2_5 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Question 01
METAR CYIO 212300Z AUTO 24006KT 4SM BR BKN004 OVC012 04/03 A2939 RMK SF1SF6 SLP957=

SPECI CYIO 212258Z AUTO 25007KT 4SM BR BKN004 OVC012 04/03 A2939 RMK SLP957=

SPECI CYIO 212231Z AUTO 26008KT 5SM -RA BR SCT001 BKN004 OVC026 04/03 A2939 RMK SF1SF1C2 SLP956=

METAR CYIO 212200Z AUTO 25006KT 9SM -RA OVC004 04/04 A2938 RMK PCPN 0.5MM PAST HR SLP954=

According to the above information, in the SPECI for 2231Z, _____ more type(s) of clouds have been observed than in the METAR at 2300Z.

Answer

A

1

Explanation

AIM, MET 8.3: (o) Remarks—Remarks will appear in reports from Canada, prefaced by RMK. Remarks will include, where observed, layer type and cloud or obscuring phenomena (in eighths of sky covered or oktas), general weather remarks, and sea level pressure, as required. The sea level pressure, prefixed by”SLP” and indicated in hectopascals, will be the last mandatory field in the METAR. SLP does not directly relate to altimeter setting as the SLP is based upon actual temperatures while the altimeter setting is based upon the ICAO standard atmosphere. Density altitude will be indicated after sea level pressure when the density altitude is 200 ft or more than the aerodrome elevation. The remarks “PRESFR” and “PRESRR” indicate rapid changes in pressure and pilots should be extra vigilant to ensure that they have the most recent altimeter setting when these remarks are included. The equal sign (“=”) is often used as an end-ofmessage indicator and has no other meaning.

1 hectopascal = 1 millibar

Question 2

Q

UACN10 CYZF 251310 EG

UA /OV CYZF /TM 1308 /FLDURC /TP AT43 /SK 015 OVC 029 /RM NIL ICING IN CLD

What time was the report above issued?

Answer

A

1310Z

AIM, MET 2.1 and AIM, MET 2.1.1

Question 3

Q

On a GFA, synoptic features represent the feature:

Answer

A

On the surface.

AIM, MET 4.11

Question 4

Q

For how long is an AIRMET valid?

Answer

A

4 hours.

Explanation

AIM, MET 5.6: The period of validity of an AIRMET is 4 hr.

Question 5

Q

What is the maximum altitude at which GFAs provide weather information?

Answer

A

24,000 feet.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.1: The graphic area forecast (GFA) consists of a series of temporally adjusted weather charts, each depicting the most probable meteorological conditions expected to occur at or below 24 000 ft over a given area at a specified time. The GFA is primarily designed to meet general aviation and regional airline requirements for pre-flight planning in Canada.

Question 6

Q

GFAs are issued every:

Answer

A

6 hours.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.2: GFA charts are issued four times daily, approximately 30 min before the beginning of the forecast period. The GFA is issued at approximately 2330,0530, 1130 and 1730 UTC and is valid at 0000,0600, 1200 and 1800 UTC respectively.

Question 7

Q

What does the abbreviation PTCHY mean?

Answer

A

26% to 50% sky coverage.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.11: See the cable 4.5.

Question 8

Q

Question 08 For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix. The slope of the warm front is 1:150. During a climb over CYTH at 1800Z, you will enter the frontal surface at an altitude of ______ feet.

Question 9

Q

For this question, refer

At 0600Z, the value of the low pressure centre will be:

Question 10

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.
At 0600Z, the centre of the low pressure system will move to the ______
with a speed of ______ knots.

Answer

A

North; 10

Question 11

Q

METAR CYHU 111600Z AUTO 01012KT 9SM CLR 17/09 A3018 RMK SLP221 =
METAR CYHU 111500ZAUTO 02012KT9SM CLR 15/09 A3019 RMKSLP224=
METAR CYHU 111400Z AUTO 01014KT 9SM CLR 12/09 A3019 RMK SLP224=

The decrease of the sea level barometric pressure between 1400Z and 1600Z was millibar(s).

Answer

A

0.3

Explanation

The sea level barometric pressure (SLP) indicated in the METAR at 1400Z was 1022.4 hectopascals (or millibars). The one indicated in the METAR at 1600Z was 1022.1 hectopascals (or millibars).

