2_1

Question 1

The height of the tropopause:

Answer 1

Will be greater in a warm air mass.

Explanation

The troposphere is the atmosphere”s first layer. Its top can be from 28,000 feet ASL at the poles to 54,000 feet ASL at the equator. In the troposphere, pressure, density and temperature decrease quickly with altitude. Most weather phenomenons occur in the troposphere, and it is the place of most of light aviation.

The troposphere top is called “tropopause.” At the tropopause. the temperature stops decreasing and is constant at about -56°C.

Because of air density, the tropopause will be higher in warm air than in cold air.

Question 2

Question 02

The lower border of the mesosphere is the _______, and its upper border is the _____

Answer 2

Stratopause; mesopause

Explanation

The acmosphere is divided into 4 different layers. From the Earth surface, chere is Troposphere (its top is called the Tropopause), Stratosphere (its top is called che Stracopause), Mesosphere (its top is called the Mesopause) and finally. Thermosphere.

Question 3

The air at the centre of a HIGH-pressure system will tend to move _____ and _____ in the direction of the low-pressure systems.

Answer 3

Downward; outward.

Explanation
Wind associated with high pressure is light and relatively constant. It circulates clockwise around the high pressure centre (in the Northern Hemisphere) and heads outward toward the low pressure. There is therefore a divergence in this zone. This move to the outside is compensated by a descending movement. It partially explains why precipitation is not likely in this area.

Question 4

You are on final approach to an airport that has an elevation of 1,020 feet. The airport altimeter setting is 29.72 inches of mercury but you forget to calibrate your altimeter, which therefore remains at your departure airport altimeter setting of 30.09 inches of mercury. Arriving at an indicated altitude of 1,440 feet, the actual height of your aircraft above the ground is feet

Answer 4

50

Explanation

The altimeter is calibrated for the standard atmosphere, so it has to be set with real pressure conditions to provide pilots with the right altitude above sea level. This pressure (standardized atmospheric pressure) is the altimeter setting given, in North America, in inches of mercury.

With too high an altimeter setting, the altimeter indicates a too high altitude. Each 0.10 inches of mercury added to the altimeter setting increases the altitude on the altimeter by about 100 feet.

To determine your current altitude, remove the altimeter setting from the right altimeter setting and multiply the result by 1,000.

Here: 29.72- 30.09 = -0.37 -0.37 x 1,000 = -370 feet

The current altitude is: 1,440 - 370 = 1,070 feet ASL.

The elevation of the arrival airport is 1.020 feet. Your height over the ground is then: 1,070 - 1,020 = 50 feet.

Question 5

A temperature of ISA+15 at FL290 corresponds to:

Answer 5

-27

Explanation

In North America, ICAO standard atmosphere is based on average winter and summer at 40° latitude. Here are the conditions:

• air is a dry gas;
• pressure at mean sea level is 29.92 inches of mercury;
• temperature at mean sea level is 15°C;
• temperature decreasing rate with altitude is 1.98°C for every 1,000 feet.

Here : T° = 15 - (29 x 1.98) + 15 = -27°C

You can also use your electronic flight calculator.

Question 6

What is the definition of “relative humidity”?

What happens when you add water vapour while maintaining a constant pressure and temperature? What happens when we remove water vapour?

Answer 6

The amount of water vapour present in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature.

Explanation

Relative humidity is the relation between water vapour in the air and the same quantity this volume of air would contain if it were saturated, keeping the same temperature and the same atmospheric pressure. The air is saturated when it reaches 100% of relative humidity, while dry air has 0% relative humidity.

This relation will change if the temperature or the pressure changes, whereas absolute humidity will not change: when an air mass is warmed up without adding any water vapour, its relative humidity decreases. The opposite happens if we cool it down. If the cooling process lasts, relative humidity reaches 100%, making the air saturated. The less the difference between temperature and dew point is, the higher the relative humidity is.

By adding water vapour while maintaining a constant pressure and temperature, relative humidity increases. The opposite is produced when we remove water vapour.

Question 7

How does drizzle form?

Answer 7

With the condensation in stratus clouds

Explanation
Drizzle (DZ) is a type of precipitation where small water droplets seem to float in the air. Drizzle usually appears in low stratus clouds. It is mostly found in coastal areas and

in high altitude valleys where there are temperature inversions and stratus clouds. As stratus clouds are characterized by stable air, the water droplets cannot develop by collisions: they will principally grow due to condensation.

Question 8

The moist adiabatic lapse rate is ______ than the dry adiabatic lapse rate because _______

Answer 8

Lower; latent heat from vapourization is released from saturated air during the condensation process.

Explanation

As air rises, it encounters a lower pressure: it expands and cools. This process is called “adiabatic cooling.”

Non-saturated air is cooled by approximately 3°C for each 1,000 feet. This phenomenon is called the “dry adiabatic lapse rate.”
If air is cooled to the dew point, condensation forms and clouds appear. During condensation, latent heat of vapourization is released in the rising air, which reduces the

speed at which the air temperature decreases as it rises. This is called “saturated adiabatic lapse rate.” The air is cooled by approximately 1.5°C for every 1,000 feet.

Question 9

What lifting process can cause the formation of towering cumulus clouds in the centre of a low pressure system?

Answer 9

Convergence

Explanation
When several airflows are converging in one area, they rise after they meet. This lift supports thunderstorm development and precipitations like rain, hail or snow. This is

what happens in a low-pressure area: air arrives from several high-pressure areas and blows through the isobars toward the depression centre. Air collects and overflow

rises. The convergence is a lift agent.

