1 Flashcards

1
Q

A flight crew member on standby has been designated by an air operator or private operacor to:

A

Remain at a specified location in order to be available to report for flight duty on notice of one hour or less.

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2
Q

The purpose of an MEL is

A

To authorize an operator to operate an aircraft with aircraft equipment that is inoperative under the conditions specified therein, and may specify certain equipment that must be operative.

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3
Q

Is it possible to retain the serviceability data of your propeller or rotor, airframe, engine and record of modifications in an electronic form?

A

Yes. if measures are taken to ensure that the records contained in the recording systems are protected against inadvertent loss or destruction and a copy of the records contained in the recording systems can be printed on paper and provided at a reasonable time.

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4
Q

An airline transport pilot with an expired Group 1 instrument Rating may exercise the privileges of:

A

A commercial pilot licence, but cannot act as PIC on an aircraft requiring a minimum of two pilots on crew.

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5
Q

If you are conducting a holding procedure before landing at an aerodrome located in the standard pressure region, you shall set your altimeter to:

A

The altimeter setting of the aerodrome immediately before descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.

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6
Q

Where an aircraft is operated at a cabin-pressure-altitude of 11.000 feet asl. shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at this altitude lasting more than 30 minutes.

A

Each crew member.

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7
Q

No person shall operate an aeroplane in _____ unless it is equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment.

A

Any class D or e airspace specified as transponder airspace in the Designated Airspace Handbook.

The transponder airspace.

Class A B or c airspace.

All of the above. (right Answer)

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8
Q

In order to check that an ELT is working, you should test it:

A

In the first 5 minutes of each UTC hour, and the test should last no more than 5 seconds.

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9
Q

Consider a foreign-manufactured aircraft registered in Canada, if the manufacturer issues an airworthiness directive for this aircraft, the owner:

A

Shall ensure that its aircraft compiles with this directive.

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10
Q

what is the maximum flight duty period for a flight crew member under the following conditions:

  • Operation: 705
  • Average flight duration: 45 minutes
  • Number of flights: 10
  • Start time of flight duty period: 22:15
  • Condition: IFR
A

10 hours.

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11
Q

Consider a flight crew member of an airline company beginning their flight duty period at a location that is in a time zone other than the time zone in which home base is located, and ending their flight duty period at home base. The local time at the location where the flight duty period began differs by more than 1 o hours from the local time at home base, and the member has been away from home base for more than 60 consecutive hours, in this situation, the air operator shall provide the flight crev/ member with a rest period of at least:

A

Three local nights’ rest.

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12
Q

Which of the following best describes air taxi operations?

A

An air transport service using either single-engine aircraft or multi-engine aircraft with a mean certified takeoff weight of 19.000 lbs or less with a 9-passenger limit.

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13
Q

which of the following is true regarding an airline operation in Canada?

A

Every crew member shall follow the checklist, established by the air operator for each aircraft type, in the performance of the crew members assigned duties.

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14
Q

When weather reports or forecasts indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival, no air operator shall dispatch or conduct a takeoff in a turbojet-powered aeroplane unless the landing distance available (LDA) ac the destination aerodrome is at least % of the landing distance required if the aircraft flight manual does not include specific information about landing distances on wet runways.

A

115.

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15
Q

For flight crew members of an airline operation, flight training is required every____months, and training on aircraft surface contamination and fatigue management is required every____months.

A

6; 12

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16
Q

The high altitude training taken by flight crew members should include:

1 - Most likely causes of a rapid pressurization loss

2 - Hypoxia

3 - Respiration

4 - Noise caused by a rapid pressurization loss

5 - Cabin temperature change with height

6 - Effects on objects located near the point of fuselage failure after a rapid pressurization loss

7 - Duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental oxygen

8 - Cabin fogging in cold weather

9 - Gas expansion and gas bubble formation

10 - Hyperventilation

A

1.2.3. 4. 6. 7 and 9.

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17
Q

The term “aviation accident” is used when:

A

The aircraft suscains structural failure or damage that adversely affects the aircraft’s structural strength.

The aircraft is inaccessible.

A person is killed or suscains a serious injury as a result of being on board the involved aircraft.

All of the above (right answer)

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18
Q

You are flying ac FL380 in an RVSM-certified aircraft. Your track is 180°M. what would be the next RVSM flight level you should use if you want to descend 1.000 feet?

A

FL360.

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19
Q

The basic vhf/uhf airway width is NM on each side of the centreline during the first____ NM from the station, it is then increased to an angle of ____ on each side of the centreline.

A

4.0; 50.8O; 4.5º

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20
Q

When within area 2. 3 or 4 of a designated mountainous region, outside airways and air routes, you should fly at least______feet above the highest obstacle within_____NM of the aircraft.

A

1.500:5.

