2

Question 1

According co the cars, the operator of an aircraft is:

Answer 1

The person who has possession of the aircraft.

Question 2

A quick-donning mask is:

Answer 2

An oxygen mask that can be secured by a person using one hand on the person’s face within 5 seconds, and that provides an immediate supply of oxygen.

Question 3

When a pilot is operating an aircraft in the altimeter-setting region, he/she should:

While in flight, sec the altimeter to the aitimecer setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or. where the nearest stations along the route of flighc are separated by more than 150 nautical miles, to the altimeter setting of a station near the route of flight.

Immediately before conducting a takeoff from an aerodrome, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the aerodrome or, if thac altimeter setting is not obtainable, to the elevation of the aerodrome.

immediately before commencing a descent for the purpose of landing at an aerodrome, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the aerodrome, if that altimeter setting is obtainable.

All of the above.

Answer 3

All of the above

Question 4

Who is responsible for ensuring chat all crew members have been instructed with respect to the duties they are to perform and the location and use of emergency exits and emergency equipment of the aircraft?

Answer 4

The PIC

Question 5

You are in ifr. approaching a controlled aerodrome located in a controlled airspace. What are the weather minimums required to cancel the ifr in order to continue the approach visually?

Answer 5

A flight visibility not less than three miles, and a distance from cloud not less than 50O feet vertically, and not less than one mile horizontally.

Question 6

A MMEL or a MEL eus established in accordance with:

Answer 6

The MMEL/MEL Policy and Procedures Manual for each type of aircraft.

Question 7

A flight data recorder is required in:

1 - A multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft flying at night with passengers on board

2 - a multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft for which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of cargo only and operated under Subpart 5 of Part vn

3 - a multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft that is configured for six or more passenger seats and for which two pilots are required by the aircraft type certificate or by the subpart under which the aircraft is operated

4 - a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane for which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 30 or fewer passengers and configured for 20 to 30 passenger seats

5 - a multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft configured for 10 or more passenger seats and manufactured before October 11.1991

6 - a multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft for which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of more than 30 passengers

7 - A high-performance aircraft

Answer 7

2.4 and 6.

Question 8

The air operator who increases the split flight duty time of its flight crew members by 30 minutes must include a break of ______ consecutive hours in the flight duty time when the break is provided between 6:00 and 23:59.

Answer 8

60 minutes.

Question 9

When weather reports or forecasts indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival, no person shall dispatch or conduct a takeoff in a turbojet-powered aeroplane used in a commuter operation unless the lda at the destination airport is at least of the dry LDA requirement.

Answer 9

115%

Question 10

You want to take off in IMC from an airport where weather conditions are above the takeoff minima, but below the landing minima, you are flying a twin-engine aircraft operated in an airline, in these conditions:

Answer 10

You can take off if you have planned an alternate aerodrome located within the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

Question 11

No person shall dispacch a turboprop aeroplane used in an airline operation unless a full-stop landing is possible within % of the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome and within,______% available at the alternate.

Answer 11

70;70

Question 12

No person shall act as the pilot-in-command of an aircraft on a flight along a route or into an aerodrome unless, within the previous ______ months, the person has acted as a ______ on a flight along that route and into that aerodrome or the

person has received training and demonstrated adequate knowledge, in accordance with the Commercial Air service Standards.

Answer 12

12; a flight crew member or has been on the flight deck as an observer.

Question 13

In the Northern Domestic Airspace. _____ is used to determine cruising altitude for direction of flight.

Answer 13

True track.

Question 14

An airspace with a “CYA 227 (H)” designation is an example of ____ airspace

Answer 14

Class F advisory (Hang gilders).

Question 15

A large aeroplane is an aeroplane with a MCTOW greater than:

Answer 15

5700Kg

Question 16

Whac is the minimum amount of fuel that must be in a turbojet-powered aeroplane in an ifr flight if no alternate aerodrome has been specified in the flight plan?

Answer 16

Enough fuel to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes.

Question 17

which of the following is FALSE regarding lahso?

LAHSO are not authorized if thunderstorms, turbulence or wind shear exist.

Having accepted the hold-short clearance, pilots are obligated to remain 200 feet short of the closest edge of the runway being intersected.

The weather minimums of a i.OOO-foot celling and visibility of 3 SM are required.

A tailwind lower than 10 knots is acceptable on both dry and wet runway operations.

Answer 17

A tailwind lower than 10 knots is acceptable on both dry and wet runway operations.

Question 18

You are radar vectored for a straight-in ILS approach in imc. atc cleared you to 3.000 feet and the MSA is 3.800 feet, while on your final vector for the straight in ils. you experience a two-way communication failure. What should you do?

Answer 18

Squawk Mode A/3 7600. intercept the localizer then the glide slope at 3.800 feet, and then fly the ILS straight-in approach.