Question 10

Wind shear and its accompanying CAT in jet streams is more intense ______ of mountain ranges.

Answer 10

Above and to the lee

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

2. Wind shear and its accompanying CAT in jet streams is more intense above and to the lee of mountain ranges. For this reason, CAT should be anticipated whenever the flight path crosses a strong jet stream in the vicinity of a mountain range.

Question 11

If clear air turbulence is encountered with an abrupt wind-shift associated with a sharp pressure trough, you should:

Answer 11

Cross the trough.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

10. If turbulence is encountered with an abrupt wind-shift associated with a sharp pressure trough, a course should be established to cross the trough rather than to fly parallel to it. A change in flight level is not as likely to reduce turbulence.

Question 12

Determine the wind speed and its approximate direction over water under the following conditions:

• Pressure gradient: constant
• Surface wind speed over land: 35 knots
• Angle between the surface wind over land and isobars: 35°

Answer 12

45 knots and 25°.

Explanation

As altitude decreases, a force influences air speed and direction circulating from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. Friction between air masses and the Earth’s surface causes air movement deceleration, reducing the wind speed. Deceleration reduces the Coriolis force (proportional to wind speed), changing the initially dextrorotatory wind movement (to the right) in the Northern Hemisphere. Air moving away from high-pressure areas, associated with the Coriolis force, is then levorotatory and blows counterclockwise around low pressures.

Above 2,000 feet, wind blows almost parallel to the isobars, whereas at low altitude it tends to cross them.
The stronger the surface friction, the higher the deviation angle of the air compared to the isobars and the stronger its deceleration. This angle is lower over water than

over land, especially if the land is rough. Over land, deviation can go up to 40°, whereas over water it rarely goes over 10°.

Question 13

A sudden increase in wind speed over a long period of time is called:

Answer 13

Squall

Explanation

A squall is approximately the same as a gust: it is an abrupt wind strength increasing, but lasting longer. It can be the result of a fast cold front passing or a thunderstorm (refer to squall line).

Question 14

A wind shear

Answer 14

An important difference in wind speed or direction over a relatively short distance in the atmosphere.

It can be vertical or horizontal. It causes strong turbulence at the friction-layer level.

Question 15

What is associated with the increase of wind shear performances (positive wind shear)?

Answer 15

With an increase of the headwind and a decrease of the tailwind.

Explanation
A positive wind shear is a headwind speed increasing or a tailwind speed decreasing. In such a case, the aircraft inertia leads to a delay of seconds before the aircraft reacts to this change. During this time, the aircraft airspeed increases. If the increase occurs during approach, airspeed will suddenly be greater. Lift will be greater as well, and rate of descent lower. You should therefore decrease power.

Question 16

How is a low-level nocturnal jet stream created? What does it cause? What happens when the conditions that produce it are no longer active? When does it reach its maximum? what about its minimum?

Answer 16

It is a phenomenon caused by a nocturnal inversion.

This jet stream generally causes winds about fifty knots and dangerous low-level wind shears.

The wind speed near the ground increases when the inversion dissipates.

Maximum shortly after midnight and decreases in intensity in the morning

Explanation

A low-level nocturnal jet stream is a phenomenon caused by a nocturnal inversion. The wind shear, near the inversion’s top, is at its maximum shortly after midnight and decreases in intensity in the morning because of daytime heating, which dissipates the inversion. During dissipation, the wind shear moves closer to the ground, causing wind shifts and increased wind speed close to the ground.

The associated low level is represented by a layer of strong winds. It arises over flat terrains, usually in summer with southwest winds, and is thousands of miles long, hundreds of miles wide and hundreds of feet thick. This jet stream usually causes winds of about fifty knots and dangerous low-level wind shears.

Caution: In this question, it is asked to find the “false” answer.

Question 17

Expected weather at a frontal system is dependent on the stability and moisture content of the _____

In a cold front, if ____ _____ is unstable, you will encounter _____ clouds. The lifting agent will be the ____. Vertical development will depend on the front’s ____ and ____

Answer 17

Warm air mass.

Warm air mass; cumulus; frontal surface; slope; speed

Explanation

Meteorological conditions at frontal systems are predicted according to the warm air mass features.

At a warm front, if warm air is moist and stable, stratus clouds will be what you encounter. If warm air is moist and unstable, you can expect to encounter convective clouds, sometimes hidden in stratus clouds. Therefore, you should expect strong showers in front of the frontal surface.

At a cold front, if warm air is stable, you will encounter stratus clouds. If warm air is unstable, you will encounter cumulus clouds. Here, the lifting agent is the frontal surface, so the vertical development force will depend on the front’s slope and speed.

Question 18

A mT air mass moving northward over the Great Lakes during spring will probably cause:

Answer 18

The formation of low stratus clouds, fog and drizzle on the north shore of the lakes.

A tropical maritime air mass (mT) is warm and moist.

Stratus clouds usually appear when a layer of moist air is stable and cooled down under the saturation point. They appear in horizontal layers.

Fog is a cloud, usually stratus, on the ground. It appears when air is cooled down to a temperature below its dew point or when the dew point is risen to the outside air temperature by the addition of water steam.

Stratus clouds look like fog, except they do not touch the g

Drizzle (DZ) is a type of precipitation where small water droplets seem to float in the air. Drizzle usually appears in low stratus clouds. It is mostly found in coastal areas and

in high altitude valleys where there are temperature inversions and stratus clouds. As stratus clouds are characterized by stable air, the water droplets cannot develop by collisions: they will principally grow due to condensation.