The decrease of pressure between these METARs is: 1,022.4 -1,022.1 = 0.3 hectopascal (or millibar).

AIM, MET 8.0: See explanations.

Question 12

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.

At 0600Z, the turbulence across the entire eastern half of the Prairies Region is caused by:

Answer

A

Low-level wind shears and mechanical reasons.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.12: (b) Turbulence—Depicted in red when shown in colour and indicated whenever moderate or severe turbulence is forecast for the coverage area. The base and top of each turbulence layer is measured in hundreds of feet above sea level except for surface-based turbulence, which is measured in feet above ground level. An abbreviation indicating the cause of the turbulence will be included. Turbulence due to mechanical turbulence, low level wind shear, lee/mountain waves, a significant low level jet or in clear air will be indicated as MECH, LLWS, LEE WV, LLJ or CAT, respectively. The following example indicates an area of moderate clear air turbulence (CAT) based at 18 000 ft ASL with a top at 26 000 ft ASL.

Question 13

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.
During the entire period covered by the GFAs, what is the uplift process responsible for rain precipitation ahead of the warm front?

Answer

A

Frontal lift

Question 14

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.
At 2000Z, you take off from CYSF and you head south without correcting your altimeter setting. Your altimeter will indicate:

Answer

A

A higher altitude than the actual altitude.

Explanation

With too high an altimeter setting, the altimeter indicates a too high altitude. Each 0.10 inch of mercury added to the altimeter setting increases the indicated altitude on the altimeter by about 100 feet. From a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the altitude indicated by the altimeter (not corrected) is higher than the actual altitude. The same thing occurs when the altimeter passes from a warm air mass to a cold air mass.

The opposite occurs from a low pressure to a high pressure from a region of cold air to a region of warm air.

Question 15

Q

METAR CYHU 111600Z AUTO 01012KT 9SM CLR 17/09 A3018 RMK SLP221 =
METAR CYHU 111500Z AUTO 02012KT 9SM CLR 15/09 A3019 RMKSLP224=
METAR CYHU 111400Z AUTO 01014KT 9SM CLR 12/09 A3019 RMK SLP224=

According to the information above, which of the following conditions did not happen at CYHU at 1500Z?

Barometric pressure of 1,0224 millibars.

Wind from 020 degrees magnetic at 12 knots.

Clear sky.

None of the above.

Answer

A

Wind from 020 degrees magnetic at 12 knots.

Question 16

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.

What type of icing could you expect during a flight over CYTH at 0000Z at 8,000 feet?

Question 17

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.

What type of turbulence could you expect during a direct flight from CYMJ to CYQV at 0000Z at 8,000 feet?

Answer

A

Mechanical and low level wind shear turbulence from the surface up to 3000 AGL

Question 18

Q

For this question, refer to the GFA in the Appendix.

At 0000Z, which of the following weather conditions best describes the weather at 400 feet AGL over CYYN?

Answer

A

Strong winds, low ceilings and rain precipitations.

Question 19

Q

In a TAR what does “VRB” mean?

Answer

A

The wind is 3 knots or less and/or has a variable direction.

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.4: “VRB” is normally coded for variable direction only if the wind speed is 3 kts or less.

Question 20

Q

In a TAF, gusts are forecasted if:

Answer

A

The gust strength is forecast to exceed the mean wind speed by 10 kts or more.

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.4: If the maximum gust speed is forecast to exceed the mean speed by 10 kt or more, the letter G and the value of the gust speed, in knots, is added between the mean wind and the unit indicator (KT).

Question 21

Q

TAF CYZH 021838Z 0219/0307 34008KT P6SM SCT015 OVC040 TEMPO 0219/0307 5SM -RA BR OVC015 BECMG 0303/0305 VRB03KT RMK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 030100Z=

According to the information above, when should the next TAF for CYZH be issued?

Answer

A

Around 0100Z.

Question 22

Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding SIGMETs?

Answer

A

These messages are intended to provide short-term warnings of certain potentially hazardous weather phenomena. Warnings are issued for active thunderstorm areas, lines of thunderstorms, heavy hail, severe turbulence or icing, etc.

AIM, MET 6.2

Question 23

Q

Refer to Image 4 in the Appendix. What do these weather symbols mean?