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21
Q

A turbojet aeroplane in a night VFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aeroplane:

A

To fly to the destination aerodrome and chen to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

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22
Q

Controllers apply a radar separation minima of ____miles between a preceding ifr/vfr category h aircraft and a category M aircraft vectored directly behind it and at less than 1.000 ft during any phase of flight.

A

5 miles.

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23
Q

when a pilot accepts a LAHSO clearance:

A

He/she must read back the clearance and he/she has the responsibility to hold short of the position given.

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24
Q

To ensure chac the aircraft does not exceed the obstacle clearance protected airspace, what is the speed limitation of a turbojet aircraft climbing in a shuttle procedure?

A

The airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts or. if no airspeed limit is published. 310 kias.

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25
Q

if a VFR aircraft has been intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft must:

A

Squawk 7700 on the transponder.

TTy to establish radio communication with intercepting aircraft on 121.5 MHz and comply with interception signals.

Respond to interception signals with the appropriate visual signals.

All of the above. (RA)

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26
Q

Whac is the advantage of using composite materials for an aircraft?

A

Composite materials are lighter than most other materials.

Composite materials perfectly follow the contours of the other parts.

Composite materials are robust.

All of the above. (RA)

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27
Q

Generally, the canard surface produces:

A

Positive lift.

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28
Q

The thrust reversers mainly used in by-pass turbofan engines are the _____thrust reversers. which divert a portion of the forward.

A

Cascade; cold gases of the by-pass.

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29
Q

Whac is the ’flex temp”?

A

it is the assumed temperature used to reduce the thrust of a gas turbine engine.

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30
Q

Compared to the axial compressor, the centrifugal compressor:

A

Has a larger frontal area.

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31
Q

in an engine equipped with a turbocharger, the turbocharger compresses the air ______ it is mixed with the fuel, when the outside air is not dense enough, the wastegate valve_____ thereby directing exhaust gas to the turbine, which will start
to rotate and thus compress the air.

A

Before; closes.

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32
Q

FADEC is a system:

A

That automatically controls fuel flow to the engine, allowing the engine to maintain its efficiency as flight and environmental conditions change.

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33
Q

What mechanism used on an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller allows engine speed to remain stable no matter the aeroplane’s attitude?

A

The propeller governor.

34
Q

What is the mechanism that prevents the reversing of a turboprop engine aeroplane during a cruise flight?

A

The low (or fine) pitch stop system.

35
Q

Which of the following devices offer electrical protections to an aircraft’s electrical circuits?

1 • Fuse

2 - Generator control unit

3 - Circuit breakers

4 • inverter

5 - Alternator

A

1.2 and 3.

36
Q

Which syscem(s) allow(s) the de-icing boots of a jec aeroplane to work?

A

The high pressure compressor.
The fan air valve.
The pneumatic collector.
All of the above. (RA)

37
Q

you are flying at FL380 in an aeroplane pressurized at a cabin pressure altitude of 6.000 feet. You are planning to land at an airport that has an elevation of 3.600 feet. During the descent, you will have a groundspeed of 380 knots and a rate of descent of 2.000 feet per minute. So. the rate of descent required for your cabin to arrive on the ground with zero differential pressure will be feet per minute.

A

140.

38
Q

If the static port of your aircraft blocks during a descent, your vertical speed indicator will . your altimeter will and your airspeed indicator will

A

Read 0; freeze at the altitude at which the static port has been blocked; overestimate.

39
Q

According to the following information, determine flight time:

  • information from a fb (above 24.000 feet): 345060
  • Distance to fly: 200 NM
  • Aircraft Mach number: 0.88
  • True course: 300º
A

25 minutes

40
Q

During acceleration, the bar of your attitude indicator (which works using a vacuum pump) will:

A

Moves down and thus give a false indication of climb.

41
Q

which of the following cannot be indicated in an efis?

1 - The aircraft calibrated airspeed

2- The aircraft attitude

3- The aircraft heading

4 - The aircraft track

5 - The aircraft vertical speed

6 - The aircraft yaw

7 - The weather enroute

8 - The aircraft systems information

A

8

7

1,3,6 and 7

None of the above (RA)

42
Q

In a PT6-eype free turbine engine. Np represents the _____speed rotation and Ng represents the ___speed rotation.

A

Propeller; compressor.

43
Q

Why is the magnet syscem of the magnetic compass balanced like a pendulum?

A

To compensate for magnecic dip.

44
Q

The “air position” is the calculated position of an aircraft in conditions.

A

No wind.

45
Q

What is the minimum altitude at which you can use an enroute high altitude chart?

A

18.000 feet.