Question 19

In winter, over North America, the most common air masses are:

Answer 19

mP
mA
cA

Explanation

In North America, air masses are mostly, from north to south, continental Arctic (cA), continental polar (cP). maritime Arctic (mA), maritime polar (mP) and maritime tropical (mT).

In winter, the most common air masses are the maritime polar, the maritime Arctic and the continental Arctic air masses.

Question 20

What is frontogenesis?

Answer 20

The formation of a front.

Explanation

Frontogenesis is the creation process of a front or a frontal zone intensification with physics (like radiation) or kinematics (like air movement) influences. The frontolysis is the process of a front or a frontal zone dissipation with physics (like radiation) or kinematics (like air movement) influences.

Question 21

In flight, an aircraft is heading toward a warm front. From the cold air to the warm air, it will encounter, in this sequence:

Answer 21

High clouds, a lowering cloud cover and continuous rain.

Explanation

It is easy to see a warm active front approaching. The first clue is high cirrus clouds. Immediately afterward, you can see cirrostratus. It keeps growing until it becomes a solid altostratus and altocumulus mass. Low nimbostratus join altostratus to create a bench of compact clouds with their base close to the surface and their top up to 25,000 feet (sometimes more), which covers the whole area. Precipitation, usually abundant, will create precipitation fog (or frontal fog) and will develop because of extra humidity.

Question 22

Weather conditions that can be expected at a cold front are determined with:

Bonus questions:

What happens if the cold front is moving quickly?
What happens if the air of the warm air mass is unstable and moist?

Answer 22

The moisture and the stability of the warm air mass and with the speed of the advancing cold front.

Explanation
The weather associated with a cold front depends both on the stability and the moisture of the warm air mass lifted by the cold air mass and the cold front speed. If the cold front is moving quickly, surface winds and gusts tend to increase. In addition, if the air of the warm air mass is unstable and moist, convective clouds (towering cumulus, cumulonimbus, etc.) and thunderstorms will appear. They result in strong rain or hail showers.

Question 23

A pilot is in flight with a heading of 270 through a trowal. The temperature:

Answer 23

Increases then drops.

Explanation:

A trowal (TROugh of Warm air Aloft) is a trough of warm air in altitude. It is found in warm or cold occlusion, or, in other words, when there are three air masses: a cool air mass moving over a cold air mass or a cold air mass moving over a cool air mass, and a third air mass, of warm air, that creates a trough above those two colder air masses.

Question 24

When there is a formation of clear ice on the aircraft wings, you can deduce that:

In what type of clouds can large supercooled droplets be found?
What has an effect on the rate of catch when there is ice accumulation?
When does clear ice appear?

Answer 24

The catch rate is high, the supercooled water droplets are large and the aircraft temperature is just below the freezing level.

Question 25

In winter, an aircraft encounters freezing rain while flying through a warm front. What should the pilot do?

Answer 25

Explanation

Here are the precipitations you should expect from HIGH to LOW when crossing a warm front frontal surface in winter:

SNOW, RAIN, FREEZING RAIN, ICE PELLETS

• snow in the higher cloud part of the warm air mass in which the temperature is below freezing point;
• rain in the cloud part of the air mass in which the temperature is above freezing point;
• freezing rain, caused by the rain going through cold air (usually under warm air), becoming supercooled and freezing upon contact of cold objects (like an aircraft flying at this frontal surface level);
• ice pellets in the area preceding freezing rain, which result from rain freezing when passing through cold air.

If you fly at high altitude, you will only encounter snow. However, if you are at a relatively low altitude and pass from cold air frontal surface to warm air, you will first encounter snow, followed by ice pellets and freezing rain.

Question 26

Ice will first accumulate on:

Answer 26

The antennas.

Explanation

Frost usually first appears on surfaces with slender leading edges: antennae, outside thermometers, propeller blades, horizontal stabilizers, rudders, gears, etc. Wings are the last thing on which frost appears.

Question 27

Aerodynamic heating eliminates the risks of ice formation on an aircraft flying at a:

Answer 27

Speed above 500 knots.

Explanation

Aerodynamic heating is the heating of a solid body produced by the passage of a fluid around a body. In the case of an aircraft, aerodynamic heating is the heating of the aircraft skin produced by the passage of the air around it. It is caused by friction and compression processes, and is most significant at high speeds (supersonic and hypersonic aircraft), above a TAS of 350 knots. The increase in surface temperature is approximately proportional to the square of speed. If weather conditions are favourable to ice formation, a speed of 500 knots will ensure a good protection to the aircraft. In these conditions aircraft icing is not a problem, as the temperature on the surface is well above the freezing point.

Question 28

In a thunderstorm, lightning and rumblings appear when it reaches the _____ stage.

Answer 28

Mature

A mature thunderstorm can reach heights of over 60,000 feet. Lifting currents are found in it, reaching up to 6,000 feet per minute. When the water droplets are heavy enough to fall, they take with them a certain amount of air, creating a descending current (up to 2,000 feet per minute), at the centre of the thunderstorm cell. Ascending and descending currents give way to severe turbulence.

Precipitation on the ground is a sign of maturity of the thunderstorm. Generally, it will stay at this stage for approximately 15 minutes.

Other phenomena indicating the maturity of the thunderstorm are lightning, micro gusts, wind shears, hail and tornados.

Question 29

How can metereologists detect tornados?
How fast and far does a tornado move?
What is the shape of a tornado and what can you say about its pressure?

Answer 29

Meteorologists often use the Doppler radar to detect tornados.

Tornados can move a few miles over the ground at speeds between 25 and 50 knots.

Tornados are very deep and narrow low-pressure areas.