Answer

A

Frontolysis of a stationary front; frontogenesis of a warm front; stationary front; frontolysis of an occluded front.

Question 24

Q

On surface analysis charts, the closer the ______ are, the more the winds are _____.

Answer

A

Isobars; strong.

Explanation
The speed at which the air is moving from point A to point B depends on the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient, defined as the pressure variation rate for a given distance, is measured relative to the isobars.

When the isobars are far from each other, the air moving (wind) is light. When the isobars are close together, the gradient is strong and so is the wind.

Question 25

Q

On 250 hPa charts, the number “020” on a contour represents:

Answer

A

10200 meters

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: (a) Height: The solid lines (contours) on all the charts represent the approximate height of the pressure level indicated by the map. The contours are labelled in decametres (1 Os of metres) such that on a 500 hPa map, 540 means 5 400 m and on a 250 hPa map, 020 means 10 200 m. Contours are spaced 60 m (6 decametres) apart except at 250 hPa, where the spacing is 120 m.

(d) Wind Speed: Wind speed is inversely proportional to the spacing of the height contours. If the contours are close together, the winds are strong; if far apart, the winds are light. The plotted wind arrows also provide the wind speed

On the 250 hPa chart, wind speeds are analyzed using dashed lines for points with the same wind speed (isotachs). The isotachs are analysed by a computer and are drawn at 30 kt intervals starting at 30 kt.

Question 26

Q

On 250 hPa upper-level analysis charts, what is the meaning of a perfect dashed circle sometimes surrounding a station model?

Answer

A

The data indicated at this station is questionable.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: See explanations.

The data indicated in small dashed circles surrounding stations is questionable.

Question 27

Q

ANAL charts indicate _____ conditions, and _____ with the conditions shown in surface analysis charts.

Answer

A

Past; coincide.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: Meteorological parameters in the upper atmosphere are measured twice a day (0000Z and 1200Z). The data are plotted and analysed on constant pressure level charts. These charts always indicate past conditions. The 850 hPa (5 000 ft), 700 hPa (10 000 ft), 500 hPa (18 000 ft) and 250 hPa (34 000 ft) analyzed charts are available in Canada and are generally in weather offices about three hr after the data are recorded.

When using ANAL in conjunction with surface charts, it is possible to have a good idea of the current weather and weather system scope.

Question 28

Q

250 hPa ANAL charts are used for altitudes around:

Answer

A

34,000 feet.

AIM, MET 3.3: Upper Level Chare - ANAL are prepared for following levels:

850 hPa (1 500 m/5000 ft)

700 hPa (3 000 m/ 10 000 ft)

500 hPa (5 500 m/ 18 000 ft)

250 h Pa (10 400 m / 34 000 ft)

Question 29

Q

Significant Weather Forecast Charts - PROG are issued ____ times a day, _____ hours before valid time of _____

Answer

A

4; 12; 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z

Question 30

Q

In standard atmosphere, the pressure at FL390 is close to:

Answer

A

200 hPa.

Explanation

Atmospheric pressure descreases with the altitude: it decreases, exponentially, by a factor of 10 for each 16 kilometres (52,500 feet). At 5,500 m (18,000 feet) it decreases by half. It”s possible to use pressure to measure altitude. It is the altimeter basic principle.

Question 31

Q

On Significant Weather Prognostic High Level Charts (SIGWX HI LVL), jet streams are shown by arrows when the speed at their core is _____ knots or more.

Answer

A

80Kts

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: (d) Jet screams: the height and speed of jet screams having a core speed of 80 kc or more are shown oriented to true north using arrows with pennants and feathers for speed and spaced sufficiently close to give a good indication of speed and height changes. A double-hatched line across the jet scream core indicates a speed increase or decrease of 20 kt or greater at a jet scream speed of 100 kt or higher.

Question 32

Q

Refer to Image 3 in the Appendix.

What is the meaning of the number “138” in the black box under the letter A?

Answer

A

Altitude, in decameters, at which the pressure 850 hPa is found.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: Height: The solid lines (contours) on all the charts represent the approximate height of the pressure level indicated by the map. The contours are labelled in decametres (1 Os of metres) such that on a 500 hPa map, 540 means 5 400 m and on a 250 hPa map, 020 means 10 200 m. Contours are spaced 60 m (6 decametres) apart except at 250 hPa, where the spacing is 120 m.

