraft has suffered structural damage, but no one is hurt.

A slung load is released unintentionally or as a precautionary or emergency measure from the aircraft.

People have been injured after coming into contact with hazardous materials leaked from an aircraft.

An aircraft is lost or inaccessible.

Answer 18

A slung load is released unintentionally or as a precautionary or emergency measure from the aircraft.

AIM, GEN 3.3.2

Question 19

Every person having possession of or control over evidence relating to a transportation occurrence must:

Answer 19

Keep and present the e/idence unless the TSB provides otherwise.

AIM, GEN 3.4

Question 20

When conducting an ifr flight at FL210. you should squawk the code ____ unless otherwise instructed by atc.

Answer 20

2000.

AIM, COM 8.2

Question 21

if after using code 7500. an aircraft changes to code 7700. it indicates that the aircraft:

Answer 21

Was hijacked and now requires immediate assistance.

AIR, SAR 4.4
AIM, COM 8.8

Question 22

Question 22

You are flying along a high-level airway in an RVSM-certified aircraft. Your track is 175ºM and your altitude is between FL290 and FL410. you shall fly at ____ altitudes and with intervals of _____feet.

Answer 22

Odd; 2ooo.

AIM, RAC 2.3.1

Question 23

When entering the 10 NM zone of a controlled aerodrome at 2.500 feet agl. what is the speed limit you should comply with?

Answer 23

200 KIAS

AIM, RAC 2.5.2

Question 24

The Arctic Control Area is _____ airspace and starts at.

Answer 24

Controlled; FL270.

AIM, RAC 2.6

Question 25

Low-level airways (not the same as air routes) are _____airspaces extending from _____feet agl to ____.

Answer 25

Controlled; 2200; 18.000 feet asl not included.

AIM, RAC 2.7.1

Question 26

Which of the following airspaces is a Class B airspace?

Answer 26

The airspace inside low level airways extending above 12500 feet asl.

Explanation

AIM. RAC 2.7.1: Lcrw-Level Airways: Controlled low-level airspace extends upward from 2 200 ft AGL up to. but not including. 1S OOO ft ASL.

aim. RAC 2.8.2: Class B Airspace: Class B airspace is designated where an operational need exists to provide air traffic control service to ifr and to control vfr aircraft. Operations may be conducted under ifr or vfr. All aircraft are subject to atc clearances and instructions, atc separation is provided to a I aircraft.

All low level controlled airspace above 12 500 feet asl or at and above the MEA. whichever is higher, up to but not including 18 OCX) feet asl will be Class B airspace. Control zones and associated terminal control areas may also be classified as Class B airspace.

Question 27

how is the critical altitude of a turbocharger defined?

Answer 27

it is the maximum altitude at which the turbocharger is able to maintain full engine power.

Explanation

Sometimes, the engine turbocharger does not need to run (for example at low altitude or at low power), in such cases, a wastegate located in the exhaust system exhausts gas directly into the atmosphere, bypassing the turbine wheel. The manifold pressure then decreases to the outside pressure and the engine works as a normally aspirated engine, when denser air is needed, the wastegate closes and the turbocharger starts.

The turbocharger critical altitude is the maximum altitude at which it allows the engine to provide its maximum power with wastegate fully closed. Above this altitude, the engine power will decrease.

Question 28

What drives the compressor of a free turbine turboshaft engine?

Answer 28

The driving turbine of the compressor.

Explanation

In a free turbine turboprop engine, the air coming in through the air intake is compressed by an axial compressor before entering the combustion chamber. The hot gases coming out drive the compressor turbine. They drive the separate power turbine which drives the shaft.

Question 29

When the turbocharger wastegate is fully open, the engine:

Answer 29

works as a normally aspired engine.

Explanation

Sometimes, the engine turbocharger does not need to run (for example at low altitude or at low power), in such cases, a wastegate located in the exhaust system exhausts gas directly into the atmosphere, bypassing the turbine wheel. The manifold pressure then decreases to the outside pressure and the engine works as a normally aspirated engine, when denser air is needed, the wastegate closes and the turbocharger starts.

Question 30

which of the following are advantages of FADEC?

Answer 30

Better fuel-efficiency
Automatic engine protection against out-of-limit operations
It can provide engine health monitoring and diagnostics
Reduces the number of parameters to be monitored by pilots

Question 31

In a CONSTANT power and airspeed descent, thrust is ____ to/than drag, and lift is ____ to/than weight.