46
Q

According to the information below, determine the wind direction and speed:

  • Magnetic variation: 10=w
  • Aircraft heading indicated on the HSl: 076=
  • Aircraft TAS: 230 kts
  • VOR indication you maintain with the OBS on 240: Needle centred/FROM
  • Groundspeed indicated by the DME: 275 kts
A
  • 180=T/83 kts.
47
Q

Usually, where is the missed approach waypoint of an rnav approach located?

A

Over the runway threshold.

48
Q

In the international Standard atmosphere, temperature decreases by _____ every 1.000 feet of height.

A

1.98ºC.

49
Q

When at sea level in isa conditions. TAS equals IAS if there are no instrument errors, when climbing above 20.000 feet and maintaining a constant IAS. TAS will:

A

increase by 2% for every 1.000 feet.

50
Q

In which case will the increase of V1 allow the accelerate-stop discance and the accelerate-go distance to be balanced?

1 - Heavy aeroplane

2 - Tailwind

3 - High temperature

4 - upslope runway

5 - High density altitude

6 - Snow on runway

7 - low relative humidity

8 - very long runway

A

1.3.4. 5 and 8.

51
Q

Which of the following is taken into account by an aircraft’s manufacturer to determine Vmca?

1 - Standard day

2- Maximum sea-level takeoff weight

3 -C.G. at the front limit

4 - critical engine off with its propeller windmilling or on feather position if the aircraft is equipped with an automatic feathering device

5 - Takeoff power on operating engine

6 - Landing gear down

7 - Flaps in the takeoff position

8 - Five degrees of bank toward the operative engine

A

1,245 and 7.

52
Q

In determining whether a turbojet aeroplane used in a commuter operation can be dispatched or a takeoff can be conducted, not more than _____% of the reported headwind component or not less than ____ % of the reported tailwind

component shall be taken into account.

A

50; 150.

53
Q

The centre of gravity of an 18.000 lb aircraft is located 1.3 inches aft of the aft limit, you decide to move some baggage from compartment 2 (at 320 inches) to compartment 1 (at 180 inches). What is the weight that you should move in order to take off safely?

A

168 pounds.

When exceeding the aircraft balance limits, use the following formula to come back within the limits: Weight to Wove / Aircraft Weight = Distance C.G. has to Move / Distance Between Arms

in this case, the unknown is the weight to move. So:

Weight to Move = (Aircraft Weight x Distance C.G. has to Move) / Distance Between Arms

54
Q

For this series of 5 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.

According to the information below, whac is the total weight of the loaded aircraft?

  • Pilot and front passenger: 360 pounds • Second-row passenger: 135 pounds
  • Third-row passenger: 210 pounds
  • 3aggage: 220 pounds
  • Fuel: 48 USG
  • Oil: as mdicaced
A

3.351 pounds.

55
Q

For this series of 5 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.

using the result obtained in the previous question and the table, determine the loaded aircrafts centre of gravity.

A

30.47” aft of the datum.
91.37” aft of the datum.
89.97” aft of the datum.
None of the above. RA

56
Q

Question 56

For this series of 5 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.

Using the results obtained in the previous questions and the table, determine if the aircraft’s centre of gravity is within its limits when loaded.

A

No.

57
Q

For this series of 5 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.

Please use the “Gross weight moment limits” chart to answer this question. The empty aircraft’s centre of gravity is inches.

A

78.3.

58
Q

For this series of 5 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.

if the aircraft is loaded to its maximum (3.400 pounds), the forward limit of the centre of gravity is and the rearward limit of the centre of gravity is

A

82.0”; 84.5’.

59
Q

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix.
According to the conditions below, determine the total takeoff distance:

  • Temperature at the airport: 24ºC
  • Elevation of the airport: 2.290 feet
  • Altimeter setting: 28.12 inches of mercury
  • Aircraft gross weight: 15.000 lbs
  • Headwind: 10 knots
  • Runway gradient: 0.4% downhill
  • Anti-skid system: on
A

6ooo feet

To use the takeoff distance graph, first calculate the altitude pressure at the airport.

To find the altitude pressure, use the following formula:

Pressure Altitude = Altitude - 1.000 x (29.92- Altimeter setting)

in this example:

Pressure Altitude = 2290 - I.OCOX (29.92 - 28.12) = 2290 * 1.000 X 1.8 = 2290 - 1.800 = 4.090 feet For more precision, use an electronic flight calculator: FLIGHT > Altitude > Press Alt

60
Q

Refer to image 2 in the Appendix.

To climb from 4.000 to 12.000 feet (standard altitudes), your aircraft will consume USG. will last minutes, at a distance of NM.

A

7.8; 22; 31.

61
Q

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

Determine true airspeed based on the following information:

  • Aircraft weight: 2.300 lbs
  • Rotation of the engine: 2.100 RPM
  • Standard altitude: 6.500 feet
A

175 MPH.

62
Q

Refer to image 4 in the Appe

using the information below, determine the landing roll distance.