Question 33

Q

Information given in FICs is provided by flight service specialists. They obtain their information from:

Answer

A

Weather charts
Satellites
Lightning images
NOTAM
RSC
CRFI

Explanation

AIM, MET 1.1.3: (a) Pilot Briefing Service: The pilot briefing service is provided by NAV CANADA FICs to accommodate pilots at the pre-flight planning stage and for information updates while en route. Flight service specialists can access and display a full range of weather charts, imagery (e.g. satellite, lightning and radar) and aeronautical information (such as NOTAM, RSC and CRFI). They are qualified to provide briefings, consultation and advice, and to interpret meteorological information. (See RAC 3.2 for details).

Question 34

Q

In the STRATOSPHERE, the temperature:

Answer

A

Increases up to approximately -3°C.

Explanation

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause, the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56ºC.

The stratosphere begins above the tropopause up to a height of about 50,000 feet over the tropopause. In the stratosphere, pressure continues to decrease, but the temperature increases to reach approximately -3°C. The water vapour amount and the winds are very low. The stratosphere’s top. the stratopause. is higher at the poles and lower at the equator. At the stratopause, temperature begins to decrease again with altitude.

Question 35

Q

Among the following air masses, what is the one that will have the highest tropopause?

Answer

A

mT

Explanation

The troposphere is the atmosphere”s first layer. Its top can be from 28,000 feet ASL at the poles to 54,000 feet ASL at the equator. In the troposphere, pressure, density and temperature decrease quickly with altitude. Most weather phenomenons occur in the troposphere, and it is the place of most of light aviation.

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause, the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56°C.

A tropical maritime air mass (mT) is warm and moist. It is found near the equator.

Question 36

Q

The weight of an air column taken at a specific level defines the:

Answer

A

Atmospheric pressure.

Explanation

On Earth, the average atmospheric pressure at sea level essentially d

The pressure at the surface can be measured with a mercury barometer. It includes an open space filled with mercury in which the open side of a glass tube is dipped. The

atmospheric pressure mass pushes the mercury up in the glass tube. The higher the pressure, the higher the mercury rises. The mercury column reacts to the weight of

the air column starting from the ground to the top of the atmosphere.

Question 37

Q

The mean sea level pressure is the _____ pressure brought to MSL using the average local temperature for the last _____ hours.

Answer

A

Station; 12.

Explanation

The pressure at the station is the actual atmospheric pressure at the elevation of this station. As atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, the higher a station, the lower its pressure.

To obtain a constant pressure dist

To obtain the mean sea level pressure with the station pressure, add the weight of an imaginary air column going from the station to the mean sea level. Also take account

of the temperature at the station.

Question 38

Q

A trowal is:

Answer

A

A trough of warm air aloft.

Explana

A trowal (TROugh of Warm air Aloft) is a trough of warm air in altitude. It is found in warm or cold occlusion, or, in other words, when there are three air masses: a cool air mass moving over a cold air mass or a cold air mass moving over a cool air mass, and a third air mass, of warm air, that creates a trough above those two colder air masses.

Question 39

Q

The vertical distance between two pressure levels is _____ in cold air than in warm air.

Answer

A

Smaller.

Explanation

Air density is defined as the air mass per unity of volume. In cold air, molecules move slower and are closer than in warm air. In warm air, molecules occupy more room: there are fewer molecules for a given air volume. This is why cold air is denser than warm air.

Question 40

Q

Which of the following will cause the greatest altimeter error?

Answer

A

Low pressure and temperature.

Explanation

When an aircraft is in an air column where temperature is colder than standard atmosphere temperature, the true altitude above mean sea level is lower than the altitude indicated by the altimeter (the altimeter overestimates the altitude). The effect will be greater in dry air. The opposite occurs if the air column temperature is higher (the altimeter underestimates the altitude).

AIM, RAC 8.5: NOTE: When flying at a flight level in an area of low pressure, the true altitude will always be lower than the corresponding flight level. For example, this “pressure error,” in combination with a temperature error, can produce errors of up to 2 000 ft while flying in the standard pressure region at FL100. Further, mountain waves in combination with extremely low temperatures may result in an altimeter over-reading by as much as 3 000 ft. For further details, see AIR 1.5.