Answer 31

Equal; lesser.

Explanation

An aircraft in flight is subject to four forces: thrust, drag, lift and weight

For an object to be in equilibrium, it is necessary that all the forces acting on it are compensated, in the case of an aircraft in flight, it is in equilibrium when the thrust is equal and opposite to the drag and the lift is equal and opposite to the weight. The aircraft motion is then constant and uniform: the aircraft is in straight and level flight at a constant speed.

if the aircraft’s lift decreases while the weight remains the same, the lift becomes lower chan the weight and the aircraft begins to descend.

Question 32

The _____ pitch is the distance a propeller actually advances in one revolution.

Answer 32

Effective

Explanation

There should be no confusion between propeller geometric pitch and effective pitch.

Geometric pitch is fixed, whereas effective pitch varies with speed and engine speed.

Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance travelled by the propeller when it makes one complete rotation without slipping” (i.e.. spinning in the fluid).

Effective pitch is the real distance travelled by the propeller when it makes one complete rotation.

When the propeller is working, the effective pitch is lower than the geometric pitch.

Question 33

You apply the full throttle in an aeroplane with a clockwise rotating propeller (seen from the rear). The aeroplane will ____ because of the propeller slipstream.

Answer 33

Rotate to the left around its vertical axis, and so rotate to the left around its longitudinal axis.

Explanation

On most aeroplanes, the propeller rotates clockwise when seen from the cockpit The slipstream pushes the aeroplane’s tail to the right causing a left yaw movement. The yaw is important when applying the full power for the takeoff roll, especially on cailwheel aeroplanes. The more the aeroplane airspeed increases, the less important the yaw. You will have to compensate for the yaw using rudder pedals.

When an aeroplane makes a yaw movement (for example to the left) during a flight a wing (in this case the right wing) moves faster in the air and will create more lift than the ocher one. This increase in the lift causes a roll movement (here to the left).

Question 34

What is the operational principle of a constant speed gas turbine engine?

Answer 34

The propeller pitch is adjusted by a governor as the fuel flow is changed to maintain an engine constant speed.+

Explanation

a constant speed propeller is a propeller that adjusts its pitch to maintain a constant rpm as chosen by the pilot. During climb, the propeller adjusts on fine pitch to provide the best performances and to avoid the engine rpm decreasing, in cruise or descent, the propeller pitch changes for coarse pitch for best performances and to avoid the engine speed increasing.

Question 35

What is the mechanism that prevents the reversing of a turboprop engine aeroplane during a cruise flight?

Answer 35

The low pitch stop system.

Explanation

On a turboprop engine equipped with a reversing propeller, the low pitch stop system prevents the propeller from reversing when the propeller rotation speed is exceeding a certain value, or when the aeroplane is flying. The ground lew pitch stop system is managed by the propeller controller, which controls the minimum pitch angle on the ground and prevents the propeller pitch from reversing.

The flight low pitch stop system controls the minimum pitch angle for each propeller in flight and prevents propellers from reversing.

Question 36

Which of the following is true regarding fuel injection systems?

Answer 36

An engine equipped with a fuel injection system has a lower consumption than an engine equipped with a carburetor.

Explanation

One advantage of the injection system on the carburetor is the uniform distribution of the right amount of fuel directly in the cylinders. The injector provides the cylinder with the right amount of fuel previously measured, allowing the engine to provide more power and consume less fuel, it allows the engine to better cool.

in this type of engine, the carburetor is replaced by the injectors. There is no more risk of carburetor icing; risks of icing of the injection system exist, even though they are minor, in an injection system, throttle ice can occur at temperatures of 5ºC or less.

Question 37

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the accumulator of a hydraulic system?

Answer 37

The hydraulic accumulator maintains a pressure by storing energy in the form of compressed air.

The hydraulic accumulator absorbs fluid chocks in the hydraulic lines.

Explanation

The accumulator is a cylinder mounted parallel to the hydraulic circuit. It is divided into two chambers by a piston or a membrane. One chamber is pressurized with nitrogen and the other is linked to the hydraulic circuit. The accumulator purposes are. among others, to maintain pressure by storing energy in the form of compressed air (it would be impossible with hydraulic fluid, as it is incompressible), to provide a fluid supply under pressure in case of pump failure, to absorb pump shocks, to absorb fluid chocks in the hydraulic lines, etc.