Question 19

While on an open RNAV STAR approach, you experience a communication failure before receiving radar vectors, what should you do?

Answer 19

Delete the heading leg at the DTW. initiate an auto-turn at the DTW and FACF, and intercept the final approach course for a straight-m approach.

Question 20

Whac is the lowest usable flight level?

Answer 20

FL 200 if the altimecer secting is between 27.92 and 28.91 inches of mercury.

Question 21

which of the following provide you a 2.000-foot obstacle clearance above the highest obstacle?

1 - Airways inside Designated Mountainous Areas

2 - Minimum sector Altitudes

3 - Safe altitude at 100 NM outside Designated Mountainous Areas

4 - instrument approach transitions

5 - Safe altitude at 100 NM inside Designated Mountainous Areas 1 and 5

6 - Area minimum altitudes inside Designated Mountainous Areas

7 - Some Radar vectoring Areas inside Designated Mountainous Areas

Answer 21

5;6;7

Question 22

When being radar vectored with a speed adjustment from ATC. the allowable speed tolerance is:

Answer 22

+/-10 KIAS.

Question 23

At 18.000 feet, the maximum speed in a holding pattern for a propeller aircraft is ____ kias and for a turboprop aircraft is kias.

Answer 23

265; 265.

Question 24

North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) is between____ and____

Answer 24

FL285: FL420.

Question 25

The transponder code associated to an emergency is ____, the one associated to communication failure is _____ and the one associated with a hijack is. ____

Answer 25

7700; 7600; 7500.

Question 26

how is the touchdown zone defined?

Answer 26

it is the first 1/3 of the runway or the first 3.000 feet, whichever is less.

Question 27

Whac is the term used to describe the main structural component chat runs the lengch of the wing?

Answer 27

The spar.

Question 28

Whac is the most important purpose of wing ground spoilers?

Answer 28

Decrease the lift of the wing.

Question 29

In a free turbine turboprop engine:

Answer 29

There are two different shafts: one is for the compressor and one for the reduction gearbox which makes the propeller turn.

Question 30

The turbofan engine bypass ratio is:

Answer 30

The ratio between the mass flow rate of air drawn through the fan disk that bypasses the engine combustion chamber to the mass flow rate passing through the combustion chamber.

Question 31

Compared to the centrifugal compressor, the axial compressor:

Answer 31

Has a smaller frontal area.

Question 32

What can be the cause of a compressor stall?

Answer 32

A too high angle of attack on the compressor blades.

Question 33

What is the basic principle of the turbocharger?

Answer 33

it increases the density of the air that is supplied to the motor, thereby increasing the power of the latter.

Question 34

in a turbocharged engine, a waste-gate located in the ______exhausts gas directly in the atmosphere, bypassing the_____

Answer 34

Exhaust system; turbine wheel.

Question 35

In Transport category aeroplanes, which of the following drives the fuel jet pumps?

Answer 35

The high-pressure fuel flow.

Question 36

Which of the following is efficient against freezing rain in flight?

Answer 36

De-icng boots.

Question 37

The FMS IS:

Answer 37

An on-board compucer that allows pilots to get information about their flight.

Question 38

What is the difference between TCAS i and TCAS il?

Answer 38

tcas i provides traffic advisories (TAs). whereas tcas ii provides both traffic advisories (Tas) and vertical plane resolution advisories (RAS).

Question 39

Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is the ___ corrected for compressibility error.

Answer 39

CAS

Question 40

which of the following is true?

in flight with the correct altimeter setting, the altimeter will always indicate the good altitude.

in flight with the correct altimeter setting, the only time a pilot can be certain that the altimeter indicates the true altitude is when the aircraft is below 12.500 feet.

To show the correct altitude, the altimeter setting of the altimeter should not be more than 90 minutes.

in flight, even if the altimeter setting is correct, the indication of the altimeter may be wrong because of a non-standard temperature.

Answer 40

in flight, even if the altimeter setting is correct, the indication of the altimeter may be wrong because of a non-standard temperature.

Question 41

The flight control system is a system that:

Answer 41

includes the flight direction and the autopilot system.

Question 42

Whac is the difference between an EICAS and an ECAM?

The eicas is an electromagnetic system whereas the ECAM is an electronic system.

unlike the ECAM. the eicas recommends remedial action.

unlike the eicas. the ECAM improves pilots’ situational awareness by showing them detailed information in a graphical format

None of the above.

Answer 42

None of the above.

The EICAS (Engine indications and Crew Alerting System) is an electronic system replacing traditional gauges to indicate information about the aircraft systems such as fuel, electrical and propulsion systems, usually, the information displayed looks like the traditional gauges while supplying digital readouts of the parameters.