Explanation

Tornados, associated with strong thunderstorms, are very deep and narrow (diameter between 100 and 3,000 feet) low-pressure areas. They are funnel-shaped, arise under cumulonimbus clouds and reach the ground. Tornados can move a few miles over the ground at speeds between 25 and 50 knots. This destructive phenomenon suctions dust and debris from the ground to its centre where winds can reach several hundred knots. Meteorologists often use Doppler radar to detect tornados.

Question 30

Mammatus clouds:

Where can they be found?
What are kind of winds are they associated with?
What kind of thunderstorms are they associated with?

Answer 30

An be found under altostratus clouds.

Are associated with strong wind-shears.

Are often associated with strong thunderstorms.

Explanation

The mammatus cloud is a cellular pattern of pouches hanging underneath the base of a convective cloud such as altocumulus or cumulonimbus. It appears in very unstable air and is often associated with serious thunderstorms, but can also appear under a nonviolent cloud such as altostratus. They can be found away from precipitations (like the anvil).

The presence of mammatus clouds does not necessarily mean that there will be violent weather. However, as mammatus form in the layer where there is convection, there might be strong wind shears and lightning. It is therefore recommended to avoid areas of mammatus clouds.

Question 31

The dry microburst:

Answer 31

Is intensified by the virga (characteristic of the dry microburst) that cools the air.

Explanation

A burst is a combination of strong descending currents and destroyer winds on the ground and in its vicinity. The bursts are divided into two categories:

• macrobursts: descending gusts of a diameter of 2 NM or more reaching the ground and lasting 5 to 20 minutes. The strongest could cause damages as severe as tornadoes;
• microbursts: descending gusts of a maximum diameter of 2 NM. Winds are significant for five minutes.

There are two types of microbursts:

• Wet microburst: occurs in the presence of storm clouds with precipitations that reach the ground.
• Dry microburst: comes from moisture-laden towering cumulus clouds. In this case, the descending air column contains virga, which further cools the air. increasing the microburst strength.

Question 32

_____ fog forms when dew point increases to the same value as the temperature.

Answer 32

Steam.

Explanation

Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over a warm water surface. Water evaporation saturates cold air. Condensation forms and creates this fog which occurs most of the time in fall over lakes and rivers.

Question 33

Radiation fog will usually form:

Answer 33

On clear nights with very gentle wind.

Explanation

Radiation fog occurs during clear nights: the ground cools down and cools the air with which it is in contact.

Ideal conditions for this type of fog include:

• moist air;
• temperature slightly below dew point;
• condensation nuclei;
• light wind increasing cooling in low levels;
• clear sky. allowing faster cooling.

Question 34

In Canada, moist air coming from the Pacific Ocean and moving toward the west coast will cause the formation of fog.

Answer 34

Upslope.

When a moist air parcel is constrained by light wind to up a slope (here, West land reliefs), it is cooling down by expansion. This cooling down is the cause of slope fog.

Question 35

Advection fog forms when:

Answer 35

Warm and moist air moves over a cold surface, causing the formation of condensation.

Explanation
Advection fog is created by warm moist air cooling that moves over a colder surface. It can occur when the air comes from warm land or a warm water surface and goes over a cold water surface. It also can appear when cooled down air is moving from the south to the north.

This fog can persist for many days and covers a wide area. It frequently occurs on the coasts.

Question 36

A fog ______ forms when the dew point increases to the same value as the temperature.

Answer 36

Over a body of water. in the vicinicy of Arctic pacthes of ice.

Explanation

Sceam fog occurs when cold air moves over a warm wacer surface. Wacer evaporacion sacuraces cold air. Condensacion forms and creaces chis fog which occurs mosc of che cime in fall over lakes and rivers.

Arctic sea smoke is a kind of steam fog.

Question 37

Which of the following is a common requirement for the formation of all types of fog?

Answer 37

A high relative humidity.

Explanation

Basic conditions for fog development are enough condensation nuclei, high relative humidity, a small difference between temperature and dew point, and any cooling process creating condensation.

Question 38

Which of the following units ARE related to weather information?

Answer 38

Here is a list of meteorological sources for pilots:

• Aviation Weather Information Service (AWIS);
• Weather Briefing Aviation Service (WBAS);
• Transcribed Aviation Weather Broadcast (TAWB);
• Duats;
• Volmet diffusion;
• Radar reports (RAREPS);
• Sigmets (WSCN);
• Airmet (WACN);
• Environment and Climate Change Canada (ECCC) Electronic - Service Bulletin;
• Pireps.

Question 39

What does the term “EST” in a NOTAM mean?

Answer 39

It means that a replacing or a cancelling NOTAM will have to be issued when the NOTAM is no longer needed.

Explanation

AIM, MAP 3.23.4: Icem B) is mandatory and always contains a 10-digit date-time group expressed as YYMMDDHHMM. All dates and times are always in UTC. For example: 1910021300 means October 2, 2019. at 1300Z. Item C) is mandatory and can be presented in 3 forms:

• C) YYMMDDHHMM - should be used when the end time is known precisely. The NOTAM will expire without human intervention when the time is reached.
• C) YYMMDDHHMMEST - should be used when the end time is not known with certainty (for example, in the case of equipment outages). EST means estimated or approximate. When the end time is reached, if there is no human intervention, the NOTAM will remain intact. Therefore, the NOTAM must be revised (NOTAMR) or cancelled (NOTAMC) before the time is reached.
• C) PERM - used when the NOTAM promulgates a permanent change to aeronautical information. Human intervention is required to remove the NOTAM. Therefore, the NOTAM must be revised (NOTAMR) or cancelled (NOTAMC) when the NOTAM is no longer needed.