Question 38

ECAIS and ecam are systems that:

Answer 38

Replace traditional gauges as the ITT or the oil pressure gauges.

Explanation

The EiCAS (Engine indications and Crew Alerting System) is an electronic system replacing traditional gauges to indicate information about the aircraft systems such as fuel, electrical and propulsion systems, usually, the information displayed looks like the traditional gauges while supplying digital readouts of the parameters.

This system can improve pilots’ situational awareness by showing them detailed information in a graphical format and by alerting them of unusual or dangerous situations (oil pressure loss, too high engine temperacures. etc.) by changing displays and colours and emitcmg audio alerts, a lot of warnings and alarms can be set on the EiCAS: it is important to choose a good alert setcing to ensure that pilots always receive the most useful information and are not overwhelmed by warnings.

The ecam (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitonng) is a similar system to the EAiCAS. The difference is that this system also recommends remedial action.

Question 39

What would be the most probable cause of a significant variation of oil pressure in flight?

Answer 39

A lack of oil.

Explanation
if you notice an important variation of the oil pressure gauge during a flight, you can deduce that you probably have an oil leak causing a loss of pressure, in this case, it is important to take safety measures to avoid engine damage.

Question 40

In a turbomachine having more than one fuel tank, the fuel system must:

Answer 40

Be designed to prevent interruption of fuel flow to that engine, without attention by the flight crew, when any tank supplying fuel to chat engine is depleted of usable fuel during normal operation and any other tank that normally supplies fuel to that engine alone contains usable fuel.

Explanation

CAR 525.955: (a) Each fuel system must provide at least 100 percent of the fuel flow required under each intended operating condition and manoeuvre. Compliance must be shown as follows:

(1) Fuel must be delivered to each engine at a pressure within the limits specified in the engine type certificate.
(2) The quantity of fuel in the tank may not exceed the amount established as the unusable fuel supply for chat tank under the requirements of 525.959 plus that necessary to show compliance with this section.
(3) Each mam pump must be used that is necessary for each operating condition and attitude for which compliance with this section is shown, and the appropriate emergency pump must be substituted for each main pump so used.
(4) if there is a fuel ficwmecer. it must be blocked and the fuel must flow through the meter or its bypass.
(b) if an engine can be supplied with fuel from more than one tank, the fuel system must
(1) For each reciprocating engine, supply the full fuel pressure to that engine in not more than 20 seconds after switching to any other fuel tank containing usable fuel when engine malfunctioning becomes apparent due to the depletion of the fuel supply in any tank from which the engine can be fed; and
(2) For each turbine engine, in addition to having appropriate manual switching capability, be designed to prevent interruption of fuel flow to chat engine, without attention by the flight crew, when any tank supplying fuel to that engine is depleted of usable fuel during normal operation, and any other tank, chat normally supplies fuel to that engine alone, contains usable fuel.

Question 41

If an aircraft is flying on a 221° heading and turns 72º to the left, what will its new heading be?

Answer 41

149º

Question 42

You are on a northerly heading and you begin an eastward turn, what will the compass error be?

Answer 42

it will lag.

Explanation
The magnetic compass is subject to a northerly turning error when following a northerly heading. When turning from north, the compass first indicates a turn in the opposite direction before correcting with a certain lag.

Question 43

The flux vane of the slaved gyro compass corrects the precession errors and is supplied with:

Answer 43

An alternative current.

Explanation

A gyromagnetic remote indicating compass (or slaved gyro compass) is an instrument developed in order to compensate for the errors and limitations of conventional heading indicators (free gyro [that needs periodic adjustment]). The panel components of a typical system visible from the cockpit are usually an hsi. and the slaving control and compensator unit.

The flight crew can choose either the “slaved gyro” or ‘free gyro” mode (the compass card may be adjusted manually).

The magnetic slaving transmitter is a detector unit mounted remotely from the rest of the system (generally on a wingap or at the fin”s top) to eliminate the magnetic interference from che aircraft, it is connected electrically to the HSI. it contains a device that senses the magnetic north: the “flux valve” (supplied with an alternative current). The error between the magnetic north and the heading displayed, after being amplified, becomes a signal relayed to the heading indicator unit in the cockpit. This signal drives a torque motor in the heading indicator unit that precesses the directional gyro unit until it is aligned with the transmitted signal.

Question 44

Whac is the difference between a rhumb line and a great circle?

Answer 44

Flying along a rhumb line will not change your track whereas flying along a great circle will.