Question 41

Q

If you fly from a low-pressure area to a high-pressure area without changing your altimeter setting, the altimeter will show:

Answer

A

An altitude lower than the altitude above sea level.

Explanation

With too high an altimeter setting, the altimeter indicates a too high altitude. Each 0.10 inch of mercury added to the altimeter setting increases the indicated altitude on the altimeter by about 100 feet. From a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the altitude indicated by the altimeter (not corrected) is higher than the actual altitude. The same thing occurs when the altimeter passes from a warm air mass to a cold air mass.

The opposite occurs from a low pressure to a high pressure from a region of cold air to a region of warm air.

Question 42

Q

Weather station A is located on a ridge at 9,000 feet, and station B is located in a valley at the foot of this mountain. So, the sea level pressure at station A will be than _____ the sea level pressure at station B, and the station pressure at A will be _______ than the station pressure at B.

Answer

A

The same; lower

Explanation

The pressure at the station is the actual atmospheric pressure at the elevation of this station. As atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, the higher a station, the lower its pressure.

To obtain a constant pressure distribution, the various pressures are brought to the same level: the mean sea level (MSL).

To obtain the mean sea level pressure with the station pressure, add the weight of an imaginary air column going from the station to the mean sea level. Also take account of the temperature at the station.

Question 43

Q

Temperature diurnal variations will be the greatest in the area of:

Answer

A

An equatorial land.

Explanation

The earth is warmed up when it absorbs solar radiation (short wave type). It then warms up the troposphere’s low levels through earth radiation (long waves type) and conduction. After sunset, the earth continues to irradiate, which decrease its temperature and air temperature at the surface.

The land is a better conductor than water, so land surfaces cool down a lot at night whereas water surfaces cool down just a little. This is why radiation fog occurs over land.

Since earth is curved, most direct sun rays are on the equator. It is the place where atmosphere is most warmed up. At poles, it is the opposite: Sun rays hit earth with a very inclined angle, so they do not warm much earth surface. The atmosphere does not receive much heat. There is a huge gap of temperature between equator and poles.

Question 44

Q

Which of the following atmospheric processes are NOT heating processes of the atmosphere?

Which ones ARE heating processes?

Answer

A

Cooling processes:

Orographic lift
Convergence
Wake turbulence

Heating processes:

Convection
Subsidence
Radiation

Explanation
The earth is warmed up when it absorbs solar radiation (short wave type). It then warms up the troposphere’s low levels through earth radiation (long waves type) and conduction (to a lesser degree).The heat is then distributed to the troposphere’s higher layers by convection, advection, mechanical turbulence and compression (responsible for the subsidence).

Question 45

Q

What is an isothermal layer?

Answer

A

A layer with no temperature gradient.

Explanation

An isothermal layer is a layer for which the temperature gradient is nil. In ocher words, it is a layer where the temperature remains constant with altitude.

Question 46

Q

Which of the following instruments is used to measure the relative humidity of the air?

Answer

A

The psychrometer.

Explanation

The psychrometer is an instrument used to measure relative humidity. It is made up of two thermometers: the wet-bulb thermometer and the dry-bulb thermometer.

The wet-bulb temperature is the temperature that a parcel of air would attain

The dry-bulb temperature is the temperature of the air measured by a thermometer freely exposed to the air but protected from solar radiation and moisture. Unlike the

wet-bulb temperature, the dry-bulb temperature does not indicate air humidity.

Question 47

Q

When water vapor becomes liquid, it is called _____, and when water vapor directly becomes frost, it is called ______

Answer

A

Condensation; deposition.

Explanation

Condensation is the physical phenomenon of the change in state from a gas to a liquid. The opposite process is called evaporation. Deposition is when matter goes from a gas to a solid state. It is the opposite of sublimation.

Question 48

Q

The average lapse rate is ____°C per 1.000 feet, the dry adiabatic lapse rate is _____°C per 1.000 feet, and the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is feet. ______°C per 1,000

Answer

A

2; 3; 1.5

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is 1.5°C for every 1,000 feet.

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is 3°C for every 1,000 feet.

The average adiabatic lapse rate, which comes from the standard atmosphere temperature lapse rate (1.98°C for every 1,000 feet), is 2°C for every 1,000 feet.