Question 40

What does the abbreviation “BR” on a METAR mean?

Answer 40

That there is a cloud at ground level and visibility is greater than 5/8 SM.

Question 41

Unless otherwise noted, all aircraft operating in the Gander Oceanic Area should use the ______ format and report routine meteorological observations at each
designated reporting point.

Answer 41

AIREP.

Explanation

AIM, NAT 1.15: Aircraft must make, record, and report meteorological observations at each designated reporting point on a routine basis. However, aircraft cleared on an organized track should be required to make, record, and report meteorological observations only upon a specific request by air traffic control (ATC). Such requests will be included in the oceanic clearance using the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS”. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) air report (AIREP) form, as contained in Appendix 1 of the Procedures for Air Navigation Services—Air Traffic Management (Doc 4444), should be used for this purpose.

Question 42

The code used for an AIRMET is _____ and the code used for a SIGMET is _____

Answer 42

WA; WS.

AIM, MET 5.16
AIM, MET 6.16

Question 43

GFAs are composed of:

Answer 43

Six charts and an IFR outlook for 12 hours after the forecast time.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.2: Each issue of the GFA is really a collection of six charts; two charts valid at the beginning of the forecast period, two charts valid six hours into the forecast period and the final two charts valid twelve hours into the forecast period.

An IFR outlook for an additional twelve-hour period will also be included in the final clouds and weather chart.

Question 44

Refer to Image 1 in the Appendix.

On a weather map, 1 represents a _____ , 2 represents a _______ , and 3 represents a______

Answer 44

Upper cold front; trowal; warm front.

AIM, MET 4.0

Question 45

Refer to Image 3 in the Appendix.

What do the symbols on this surface weather map mean?

Answer 45

Widespread mist; freezing rain; snow showers; ice pellets.

AIM, MET 4.0

Question 46

Airport meteorological centers that provide TAFs obtain weather information in a radius of _____ around them.

Answer 46

5 NM.

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.2: TAFs are intended to relate to weather conditions for flight operations within 5 NM of the centre of the runway complex, depending on local terrain. A regular and complete observation program that meets TC standards for METAR and SPECI is a prerequisite for the production of a TAF. Aerodrome advisories may be issued when this observation program prerequisite cannot be completely satisfied.

Question 47

In a TAF, how would a visibility of 16 SM be shown?

Answer 47

P6SM.

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.4: Visibilities greater than 6 SM are indicated as P6SM.

Question 48

Which of the following is true regarding “TEMPO”, “BECMG” and “PROB30”?

Answer 48

TEMPO < one hour or < than half of total forecast period if appearing repeatedly

BECMG or FM > 1h

PROB30: has to be 30% or 40%, if = or > 50% , then use BECMG, TEMPO or FM

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.4: — If a permanent change in a few weather elements is forecast to occur gradually, with conditions evolving over a period of time (normally one to two hours, but not more than four hours), the new conditions that differ from those immediately prior are indicated following “BECMG “

“TEMPO” is only used when the modified forecast condition is expected to last less than one hour in each instance, and if expected to recur, the total period of the modified condition will not cover more than half of the total forecast period. The total period of the modified condition is the time period during which the actual modified weather condition is expected to occur, and not the total time stated for the “TEMPO” time period. When the modified forecast condition is expected to last more than one hour, either “FM” or “BECMG” must be used.

In order to indicate the probability of occurrence of alternative values of forecast groups. PROB30 (a 30% probability) or PROB40 (a 40% probability) is placed directly before the change group’s validity period and alternative value(s) to indicate that different conditions will occur within the specified time period.

A probability of less than 30% of actual values deviating from those forecasts is not considered to justify the use of the PROB group. When the possibility of an alternative value is 50% or more, this shall be indicated by the use of BECMG, TEMPO or FM, as appropriate.

Question 49

Which of the following statements is true regarding the TAF for St-Hubert - CYHU?

What is the maximum period of a TAF?

Use the following information:

TAF AMD CYHU 282038Z 2821/2918 02030G45KT 11/2SM +RA BR BKN008 OVC015 TEMPO 2821/2823 4SM RA BR SCT008 OVC020 FM282300 36030G45KT 11 /2SM +RA BR BKN008 OVC015 FM290200 33020G30KT P6SM -RA SCT015 OVC030 TEMPO 2902/2904 4SM RA BR BKN015 FM290500 31012G22KT P6SM BKN060 OVC200 FM290800 2801OKT P6SM FEW060 RMK FCT BASED ON AUTO OBS NXT FCST BY 290000Z=

Answer 49

It is an amended TAF based on an Automated Weather Observation System and is valid from 2038Z on August 28 to 1800Z on August 29.

30 hours

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.4: (b) Report type—The code name “TAF” is given in the First line of text. It may be followed by “AMD” for amended or corrected forecasts.

(e) Period of validity—The period of validity for the TAF is indicated by two four-digit date/time groups; the First four-digit group indicates the start date and time of the TAF, and the second four-digit group indicates the end date and time of the TAF.

A TAF is considered to be valid from the moment it is issued (e.g. a TAF with an indicated period of validity from 11002 to 2300Z that was issued at 1040Z is considered to be valid from 1040Z) until it is amended; until the next scheduled TAF for the same aerodrome is issued; or until the period of validity ends and no new TAF has been issued.

The maximum period of validity for a TAF is 30 hr; however, some TAFs have staggered issue times and more frequent update cycles, which affects their periods of validity.

Question 50

According to the following information, what is the minimum amount of fuel that should be indicated on the flight plan?