Explanation
The advantage of a great circle is that it represents the shortest distance between two points on Earth. However, the great circle does not cross all the meridians with the same angle.

The advantage of the rhumb line is its constant heading when followed. Howe/er. since the rhumb line is a curved line, it is not the shortest distance between two points.

Question 45

Whac does a straight line drawn on a Mercator projection chart represent?

Answer 45

A rhumb line.

Explanation
On a Mercator projection, meridians and parallels of latitude are straight and parallel lines, and a straight line drawn between two points on the map stands for a rhumb line.

Question 46

What is the primary use of LO chares?

Answer 46

The enrouce phase of ifr flights.

Explanation

AlP, GEN 3.2.4.7: Enrouce Low Altitude (LO) Chart: This chart series provides flight crews wich information to facilitate navigation along ATS routes in compliance with air traffic services procedures, it is intended for use in the low level airspace structure (below 18.000 feet asl).

The LO chart series, comprising 10 charts, depicts aeronautical radio information, airways system, controlled/unconerolled airspace structure, special use airspace, communication stations and selecced aerodromes, it is used for IFR route planning and inflight navigation.

Question 47

An aeroplane is flying at FL290 (pressure altitude) with a calibrated airspeed of 260 knots, what is the rough true airspeed of this aeroplane?

Answer 47

412 knots.

Explanation

Density altitude affects aircraft performance and stall speed. The higher the altitude, the lower the air density. An aircraft moving in air that is less dense will need to move faster to meet the same quantity of particles, and to create the same lift as if it was in a denser air. The indicated airspeed becomes lower chan the true airspeed as the altitude increases.

a rule of thumb to calculate an approximate true airspeed is to apply the following correction:

• For altitudes between mean sea le.’el and 20.000 feet, add 1.5% to the indicated airspeed every 1.000 feet of pressure altitude;
• For altitudes starting at mean sea level and rising above 20.000 feet, add 2% to the indicated airspeed every 1.000 feet of pressure altitude.

Here: 29 x 2 = 5S%

The aeroplane tas at FL2O0 is: 260 - (260 x 5S%) = 411 knots.

For more precision (considering the indicated outside cemperacure). use an electronic flight calculator.

Question 48

Wake turbulence mainly results from:

Answer 48

The rotating vortices at the wing tips.

Explanation

The wake turbulence is an aerodynamic turbulence created behind the aircraft, it consists of two phenomena: the jet blast and the wing tip vortices, jet blast is caused by gases expelled by the jet engine, it is very violent, but does not last. Conversely, the wing tip vortex, which corresponds to turbulence on the wing tip and on their upper surface, is less violent but could last up to 3 minutes after the aeroplane passage. This is therefore a bigger danger in aviation.

Question 49

Wake turbulence dissipates quickly _____and slowly _____

Answer 49

in the presence of strong atmospheric turbulence; in calm air.

Explanation

aim. air 2.9.1: The strength of these vortices is governed by the shape of che wings, and che weight and speed of the aircraft the most significant factor is weight. The greatest vortex scrength occurs under conditions of heavy weight, clean configuration, and slow speed. The strength of the vortex shows little dissipation at altitude within 2 min of the time of initial formation. Beyond 2 min. varying degrees of dissipation occur along the vortex path; first in one vortex and Chen in the other. The break-up of vortices is affecced by atmospheric turbulence; the greater the turbulence, the more rapid the dissipation of the vorcices.

Question 50

Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins:

Answer 50

With rotation.

Explanation
aim. air 2.9.1: Trailing vortices have characteristics which, when known, will help a pilot visualize the wake location and thereby take avoidance precautions, vortex generation starts with rotation (lifting off of the nosewheel) and will be severe in that airspace immediately following the point of rotation, vortex generation ends when the nosewheel of a landing aircraft touches down.

Question 51

volcanic ashes are hazardous:

Answer 51

up to FL600. as far as 2400 NM from the ash source and during several days after the eruption.

Explanation
aim. air 2.6: Aviation radar is not effective in detecting volcanic ash clouds. There is no reliable information regarding volcanic ash concentrations which might be minimally acceptable for flight. Recent data suggests that “old” volcanic ash still represents a considerable hazard to safety of flight. Pilots are cautioned that ash from volcanic eruptions can rapidly reach heights in excess of FL6CO and be blown downwind of che source for considerable distances. Encounters affecting aircraft performance have occurred 2400 NM from the ash source and up to 72 hours after an eruption.