Question 49

Q

Atmosphere stability can be determined by:

Answer

A

The environmental lapse rate.

Explanation

Air stability or instability depends on the existing relation between the temperature of the rising air and the temperature of the surrounding air through which it rises. The surrounding air temperature is indicated by the vertical lapse rate.

A strong lapse rate is a sign of unstable air, whereas a low lapse rate is a sign of stable air, an isothermal layer or an inversion. Any vertical lapse rate variation affects the stability.

Question 50

Q

_______ is a meteorological process that reduces the relative humidity and causes water to evaporate.

Answer

A

Subsidence

Explanation
The subsidence causes an increase of the ground level atmospheric pressure and, by adiabatic compression, warms up and dries out the air going down, stabilizing the atmosphere by creating a temperature inversion. The result is a dissipation of clouds from the top and a clear sky.

Question 51

Q

According to the following information, determine the distance and the time to the critical point in case of one engine failure:

Total distance of the flight: 2,200 NM
Track: 060°T
Aircraft endurance: 9 hours
TAS with all engines running: 480 knots
TAS with one engine inoperative: 270 knots -
Wind: 120°T/45 kts

Answer

A

1192.63NM

2h 13mins

Question 52

Q

When planning a flight to the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ), what type of flight plan must be filed?

Answer

A

A defence flight plan.

Explanation

CAR 602.145: When operating into or within the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ). In order to ensure that the Air Traffic System (ATS) is aware that VFR flights will be operating into or within the ADIZ, ATS requires that pilots file a Defence Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary.

Question 53

Q

State approval of unrestricted operations in the NAT HLA may presently be granted to an aircraft equipped with:

Answer

A

At least two fully serviceable Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNSs).

One Inertial Navigation System (INS) and one Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS).

Two Inertial Navigation System (INS).

Explanation

AIM, NAT 1.11.1 : Les exploicancs d’aeronefs utilises pour des vols dans le NAT HLA doivent s’assurer que ces aeronefs sonc munis d’un equipemenc de navigation minimal. Pour connatcre en detail les exigences, se referer aux documents suivants :

a) Doc 7030 de reorganisation de I’aviation civile incernacionale (OACI) — Procedures complementaires regionales;
b) NAT Doc 001 de I’OACI — NAT SPG Handbook;
c) NAT Doc 007 de I’OACI — North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual;
d) Parties VI ec Vll du RAC.

Question 54

Q

RVSM airspace and RVSM transition airspace extend from ____ to _____ inclusive.

Answer

A

FL290; FL410.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 11.7.2: (a) RVSM airspace is all airspace within CDA from FL290 to FL410 inclusive as defined in the DAH (TP 1820) and depicted in Figure 12.3 (refer to the figure).

Question 55

Q

When the temperature descends below the dew point, the pilot should be aware of the false indication “______ “ from the ______

Answer

A

Descend; PAPI/APAPI

Explanation

AIM, AGA 7.6.3: Lens Contamination—The PAPI/APAPI light box is a sealed design with a front lens or cover glass. When the temperature of the PAPI/APAPI unit lens or cover glass descends below the dew point, frost or condensation may occur depending on the season. Frost or condensation contamination may produce a false signal by mixing the red and white colours of the beam. Under these conditions, the relative intensities of the red and white portions of the beam may cause the mixture to be perceived as predominantly white in colour for a period of time after the PAPI/APAPI is first turned on. Since the mixture may be interpreted as a fly-down signal, the pilot should be aware of other cues (e.g. the runway perspective) so as to avoid descent below the OPS. When the PAPI/APAPI provides a true signal, it should display a crisp transition from white to red as the aircraft descends through the sectors. If contamination is suspected, flight crews are advised to disregard the PAPI/APAPI display.

Question 56

Q

PAPI and VASIS have a slope:

Answer

A

That is given if other than 3º

CAP GEN, INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURES => Approach Summary: If the PAPI or VASIS system is other than 3°, its angle is specified beside the PAPI or VASIS code.

Question 57

Q

Which of the following is true if a flight crew receives an RA from its TCAS?

Answer

A

The flight crew that receives an RA from its TCAS must follow it promptly and accurately, even if it goes against an ATC instruction or clearance.