• Aircraft: Large turboprop aeroplane
• Type of flight: Night commercial VFR
• Total flight time: 4 hours and 30 minutes (including 20 minutes of climb)
• Weather at destination: Thunderstorms
• Fuel consumption during climb: 550 Ibs/hour
• Fuel consumption during cruise: 450 Ibs/hour
• Fuel consumption for each circling: 250 lbs
• Contingencies: Add 150 pounds of fuel

Answer 50

2,546 pounds.

Question 51

A tailwind will ______ the distance to the PNR and a headwind will _____ the distance to the PNR.

Answer 51

Shorten; shorten.

Explanation

The point of no return (PNR) is the point along the flight track beyond which it is impossible to fly back to the departure point, because of insufficient fuel. It is often determined for long-haul flights above oceans. If for example weather turns bad during the flight, the pilot must return to the airport before reaching the PNR.

The greater the aircraff’s fuel endurance, the closer the PNR to the destination point.

Winds, either headwinds or tailwinds, reduce the distance to the PNR.

To determine the PNR, calculate groundspeed using your aircraff’s true airspeed and the winds aloft.

In the following formulas:

DPNR = Distance of the PNR in relation to the departure point 
TPNR = Time to arrive to the PNR from the departure point
Fe = Fuel endurance (in hours)
GSo = Groundspeed from the departure point to the destination point
GSr = Groundspeed from the PNR to the departure point.

DPNR = (Fe x GSo x GSr) / (GSo + GSr)

and

TPRNR = DPNR / GSo

Question 52

According to the following information, determine the distance and the time to the critical point in case of one engine failure:

Total distance of the flight: 2,200 NM  
Track: 240°T
Aircraft endurance: 9 hours
TAS with all engines running: 480 knots
TAS with one engine inoperative: 270 knots
Wind: 120°T/45 knots

Answer 52

Explanation

The critical point (CP) (or equal time point) is a point located on the flight track from which it will take the exact same time to fly back to the departure point or to continue to the arrival point.

The CP is calculated before departure and is used inflight in case of an emergency. It allows the pilot to quickly respond to a situation indicating if the pilot should continue to fly to the destination or come back to the departure point. If the problem occurs before the CP, the pilot should go back; if after, he/she should keep flying on the route.

If the wind is calm, the CP will be located at the midpoint between the departure point and the arrival point.

In case of tailwind, the CP will be closer to the departure point; in case of headwind, the CP will be closer to the arrival point: we say that the CP moves to the wind.

Note: Fuel is not taken into account in the calculation of the CP.

To determine the CP. calculate groundspeed using your aircraft’s true airspeed and the winds aloft.

In case of an engine failure, the groundspeed will be lower. In this case, you should take 60% of the normal cruise speed.

In the following formulas:

DCP = Distance of the CP in relation to the departure point
TCP = Time to arrive to the CP from the departure point
Dtt = Total distance of flight
GScr = (GScont + Gsret) Groundspeed between the departure point and the CP, and from the CP to the arrival point, passing through the CP
GScont = Groundspeed between the CP and the arrival point
GSret = Groundspeed between the CP and the departure point

DCP = (Dtt x GSret) / (GScont - GSret)

and

TCP = DCP / GScr

Here:

DCP = (2,200 X 245) / (290 + 245) = 1,007.5 NM and

TCP = 1,007.5 / 501 = 2.01 = 2 hours

Question 53

Can stopovers be indicated on a single IFR flight plan?

Answer 53

Stopovers should not be indicated on a single IFR flight plan.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.9: Intermediate stops may not be included in a single instrument flight rules(IFR) flight plan.

Question 54

Question 54
The objective of the NRP is to harmonize and adopt common procedures applicable to random route flight operations at and above _____ within the _____

Answer 54

FL290; conterminous U.S. and Canada.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 11.4.2.1: The North American Route Program (NRP) is a joint FAA and NAV CANADA program that allows air operators to select operationally advantageous routings. The objective of the NRP is to harmonize and adopt common procedures, to the extent possible, applicable to random route flight operations at and above FL290 within the conterminous U.S. and Canada.

The NRP will be implemented through various phases with the end goal of allowing all international and domestic flight operations to participate in the NRP throughout the conterminous U.S. and Canada.

Question 55

State approval of unrestricted operations in the NAT HLA may presently be granted to an aircraft equipped with:

Answer 55

One IRS and one GNSS IFR approved.

Explanation

AIM, NAT 1.11.1: All operators are to ensure that aircraft used to conduct flights within the North Atlantic high level airspace (NAT HLA) have the minimum navigation equipment. For detailed requirements, refer to the following documents:

(a) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Doc 7030—Regional Supplementary Procedures;
(b) ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT SPG Handbook;
(c) ICAO NAT Doc 007—North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual; and (d) Parts VI and VII of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARS).

Question 56

To increase the reception distance of HF signals, the _______ range of the HF band will be used by day and the _____ range of the HF band will be used by night.

Answer 56

Upper; lower.

Explanation

High frequencies (HF) are the frequencies between 2,500 and 30,000 KHz. These frequencies are widely used in aviation to air/ground communications (always on single sideband) in the remote areas of Canada, during long flights (2,500 miles or more) or during transoceanic flights because their range is much greater than other signals. This is because HF waves are reflected back to Earth by the ionosphere.

However, there is one downside to the fact that

To address this problem, the upper range of the HF band will be used during the day and the lower range of the HF band will be used during the night. This will allow improved reception distance regarding the hour.

Question 57

In which frequency range does the VLF navigation systems operate?

Answer 57

3-30 kHz.

VLF (very low frequency) refers to radio frequencies in the range of 3 kHz to 30 kHz and wavelengths from 10 to 100 kilometres.