This system can improve pilots” situational awareness by showing them detailed information in a graphical format and by alerting them of unusual or dangerous situations (oil pressure loss, too high engine temperatures, etc.) by changing displays and colours and emitcmg audio alerts, a lot of warnings and alarms can be set on the EiCAS: it is important to choose a good alert setting to ensure that pilots always receive the most useful information and are not overwhelmed by warnings.

The ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) is a similar system to the EAiCAS. The difference is that this system also recommends remedial action.

Question 43

if a fuel flowmeter is in the fuel system of an aircraft:

it must be blocked.

The fuel must flow through the bypass of the flowmeter. The fuel must flow through the flowmeter.

All of the above.

Answer 43

All of the above.

Question 44

The torque motor of the gyromagnetic remote indicating compass:

Answer 44

Makes the directional gyroscope to precess.

Question 45

For this series of 4 questions, refer to the Navigation in the Appendix.

What is the distance between wight and ywl?

Answer 45

95 NM.

See LO Chart and the legend to learn how to determine distances.

Question 46

For this series of 4 questions, refer to the Navigation in the Appendix, what will be the ete of the leg wight-ywl?

Answer 46

32 minutes.

Question 47

For this series of 4 questions, refer to the Navigation in the Appendix.

what will be the total time to Kelowna (h:min)?

The descent is made between lw and Kelowna airport.

Answer 47

1:52

Question 48

For this series of 4 questions, refer to the Navigation in the Appendix.

how much fuel is needed in order to be legal for this ifr flight?

Add 40 USG to fly to the alternate and for contingencies.

Answer 48

1.224 IbS.

Question 49

Consider two approaches to land at two different airports. The first is an approach to Airport a with a high elevation above sea level. The second is an approach to Airport B that is at sea level. The aircraft, temperature and wind are identical in both situations.

vref when landing at Airport B will be vref when landing at Airport A. and the groundspeed when landing at Airport B will be vref when landing at Airport A.

Answer 49

The same as; lower than.

Question 50

The takeoff safety speed is symbolized by:

Answer 50

V2

Question 51

A tailwind will ____takeoff distance.____ accelerate-go distance, and_____ accelerate-stop distance.

Answer 51

Increase, increase, increase

Question 52

Va_____ with an increase in weight of the aircraft.

Answer 52

Increases

Question 53

Viscous hydroplaning occurs when:

Answer 53

The aircraft is moving slowly on the ground on a thin film of water.

Question 54

what is the TODA of a runway?

Answer 54

The length of che takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.

Question 55

Refer to images 1 and 2 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine the maximum takeoff weight:

• Temperature at the airport: 505F
• Elevation of the airport: 2.290 feet
• Altimeter setting: 28.12 inches of mercury
• Available runway length: 6.200 feet
• wind from the control tower: 150/15 knots
• Runway in use: 15
• Runway gradient: 0% downhill
• Anti-skid system: on

Answer 55

16.800 pounds.

Question 56

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

Determine the total distance required to take off under the following conditions:

• weight: 2.300 lbs
• Flaps: 10=
• Runway: Dry grass
• Obstacle: 50 feet
• Wind: 0 kts • OAT: 63°F
• Airport pressure altitude: 1.000 feet

Answer 56

1.840 feet.

Question 57

Regarding the information below, determine the flight level at which the aircraft will have the best fuel efficiency.

At FL280:

• TAS = 430 ktS
• Fuel flow = 530 lbs/h
• Headwind = 80 kts

At FL320:

• TAS = 450 kts
• Fuel flow = 500 lbs/h
• Headwind = 125 kts

Answer 57

FL280 with a specific ground range of 0.66 NM/lb.

Explanation

in order to burn as little fuel as possible, it is important to choose a good altitude or flight level. There are three formulas to use regarding situation that will help the pilot to do so. With these three formulas, the pilot is able to calculate the specific range of an aircraft at different altitudes, or the specific range of different aircraft at the same altitude, allowing him/her to know what altitude or which aircraft is che most fuel economical.

• Specific Range is calculated as below:

Specific Range = Distance Flown (NM) / Fuel Burned (gallons or pounds).

• To choose che right altitude, consider groundspeed to obtain the Specific Ground Range (SGR). it is calculated as below:

Specific Ground Range = Groundspeed (kts) / Fuel Flew (GPH or lbs/h).

• The Specific Air Range (SAR) is used to compare performances of different aircraft, it is used with the aircraft true airspeed:

Specific Air Range = TAS (kts) / Fuel Flow (GPH or lbs/h).

Here, at FL280. groundspeed is: 430 - 80 = 350 kts. The specific ground range is: 350 / 530 = 0.66 NM/lb.

At FL320. groundspeed is: 450 -125 = 325 kts. The specific ground range is: 325 / 500 = 0.65 NM/lb.

Question 58

Refer to image 4 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine the torque:

• Altitude: 12.000 feet
• Conditions: ISA - 10CC
• Gross weight: 9.000 lbs
• True airspeed: 193 mph

Answer 58

600 ft-lb.