Explanation

AIM, COM 9.6: (c) Flight crews are reminded to follow the RAs promptly and accurately, even though the RAs may change in strength and/or reverse. RA commands do not require large load factors when being followed. Any delay in responding to an RA could swiftly erode the ability to maintain or achieve adequate separation without resorting to strengthening RAs. For TCAS to provide safe vertical separation, initial vertical speed response is required within 5 seconds of the RA. Deviation from commands or second-guessing the commands should not occur. An RA prevails over any ATC instruction or clearance.

Question 58

Q

What can you say about TCAS regarding intruder aircraft?

What is the difference between TCAS I and TCAS II?

Answer

A

Intruder aircraft without transponders are invisible to TCAS-equipped aircraft.

Intruder aircraft equipped with a Mode C transponder without altitude input will be tracked as a non-altitude replying target,

TCAS I provides TAs, and TCAS II provides TAs and RAs.

Question 59

Q

What is the relationship between the frequency of a wave and its reception distance?

Answer

A

As the frequency of a wave increases, the reception distance provided decreases.

Explanation

Ground waves are affected by surface attenuation. This phenomenon leads to a loss of wave energy when in contact with the ground. The surface wave will continue to travel until it disappears because of surface attenuation.

The surface attenuation depends on the type of soil on which the wave travels. It will be smaller over water (allowing the wave to travel a great distance), and stronger over ice or sand.

The attenuation also depends on the frequency used: the higher the frequency, the higher the surface attenuation. VLF waves are then able to travel several thousand miles. HF waves are very affected by attenuation. VHF and UHF waves are not affected.

Question 60

Q

What is the purpose of HF single side band transmission?

Answer

A

Increase the transmission range.

Explanation

AIM, COM 1.2: The primary medium for aeronautical communications in Canada is VHF-AM in the frequency range of 118 to 137 MHz. For increased range in northern areas and the North Atlantic, HF-SSB is available in the frequency range of 2.8 to 22 MHz.

Question 61

Q

The area located between the maximum range of the ADF ground wave and the location of the first sky wave reaching the ground is called:

Answer

A

Skip zone.

Explanation

Regarding radio signals, a skip zone is a place between where ground waves end and reflected sky waves strike the Earth. In this zone, the receiver receives only erratic signals or no signals.

Question 62

Q

The distance on Earth’s surface between the transmitter of the radio wave and the point where the reflected sky wave strikes the Earth after it has been reflected by the ionosphere:

Answer

A

The skip distance.

Explanation
Regarding radio signals, the skip distance is the distance on Earth”s surface between the transmitter of the radio wave and the point where the reflected sky wave strikes the Earth after it has been reflected by the ionosphere.

Question 63

Q

ADF night effect occurs when:

Answer

A

Sky waves directed to the earth interfere with ground waves.

Explana

At night, the ionosphere reflects back more sky waves. This results in an increase of sky wave strength. Given those waves can come from any direction (according to the way and the place from which they have been reflected back), they interfere with the ground waves and cause wrong indications on the ADF. This is what’s called night effect.

Question 64

Q

The ADS WPR:

Answer

A

Is an automatic dependent surveillance waypoint position reporting system.

Explanation

AIM, COM 3.10

Answer 62

A

VHF and HF.

Explanation

The ACARS (Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System) is a coded communication system between an aircraft in flight and a ground station. It includes the on-board equipment (terminals linked to a router that transmits the messages to the ground), ground facilities, the ground equipment (a transmitter/receiver system operated by a central computer that retransmits the messages to the final receiver) and a service supplier.

The ACARS automatically controls the aircraft conditions during the flight, then sends a report to the maintenance centre of the airline company who owns the aircraft. It also allows the operational and logistic communication transit.

ACARS transmissions are made via VHF and HF, and are supported by satellite communications (SATCOM) in oceanic areas.

Answer 63

A

HF and VHF

Explanation

The SELCAL is a selective call system that allows the radio operator of a ground station to alert the pilot that he/she wants to communicate with him/her. This system can work in VHF or HF, but is mostly used in HF.

The SELCAL has mainly been developed to reduce background noise caused by the use of HF in the cockpit. The pilot may reduce the noise level of the radio receiver until he/she is alerted by the SELCAL.

When the operator of a ground station wants to communicate with the pilot, he/she selects the SELCAL code (composed of 4 letters) of the aircraft (available in the flight plan). The SELCAL recognizes the code and transmits a visual and/or audible alert in the cockpit. Then the pilot increases the noise level to communicate with the calling station.