Question 58

What’s the CPDLC?

Answer 58

A means of communication between controller and pilot, using a data link for ATC communications.

Explanation

AIM, COM 3.11: Controller pilot data link communications (CPDLC) is a data link application that supports the exchange of textbased messages between a controller and the flight crew. Text messages provide greater clarity than spoken very high frequency (VHF) or high frequency (HF) radio communications, so the risk of error is significantly decreased.

Question 59

The ACARS is able to:

Answer 59

Receive update messages of weather conditions along the flight plan route and send messages about the conditions of the onboard equipment, allowing you to anticipate the maintenance task to perform before the aircraft’s arrival.

Explanation

The ACARS (Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System) is a coded communication system between an aircraft in flight and a ground station. It includes the on-board equipment (terminals linked to a router that transmits the messages to the ground), ground facilities, the ground equipment (a transmitter/receiver system operated by a central computer that retransmits the messages to the final receiver) and a service supplier.

The ACARS automatically controls the aircraft conditions during the flight, then sends a report to the maintenance centre of the airline company who owns the aircraft. It also allows the operational and logistic communication transit.

ACARS transmissions are made via VHF and HF, and are supported by satellite communications (SATCOM) in oceanic areas.

Question 60

An ELT is not mandatory in flight:

Answer 60

If the aircraft, operated by the holder of a flight training unit operating certificate in a flight training, stays in a radius of 25 NM from the departure aerodrome.

If the aircraft is a glider or a balloon.

If the aircraft is transferred to another location in order to install the ELT.

CAR 605.38: (3) An aircraft referred to in subsection (1) may be operated without an ELT on board where the aircraft is

(a) a glider, balloon, airship, ultra-light aeroplane or gyroplane;
(b) [Repealed, SOR/2002-345, s. 2]
(c) registered under the laws of a contracting state or a state that is a party to an agreement entered into with Canada relating to interstate flying, and is equipped with a serviceable radio transmitter that
(i) is approved by the state of registry for search and rescue purposes, and
(ii) has a distinctive audio signal and is capable of communication on the frequency of 121.5 MHz, or simultaneously on the frequencies of 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz;
(d) operated by the holder of a flight training unit operating certificate, engaged in flight training and operated within 25 nautical miles of the aerodrome of departure;
(e) engaged in a flight test;
(f) a new aircraft engaged in flight operations incidental to manufacture, preparation or delivery of the aircraft;
(g) operated for the purpose of permitting a person to conduct a parachute descent within 25 nautical miles of the aerodrome of departure; or
(h) operated in accordance with section 605.39.

Question 61

PSR computes target positions by determining the range and azimuth:

Answer 61

Of transmitted and reflected radio frequency energy.

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.1: PSR computes target positions by determining the range and azimuth of transmitted and reflected radio frequency energy. It is a passive surveillance system and therefore does not rely on information transmitted from the aircraft.

Question 62

To be able to emit an ADS-B message, an aircraft must be equipped with a Mode ____ transponder.

Answer 62

S

Explanation

AIM, COM 7.3.1: On-board aircraft equipment is responsible for gathering a range of flight parameters and compiling them into the ADS-B message, which is then transmitted through the Mode S transponder on a 1 090 MHz extended squitter (1 090ES). The full range of data is transmitted once per second, allowing ATC to access real-time aircraft position information.

Question 63

Which of the following is true regarding thunderstorm detection with an airborne weather radar while flying in clouds?

Answer 63

Attenuation will reduce the chances to detect thunderstorms.

Explanation

Airborne weather radar is only able to detect targets detected by its beam. The beam covers only a small area (from 3 to 10°), therefore tilt

Airborne weather radar is limited, based on conditions. When there is moisture near the aircraft, radar beams are scattered. Heavy rain zones block out the return of the

radar echo, preventing the radar from detecting significant weather at some distance from the aircraft. This problem is called attenuation. This is encountered when ice or moisture is on the radome, when heavy water droplets are in the targeted cell storm or when the air in which the aircraft flies is very moist.

Question 64

Loss of weather radar strength is known as _____

Answer 64

Attenuation.

Question 65

You are flying on a heading of 340°M and the needle of the VOR is centred when the OBS is on 095°. The TO/FROM indicators shows TO. To intercept outbound the radial 235° with an angle of 35°, you should steer a heading of:

Answer 65

200º

Question 66

You are flying on a heading of 060°. The relative bearing to the NDB station (on your fixed card ADF) is 035°. You want to intercept a track of 60° inbound with a 45° angle. You should take a heading of:

Answer 66

105º

Question 67

NDBs operate in the _____ and ____ restricted by the line of sight.

Answer 67

Low and medium frequency range; are not.

Explanation

Non-directional beacons (NDB) are navaids working on low and medium bands, between 190-415 kHz and 510-535 kHz. Waves transmitted by this type of beacon (i.e., low and medium frequency waves) are divided into two parts: ground waves and sky waves. They are not affected by the line-of-sight.

Question 68

After the response to a TCAS RA is completed and the assigned ATC clearance or instruction has been resumed, the crew members should inform the control by saying:

Answer 68

CLEAR OF CONFLICT, (assigned clearance) RESUMED.

AIM, COM 9.10: Refer to Che cable.

Question 69

The DME of your aircraft will experience the greatest slant range error when flying at ______ and _____ the station.

Answer 69

High altitude; close to.

Explanation
The DME measures the slant range between an aircraft and the ground station, not the horizontal distance. The higher and the closer an aircraft is to the ground station, the bigger the difference between the slant range and the ground distance. The error caused by the slant range will then be more significant when you are close to the station and at high altitude.