  • Airport altitude: MSL
  • Altimeter setting: 28.33”Hg • OAT: 25°C.
  • Headwind: I3kts
  • Aircraft weight: 2.300 lbs
A

989 feet.

63
Q

Refer to images 5 t

According to the conditions below, determine the total landing distance:

  • Runway: Dry

• Brake use: max manual

  • Landing gross weight: 55.000 Kg
  • Airport elevation: ZOOO ft
  • Head/tail winds: Nil
  • Runway gradient: Nil
  • OAT: ISA
  • Approach speed: Vrefi 5
  • Reverse thrust: use of both
  • Flaps: 15
  • Speedbrakes: auto
A

4.100 feet.

64
Q

A sigmet will be issued in case of _____ turbulence.

A

Severe

65
Q

The load factor during a turn with a 15° angle of bank is___. _____ during a turn with a 45c angle of bank, and _____ during a turn with a 75° angle of bank.

A

1.04; 1.41; 3.86.

1/cos(angle of bank)

66
Q

Which of the following is true?

An anhedral wing will have reduced lateral stability.

An anhedral wing will have better lateral stability.

An anhedral wing will have improved longitudinal stability.

An anhedral wing will have improved direccional stability

A

An anhedral wing will have reduced lateral stability.

67
Q

The induced drag is:

A

Inversely proportional to the square of the aircraft speed.

68
Q

On a four-engine propeller aircraft, the critical engine is the engine:

A

1 or 4. depending on the propeller direction of rotation.

69
Q

According to the information below, determine your true airspeed:

  • Mach number: 0.88
  • Outside air temperature: -37ºc
  • Flight level: FL310
A

527 knots.

Explanation

To determine che tas when knowing the Mach number (M) and the outside air cemperature (T). use che simplified formula below TAS (in knots) = 39 x M sqr (T (In kelvins))

For che conversion between keMn and Celsius temperatures, use che following formula:

Tk = Tc-273.15

Here: Tk = 273.15 - 37 = 236.15 K
TAS = 39 X 0.88 \ 236.15 = 527.40 knots

70
Q

At the critical Mach number (Mcrit):

A

The first show waves appear on the wings.

71
Q

The _____ is a device chat is used to reduce Dutch roll.

A

Yaw damper.

72
Q

In the human body, what carries oxygen (02) to the tissues?

A

The hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.

73
Q

Which of the following is false with respect to hyperventilation?

Hyperventilation may compound the problem of hypoxia.
Hyperventilation is the term used to describe breathing that is too fast and too deep.
The symptoms of hyperventiladon are similar to chose of hypoxia.
Hyperventilation is caused by an amount of carbon dioxide that is too high in the blood.

A

Hyperventilation is caused by an amount of carbon dioxide that is too high in the blood.

74
Q

What is the primary part of the eye that plays a role in the focusing process?

A

The cornea.

75
Q

Which of the following is wrong with regards to a pilot’s fatigue in flight?

Fatigue prevents the pilot from focusing on multiple tasks and multiple instruments.

A tired pilot can be irritable.

A tired pilot will have the tendency to over control the aircraft he/she is flying.

A pilot who frequently feels tired should see an aviation doctor to be allowed to take energetic drugs that would improve his/her ability in flight.

A

A pilot who frequently feels tired should see an aviation doctor to be allowed to take energetic drugs that would improve his/her ability in flight.

76
Q

After alcohol consumption, how can you reduce the amount of alcohol that is in your blood?

A

The rate ac which your body gets rid of consumed alcohol is always the same. The only solution is to wait.

77
Q

While preparing his/her navigation flight on the ground, the pilot of an aircraft notices that the weather will be good during the entire flight. However, during the flight, the weather deteriorates but the pilot decides to continue the flight on the intended track.

Which of the following best describes the pilot’s behaviour?

A

The pilot deliberately uses wrong cues in order to confirm his/her initial decision.

78
Q

The Threat and Error Management program:

A

Helps pilots determine a wrong decision from a right decision in case of threat.

Shows pilots that mismanagement may lead to an undesired aircraft state, which can lead to an accident.

Helps pilots find a response to a threat to an undesired Aircraft State that results in the alleviation of risk by returning from the undesired Aircraft State to safe flight.

All of the above. RA

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an effective pilot-m-command?

The pilot-m-command is sensitive to other crew members’ personal problems that might potentially affect operations.

The pilown-command feels the obligation to discuss personal limitations.

The pilot-m-command recognizes chat he/she must employ a consistent, authoritarian style of management in order to keep a climate of respect.

None of che above.

A

The pilot-in-command recognizes chat he/she must employ a consistent, authoritarian style of management in order to keep a climate of respect.

80
Q

in which of the following situations will a CFU accident most likely occur?

A

When flying below dh or mda.