Question 52

During a descent starting at 3.000 feet agl and ending on the ground, you can expect that the wind ____ and _____

Answer 52

Will back: decrease.

Question 53

Attempting to land below a thunderstorm, even if celling and visibility are favourable, is not recommended. This is because of:

Answer 53

The risk of strong irregular winds and gusts.

Explanation

Thunderstorms are responsible for strong winds (downbursts and wind shears), severe turbulence, gusts (up to 80 knots) and squalls. These conditions can be found under the thunderstorm, but also up to a distance of 15 nautical miles away from il These changes in wind direction are particularly dangerous for aircraft taking off or landing at low altitude and low airspeed.

Low-level wind shear, when associated with a thunderstorm, is caused by a gust front and a strong downburst.

Question 54

Pilots may receive a warning of incipient roll upset if abnormal or _____ control forces are experienced after the autopilot is disconnected when operating in icing conditions.

Answer 54

Sloppy aileron.

Explanation

aim. AIR 2.12.3.3: The roll upset can occur well before the normal symptoms of ice accretion are evident to the pilot, and control forces may be physically beyond the pilots ability to overcome. Pilots may receive a warning of incipient roll upset if abnormal or sloppy aileron control forces are experienced after the autopilot is disconnected when operating in icing conditions.

Question 55

What is the ‘service celling’?

Answer 55

The density altitude at which the race of climb of an aeroplane is reduced to 100 fpm.

Explanation
The service ceiling of an aeroplane is the altitude, in no turbulent standard atmosphere, at which this aeroplane can climb, when loaded at its maximum and used at full power, with a race of climb of 100 feet per minute.

Question 56

using the following conditions, calculace the density altitude.

• Elevation of the airport: 3.600 feet
• Altimeter setting: 28.62 inches of mercury
• Temperature: 25°C

Answer 56

7048 feet

Question 57

High humidity will _____ the performance of the aircraft.

Answer 57

Decrease

Explanation

a decrease in air density leads to a decrease in aircraft performance.

Several factors influence density: altitude, temperature or air humidity.

An increase in altitude leads to a density decrease: the higher you are. the less important air column pressure.

An increase in temperature has the same effect: the warmer it is. the less dense the air is (less a:r molecules in a given volume than in cold air). Regarding humidity, the higher it is. the less dense the air is.

in the case of a pov.ered aircraft, a high humidity leads to a decrease in engine performances.

Question 58

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix.

you are flying from Montreal to Chicoutimi. Chicoutimi Airport elevation is 543 feet. During the approach, you are flying at 4,600 feet, which is your MSA. The outside air temperature is -40CC. you have not applied the altitude correction for cold temperatures. Your altimeter setting is 29.87”Hg and the environmental lapse rate is 1.9S°C/1.000 feet. What is your corrected MSA?

Answer 58

5.415 fee;.

Explanation

aim. RAC 9.17.1: See explanations and the table.

Caution: First, you have to determine the temperature at the aerodrome.

Question 59

Question 59

Your aircraft has a stall speed of 45 knots in straight and level flight. A turn with a bank of 30s will increase the stall speed by:

Answer 59

3 knots

Explanation

During a turn, the bank increasing results in a load factor increasing. The lift has to be increased to sustain a level flight. To increase the lift, increase che wing angle of attack: the stalling angle will be reached at a higher airspeed than in a straight flight.

To determine the load factor, use the following formula: 1 / [cos (angle of bank)]

Here: load factor = 1 / cos(30) = 1.15

To determine the stall speed in turn, use the following formula: vs horizontal x % (load factor)

Here: Vs in a turn = 45 x sqr(1.15) = 48 knots

Question 60

What is the purpose of a mass balance on a rudder?

Answer 60

Eliminate the risk of vibration at high speed.

Explanation
Some flutters can occur during high-speed flights. To present this, manufacturers balance the controls by placing a streamline shaped mass ahead of the concrol surface hinge. This mass is called mass balance.

Question 61

The maximum range of an aircraft can be improved by:

Answer 61

Slightly increasing the speed in case of headwind.

Question 62

Which of the following airspeeds is the lowest?

Answer 62

vso.