Answer 64

A

For 30 days, but the aircraft must be placarded in the meantime.

Explanation

CAR 605.39: If an aircraft is required to have one ELT under section 605.38, the operator shall re-equip the aircraft with a serviceable ELT within 30 days after the date of removal.

Answer 65

A

When the aircraft experiences a deceleration force between 5g and 7g within a period of 11 milliseconds.

Explanation

The automatic ELT turns on through an inertial sensor when the aircraft is subject to a deceleration from 5 g to 7 g on the horizontal plane for 11 milliseconds during a crash.

Answer 66

A

Listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.

AIM, SAR 3.4: Post-flight

Listen to 121.5 MHz. If an ELT is detected, and your ELT has not been switched to “OFF”, deactivate it. For those ELT models that do not have an “OFF’ switch, disconnect and re-set the unit per the manufacturer’s instructions. Notify the nearest ATS unitor joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC) of the time the signal was first heard, the actions you have taken and whether the signal has ceased or is on-going. If you still hear an ELT on 121.5 MHz after you have deactivated your ELT, it may not be yours. Notify the nearest ATS unit or JRCC.

Answer 67

A

Nearest ATS unit.

Explanation

AIM, SAR 3.7: To forestall unnecessary search and rescue (UNSAR) missions, all accidental emergency locator transmitter (ELT) activations shall be reported to the nearest air traffic service (ATS) unit, or the nearest joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC), giving the location of the transmitter, and the time and duration of the accidental transmission and the ELT shall be switched off.

Answer 68

A

Complements SSR.

Is used for terminal operations.

Is a primary radar.

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.1: (a) TSR: In general, a shore-range PSR (80 NM) operating on 1 250 to 1 350 MHz complements SSR for terminal operations.

Answer 69

A

E

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.3.2: ADS-B capable aircraft should enter the appropriate equipment code in Item 10 of the ICAO flight plan. The appropriate code may be found in RAC

3.15.4.2.

Answer 70

A

20 NM

Explanation

On weather radar, storms to avoid are represented by red targets. Where there is no precipitation between targets, those areas remain dark. Dark areas are called corridors.

On the radar scope, hook and finger echoes identify areas of hail and turbulence.

When you are in flight with a thunderstorm on your route, change your heading as soon as possible to avoid it. Maintain a distance of at least 5 NM between you and the thunderstorm to avoid hail. If the thunderstorm is very violent, turbulence could be experienced within 15 NM of the thunderstorm. In this case, fly farther away. 20 NM would be a good call… a violent thunderstorm will be recognizable from the frequent lightning. A thunderstorm with its top at 35,000 feet or more should be considered as very violent and extremely dangerous.

Answer 71

A

The radar echo intensity is determined to a greater extent by the size of the drops than by the number of drops.

Explanation

The size of water droplets is a key factor for weather radar. In fact, weather radar can only see droplets that are large enough, and therefore weighty enough, to fall in the form of rain.

Answer 72

A

The use of che tilt control.

Explanation
Airborne weather radar is only able to detect targets detected by its beam. The beam covers only a small area (from 3 to 10°), therefore tilt management of the radar

antenna is important to target zones of interest (middle and lower regions of the thunderstorm, where che rain is most concentrated). This enables the pilot to control the

antenna angle on the vertical plan.

Answer 73

A

It is unable to detect rain.

It is able to display most electrical activities in a storm or line of storms.

It is able to display cells behind thunderstorms or mountains.

Explanation

The lightning detection equipment (stormscope) is a system (

The advantages of this detection equipment over the weather radar are that it is not (or few) subject to attenuation, it can detect the presence of thunderstorms behind

higher terrain at lower altitudes, and it is less expensive.

Answer 74

A

240; 330.

Answer 75

A

±5°; ±10°

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.6: Accuracy: NDB systems are flight checked to an accuracy of at least ±5° for an approach and ±10° for en route.

Answer 76

A

Less than 30

Explanation

When ADF radio waves go from the ground to the sea, their route changes, making the bearing taken by an aircraft above water on an inland station inaccurate. This phenomenon, called “shoreline effect” (or “coastal effect”) will happen when the bearing makes an angle of less than 30° with the shoreline.

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