Question 70

To be available, The RAIM function needs satellites, or satellites if the “baro-aiding” function is used.

Answer 70

5; 4

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.3.1: RAIM uses extra satellites in view to compare solutions and detect problems. It usually takes four satellites to compute a navigation solution, and a minimum of five for RAIM to function. The availability of RAIM is a function of the number of visible satellites and their geometry. It is complicated by the movement of satellites relative to a coverage area and temporary satellite outages resulting from scheduled maintenance or failures.

MostTSO C129a avionics also accept signals from an aircraft altitude encoder. This is called baro-aiding, and it essentially reduces the number of satellites required by one, thus further increasing the availability of RAIM and providing an additional measure of tolerance to satellite failures.

Question 71

GPS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to ______ metres and _____ metres, respectively, _____% of the time.

Answer 71

6; 8; 95.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.2.1: Another key to GPS accuracy is the relative position of satellites in the sky, or satellite geometry. When satellites are widely spread, geometry and accuracy are better. If satellites are clustered in a small area of the sky, geometry and accuracy are worse. Currently, GPS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to 6 m and 8 m, respectively, 95 percent of the time.

Question 72

Which of the following best describes the WAAS?

Answer 72

It covers a more extensive service area than traditional ground-based navigation aids.

Each station in the network relays the data to a wide area master station where correction information for specific geographical areas is computed.

It allows GPS to be used as a primary means of navigation.

AIM, RAC 3.13

Question 73

What is the basic operating principle of a GPS?

Answer 73

It receives signals from non-geostationary satellites, each transmitting time.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.2.1: GPS positioning is based on precise timing. Each satellite has four atomic clocks on board, guaranteeing an accuracy of one billionth of one second, and broadcasts a digital pseudorandom noise (PRN) code that is repeated every millisecond. All GPS receivers start generating the same code at the same time. Code matching techniques establish the time of arrival difference between the generation of the signal at the satellite and its arrival at the receiver. The speed of the signal is closely approximated by the speed of light, with variations resulting from ionospheric and atmospheric effects modeled or directly measured and applied. The time of arrival difference is converted to a distance, referred to as a pseudo range, by computing the product of the time of arrival difference and the average speed of the signal. The satellites also broadcast orbit information (ephemeris) to permit receivers to calculate the position of the satellites at any instant in time.

Question 74

Which of the following is true regarding GNSS equipment requirements?

Answer 74

On LNAV/VNAV approaches, vertical guidance can be provided by WAAS or baro-VNAV.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.4.2.4: With the publication in Canada of RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance, suitably-equipped aircraft may fly baro-VNAV approaches to the LNAV/VNAV minima published on these approach plates.

AIM, COM 5.4.2.5: RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance based on WAAS require a Class 2 or 3 (for LNAV/VNAV minima) or Class 3 (for LPV minima) TSO C145a WAAS receiver, or a TSO C146a sensor interfaced to appropriate avionics.

Question 75

What happens when you conduct an overlay approach?

Answer 75

When conducting an overlay approach, it is not mandatory to monitor the ground-based navigation aids.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5A.2.2: GNSS overlay approaches are included on certain traditional VOR- or NDB-based approaches, that have been approved to be flown using the guidance of IFR approach-certified GNSS avionics. Because of approach design criteria, LOC-based approaches cannot be overlaid.

GNSS overlay approaches are identified in the CAP by including “(GNSS)” after the runway designation (e.g. NDB RWY 04 [GNSS]). When using GNSS guidance, the pilot benefits from improved accuracy and situational awareness through a moving map display (if available) and distance-to-go indication. Unless required by the AFM or AFM supplement, when conducting GNSS overlay approaches, the VOR, DME and/or NDB onboard navigation equipment does not need to be installed and/or functioning and the underlying approach navigation aid(s) do(es) not need to be functioning. Nevertheless, good airmanship dictates that all available sources of information be monitored.

Question 76

Which navigation system(s) provide(s) an RNAV capability?

Answer 76

The RHO-THETA and the RHO-RHO.

The INS/IRS.

The GNSS.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.0: Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids (NAVAIDs) or within the limits of the capability of self-contained NAVAIDs, or a combination of these.

Existing navigation systems which provide an area navigation (RNAV) capability include the global navigation satellite system (GNSS), VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA), DME-DME (RHO-RHO), inertial navigation system (INS) and inertial reference system (IRS).

Question 77

To enter a waypoint designated by a VOR station in the RNAV system, the VOR:

Answer 77

Does not need to be in range when entered but must be when used.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.12: VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA) System: The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any desired location within reception range. The relocated position is known as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance from the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments and the computer provides steering guidance to and from waypoints.

Question 78

In TC’s AIM, the RNAV is defined as:

Answer 78

A method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced NAVAlDs or within the limits of the capability of self-contained NAVAlDs, or a combination of these.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.0: Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids (NAVAIDs) or within the limits of the capability of self-contained NAVAIDs, or a combination of these.

Existing navigation systems which provide an area navigation (RNAV) capability include the global navigation satellite system (GNSS), VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA), DME-DME (RHO-RHO), inertial navigation system (INS) and inertial reference system (IRS).

Question 79

A waypoints is:

Answer 79

A geographical location defined by degrees of latitude and longitude.

Explanation

AIM, GEN 5.1: Waypoint (WP): A specified geographical location, defined by longitude and latitude, that is used in the definition of routes and terminal segments and for progress-reporting purposes.

Question 80

Which of the following is true regarding the INS?

Answer 80

It measures the aircraft acceleration in relation to three axes.