Explanation

On an airspeed indicator, the white arc is the range of full use of the flaps. The beginning of the arc is the stall speed without power, with flaps and landing gear down (Vso). The end is the maximum flaps extended speed (vfe). in descending order, we have: vne > Vno > vsl > vso

Question 63

Vmbe:

Answer 63

Depends on the aeroplane gross weight

Explanation

vmbe is the maximum brake energy speed, it is the maximum speed at which full application of brakes will not cause a failure of the brake system (generally caused by fire). At this speed, the pilot will be able to stop the aeroplane using brakes only.

vmbe is an indicating airspeed higher than V1, in order to allow the pilot to have brakes if he/she rejeccs the takeoff. This speed depends on the pressure altitude, outside air temperature and aeroplane’s gross weight (the heavier the aeroplane, the lower the vmbe).

Question 64

The camber of the wing of a light aircraft may be changed:

Answer 64

With the use of flaps.

Explanation

Extended flaps increase the wing upper surface camber. This increases the lift created by the airfoil. Between 10º and 20º. the flaps provide better performance and better angle of climb, if the engine is powerful enough to counteract the increasing drag created by the flaps (see manufacturer’s recommendation), usually, after 20°. the flaps increase the drag more than the lift does: they are used as air brakes. Between 20° and 40° (40° is the common value for full extended flaps), their main role is to increase landing performances by increasing the approach glide without increasing the glide speed, allowing better visibility. On the contrary, as they increase the camber on the upper surface, chey reduce the approach speed, and therefore the landing speed. This, plus the fact they act as air brakes, helps to stop at a shorter distance.

Question 65

The wingtip stall can be controlled by:

Answer 65

Wash-out. wing fences and vortex generators.

Explanation

When an aeroplane is made, the wings are twisted so that the angle of incidence at the wing tip is lower than the angle at the wing root. This is called wash-out (or wash-in) and enables wings to stall more abruptly because the wing near the root stalls before the wing tip. Ailerons, being wing ap. stay efficient while a part of the wing is already stalled.

Wing fences are small plates vertically mounted on the wing’s upper surfaces to control airflow. At large angles of attack of sweepback wings, they prevent airflow from deviating to the wing tip. On straight wings, they control the airflow around the flaps. These systems allow for better control of the aeroplane flying at lew airspeed by giving it better stall characteristics.

On sweepback wings, they are placed approximately 2/3 of the wing from the wing root.

vortex generators are small plates of about 2.5 cm standing in a line, with a certain angle of attack, on the wings leading edge. They generate vortices that delay or prevent the breakaway of the boundary layer by re-creating it.

Question 66

When an ice layer of about 2 millimeters completely covers the aircraft, performances are reduced. What is the most likely cause?

Answer 66

A disturbance in the airflow over the lifting surfaces.

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.3.2:

Question 67

An aeroplane is flying at FL290 with a calibrated airspeed of 260 knots. The indicated outside temperature is -8ºC. what is the static air temperature?

Answer 67

-30ºC

Explanation

Around a flying aircraft air friction and compressibility cause an increase of air temperature (ram rise). The total air temperature (TAT) provided by the aircraft’s temperature probe is higher than the true outside air temperature (or ambient temperature, or sat [Static Air Temperature]), which is the temperature of undisturbed air.

Below 200 knots, the increase in temperature is minimal. However, above this speed, a correction must be applied to the temperature in order to find out the SAT. in most aircraft flying above 200 knots, this correction is made by the air-data computer.

To answer this question v/ith precision, use an electronic flight calculator.

Question 68

A stick pusher, often installed on high-speed aircraft, is a safety system that allows:

Answer 68

To avoid an aerodynamic stall.

To recover from an aerodynamic stall.

To identify an aerodynamic stall.

Explanation

A stick pusher is a safety system that applies downward elevator pressure to prevent an aeroplane from exceeding a predetermined angle of attack in order to avoid, identify, or assist in the recovery of an aerodynamic stall.

Question 69

When descending through a temperature inversion at a constant Mach number, the TAS:

Answer 69

Decreases.

Question 70

Consider an aircraft thac stalls during a straight and level flight at a speed of 45 knots. What is its stall speed if it is running an aerobatic manoeuvre leading to a load factor of 3.8G?

Answer 70

88 knots

Explanation
To determine the stall speed in a turn, use the following formula: vs horizontal x (load factor}

Here: vs in a turn = 45 x sqr(3.8) = 88 knots

Question 71

Refer to the image 2 in the Appendix.

Regarding the information below, which of the propositions is the highest safe altitude?