Question 59

CRFi is included for surface runways contaminated with:

Answer 59

Snow and ice.

Question 60

cars prohibit takeoff when ____ is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft.

Frost

Snow

Ice

All of the above

Answer 60

All of the above

Question 61

What happens when rain falls on a cold-soaked wing?

Answer 61

Clear ice appears on the wings.

Question 62

Type iv anti-icing fluids:

Answer 62

Meet the same fluid specifications as the type II fluids but with a longer holdover time.

Question 63

Flight operation in volcanic ash is hazardous because:

Damage can occur to aircraft surfaces, windshields and powerplants.

Simultaneous power loss in all turbine engines can occur.

Accumulation of ashes within the wings and tail section may be encountered, with adverse effects on aircraft weight and balance.

All of the above.

Answer 63

All of the above

Question 64

a cailplane stall can occur at speeds well ____ normal ig stall speed and is more likely to occur when the flaps are ___

Answer 64

Above; down.

Question 65

An aircraft is flying in turbulent conditions at a given airspeed. After five hours of flight, the fuel burned makes the aircraft gross weight lighter, if the pilot keeps the same airspeed:

Answer 65

The gust load will be greater.

Question 66

In a turbojet aeroplane, maximum range will be found at high altitude because its specific fuel consumption will be improved and because the drag created will be _____ than at low altitude for a given ias.

Answer 66

The same.

Question 67

in the air, the speed of sound mainly depends on:

Answer 67

Temperature

Question 68

According to the information below, determine the Mach number:

• Temperature: -34°C
• TAS: 500 knots

Answer 68

0.83

Here: Tk = 273.15 • 34 = 239.15 K SO: LSS = 39 X < 239.15 = 603.11 kCS

Now. to determine the Mach number, use the following formula: M = TAS / LSS

Here: M = 500/603.11 =0.83

you can also use your electronic flight calculator.

Question 69

Generally, an aircraft in transonic flight is an aircraft that is moving:

Answer 69

Between Mach 0.75 and Mach 1.2.

Question 70

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the sweep-back wing?

Answer 70

Dutch roll.

Question 71

Whac is the purpose of wing fences?

Answer 71

To control the flow of air screams on che upper surface of the wing and allow better control ac low speeds and becter stall characteristics.

Question 72

when climbing through an isothermal layer at a constant Mach number, the EAS:

Answer 72

Decreases.

Question 73

The ____ is more sensitfve to hypoxia than any part of the body.

Answer 73

Retina of the eye.

Question 74

Among the body’s following areas, which are the three most sensitive to the trapped gas effect?

a • Pleural cavities
 b - joints
c- The middle ear 
d- The inner ear 
e • Sinuses
f - The medulla oblongata 
g - Teeth

Answer 74

c, e, and g.

Question 75

Somatogravic illusion leads to a sensation of ____ causing the pilot to _____

Answer 75

Pitch up; pitch down

Question 76

Which of the following is true regarding carbon monoxide?

a • Carbon monoxide is a colourless, odourless, tasteless gas

b - Hemoglobin picks up carbon monoxide over 200 times more readily than it picks up oxygen
c • 5 to 10 percent of smokers’ hemoglobin can be saturated with carbon monoxide
d - Smokers may become hypoxic at altitudes not exceeding 10.000 meters asl
e - Carbon monoxide is a product of incomplete combustion

Answer 76

a. b. c. e.

Question 77

Which of the following is WRONG regarding stress?

You can leave your problems at home.

Mental stress does not affect your physical capabilities.

Stress is a result of chemical imbalances and can be treated with medication.

All of the above.

Answer 77

All of the above.

Question 78

There are four areas of concern with respect to auditory alarms: the problem of familiarity, the problem of intentional disabling, the problem of ‘tuning out”, and the problem of distraction, how can a pilot address these problems?

By avoiding as much as possible distractions that could lead the pilot to miss an alarm.

By actively checking the cause of every audible alarm, even if it has been going off frequently.

By leaving a placard on the panel to remind the pilot to reset an alarm if he/she intentionally disabled it during a manoeuvre.

All of the above.

Answer 78

All of the above.

Question 79

The co-pilot of an aircraft has a doubt about how the captain is dealing with a situation in flight, what should the co-pilot do?

Answer 79

Overcome his/her shyness, ask che capcain for explanations about what he/she is doing express his/her concerns, state his/her viewpoint.

Question 80

which of the following is a characceristic of an effective pilot-in-command?

a - Recognition of diminished personal decision-making capabilities in emergencies and under stress
b - Lack of sensitivity to problems and reactions of others
c • Encouragement of other crew members to question decisions and actions
d - Always employs a consistent, authoritarian style of management
e - Lack of attention to crew members’ personal limitations

Answer 80

a, c