• Gross weight: 90.000 lbs
- Safety load factor: i.6g

Answer 71

35000 feet

Explanation
To answer this question, first determine the intersection p

Here, draw a straight vertical line from 1,6g to the cur.’e standing for the aeroplane gross weight: 90.000 pounds. From this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line to the right to the graph end. The curve standing for the highest pressure altitude that

this line will intersect will be the highest safe altitude.

Question 72

In an aeroplane, you apply the elevator control forward and you release it. if the nose remains in the new position, the aeroplane has:

Answer 72

a neutral stability.

Explanation
An aeroplane that has a neutral stability will not create any force to go back to or move away from its onginal position after being disturbed.

Question 73

With regard to fatigue, which statement is correct according to the information given under the ’Medical information” section of the TC aim?

Answer 73

Fatigue slows reaction time and causes foolish inattentive errors.

Explanation
aim. air 3.8: Fatigue slows reaction time, reduces concentration and leads to errors of attention. The most common causes are insufficient rest, lack of sleep, and overexertion. Fatigue can also be aggravated by other stresses such as business pressures and financial or family problems as well as common illnesses, such as anaemia, sleep apnoea. influenza, and head colds. Pilots should be aware of che subtle effects that acute or chronic fatigue can have on motor skills and judgement, and avoid flying when either of these are present. Pilots should also praccice good sleep hygiene to pre/ent fatigue. Pilots who find that they are often troubled by fatigue or drowsiness, even while not flying, should see their health-care provider for a thorough medical evaluation.

Question 74

After excessive alcohol consumption, a pilot should wait before flying.

Answer 74

24 hours

Explanation

CAR 602.03: No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft

(a) within 12 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage;
(b) while under the influence of alcohol; or

(C) while using any drug that impairs che person’s faculties to the extent that the safety of che aircraft or of persons on board che aircraft is endangered in any way.

aim. air 3.9: Never fly while under the influence of alcohol, it is best to allow at least 24 hr between the last drink and take-off time.

Question 75

Why is carbon monoxide so dangerous when in the cockpit?

Answer 75

Because it combines much more readily with the hemoglobin in the blood than oxygen.

TP 12863E - Human Factors For Aviation - Basic Manuel => Chapter 5: The Body - What The Body Takes In:

Types of hypoxia - Anemic Hypoxia: Carbon monoxide causes problems with breaching because it combines much more readily with the hemoglobin in the blood chan does oxygen -about 200 times more readily, in fact. So. when carbon monoxide is present in the air. usually from engine emissions or tobacco smoke, it is absorbed into the bloodstream instead of oxygen, in small amounts, inhaling carbon monoxide causes impairment of brain functions and sight: in larger amounts it causes death.

aim. air 3.2.2: The symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are insidious, initially, there is an inability to concentrate, thinking becomes blurred, and subsequently dizziness and headache develop, if any of these symptoms are noticed, pilots should turn off the heater, open the air ventilators and descend to a lower altitude if it is safe to do so. if oxygen is available, it should be used, if an exhaust leak is suspecced. the pilot should land che aircraft as soon as possible.

Question 76

a pilot who has donated blood should not act as a flight crew member for at least the next:

Answer 76

48 hours.

Explanation

aim. air 3.12: Generally, active pilots should not donate blood, but if blood has been donated chey should wait at least 48 hr before flying.

Question 77

Regarding pilot decision-making, what will occur if a pilot strongly expects a specific course of events to occur?

Answer 77

a false assumption.

Explanation
a person who strongly wishes something will end up believing it happens, even if not exactly as they expected. They will have bad situational awareness and will make bad decisions. A wrong supposition can result in a poor judgment chain (a series of bad decisions).

Question 78

Whac is Threat and Error Management (TEM)?

Answer 78

training that allows pilots to identify potential or possible threats dunng a flight and to find effective solutions to these threats.

a model allowing pilots to reduce threats during a flight.

a model that posits that threats and errors are integral pares of daily flight operations and must be managed.

Question 79

Which of the following is true with respect to the SOPs of an air taxi operator?

Answer 79

A copy of che SOPs muse be carried on board of each aircraft.

Explanation

CAR 703.107: An air operacor that has established scandard operating procedures for an aircraft shall ensure that a copy of the standard operating procedures is carried on board the aircraft

Question 80

Where can the level of service for reduced or low-visibility operations (RVOP/LVOP) at an aerodrome be found?

Answer 80

in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS).