2_4

Question 1

What is the density altitude under the following conditions:

• Airport elevation: 7,000 feet
• OAT: 27°C
• Altimeter setting: 28.46”Hg
• Sea level pressure: 963.72 hPa

Answer 1

11566 feet

Question 2

Without any correction, your altimeter shows a lower altitude than the actual altitude if the air temperature is _____ than the standard temperature or if the air pressure is ______ than the standard pressure.

Answer 2

Higher; Higher

Explanation

With too high an altimeter setting, the altimeter indicates a too high altitude. Each 0.10 inch of mercury added to the altimeter setting increases the indicated altitude on the altimeter by about 100 feet. From a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the altitude indicated by the altimeter (not corrected) is higher than the actual altitude. The same thing occurs when the altimeter passes from a warm air mass to a cold air mass. The opposite occurs from a low pressure to a high pressure from a region of cold air to a region of warm air.

Question 3

Temperature diurnal variations will be the smallest in the area of:

Answer 3

A temperate ocean.

Explanation

The earth is warmed up when it absorbs solar radiation (short wave type). It then warms up the troposphere by terrestrial radiation and conduction. After sunset, the earth continues to irradiate, which decrease its temperature and air temperature at the surface.

The land is a better conductor than water, so land surfaces cool down a lot at night whereas water surfaces cool down just a little. This is why radiation fog occurs over land.

Since earth is curved, most direct sun rays are on the equator. It is the place where atmosphere is most warmed up. At poles, it is the opposite: Sun rays hit earth with a very inclined angle, so they do not warm much earth surface. The atmosphere does not receive much heat. There is a huge gap of temperature between equator and poles.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is true regarding the heating of the atmosphere low levels?

Answer 4

The low levels of the atmosphere are heated by the earth, which releases energy after receiving solar radiation.

Solar radiation is absorbed by the earth and not by the atmosphere.

Heat is transferred from the sun to the earth by the method of solar radiation.

Explanation

The earch is warmed up when it absorbs solar radiation (short wave type). It then warms up the troposphere’s low levels through earth radiation (long waves type) and conduction (to a lesser degree). The heat is then distributed to the troposphere’s higher layers by convection, advection, mechanical turbulence and compression (responsible for the subsidence).

Question 5

In standard atmosphere, temperature at FL310 would be:

Answer 5

-46ºC or -52ºF

Explanation

In North America, ICAO standard atmosphere is based on average winter and summer at 40° latitude. Here are the conditions:

• air is a dry gas;
• pressure at mean sea level is 29.92 inches of mercury;
• temperature at mean sea level is 15°C;
• temperature decreasing rate with altitude is 1.98°C for every 1,000 feet.

Here : T° = 15 - (31 x 1.98) = -46°C

You can also use your electronic flight calculator.

To convert Celsius into Fahrenheit and vice versa, use the following formula:

• °F = 9/5 °C + 32
• °C = 5/9 (°F-32)

Question 6

You are ready to take off from an airport when you notice that smoke from a factory is rising vertically and then spreading at an approximate altitude of 1,000 feet AGL. What does this indicate?

Answer 6

The presence of a temperature inversion and possibly wind shears.

Explanation
An inversion can occur during a calm clear night, when the cold ground cools down the air with which it is in contact. Under the inversion, the air is pretty stable. However, near the top. some important wind shears can be found, especially if it is paired with a low-level jet stream. The more the inversion progresses, the greater the wind shears.

It is at its maximum after midnight and disappears in the morning when the sun is rising and it starts to get warm.

Question 7

What is the instrument that measures relative humidity? How is it measured?

Answer 7

Explanation

The psychrometer is an instrument used to measure relative humidity. It is made up of two thermometers: the wet-bulb thermometer and the dry-bulb thermometer.

The wet-bulb temperature is the temperature that a parcel of air would attain if it was cooled to saturation (100% relative humidity) if there was water evaporating at constant pressure. Wet-bulb temperature is determined by the actual air temperature (dry-bulb temperature) and the air humidity. When relative humidity is 100%, the wet-bulb temperature and the dry-bulb temperature are equal.

The dry-bulb temperature is the temperature of the air measured by a thermometer freely exposed to the air but protected from solar radiation and moisture. Unlike the
wet-bulb temperature, the dry-bulb temperature does not indicate air humidity.

Question 8

The process by which water vapour changes directly into ice is called:

Answer 8

deposition

Explanation

Condensation is the physical phenomenon of the change in state from a gas to a liquid. The opposite process is called evaporation. Deposition is when matter goes from a gas to a solid state. It is the opposite of sublimation.

Question 9

For meteorology, which of the following is the most important in the atmosphere?

Answer 9

Water vapor.

Explanation
Water vapour appears only at lower levels of the atmosphere. In meteorology, it is the most important component of air. Water vapour is the cause of important
meteorological phenomenons, because it can change into droplets or ice crystals in normal temperature and pressure conditions. It is responsible for clouds and fog

creation, which are major phenomena in meteorology.

Question 10

Snow pellets, hail and ice pellet showers are usually found inside:

Answer 10

Cumulonimbus.

Explanation

Hail implies the presence of strong lifting currents and unstable air. Therefore, it can be found in cumulus clouds at an advanced stage. The cumulonimbus (Cb) is a giant mass of cumulus rising much higher than the freezing point, where hail is formed. When the hail becomes too heavy to be lifted by the lifting currents of the cell, it turns into showers.

Hail can be encountered between 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet in a Cb. It can be encountered in clear air in front of thunderstorms as well, when it has been raised high in the cloud and is thrown outside of it.

Question 11

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate because the air is _____ by the heat _____ during the _____

Answer 11

Heated; released; condensation of the water vapour.

Explanation

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is 1.5°C for every 1,000 feet.

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is 3°C for every 1,000 feet.
This difference is due to the fact that, when an air parcel rises and cools until it reaches its dew point, it becomes saturated, starting the condensation process. This process implies a heat exchange (vapourization of latent heat), which cools the air at a slower rate than non-saturated air.

Question 12

What is the main problem caused by haze?

Answer 12

Poor visibility in stable air.

Explanation

Explanation

The process of haze creation results from microscopic natural (dust, salt or volcanic) or artificial (chimney ashes or car pollution) particles lifted into the air. These particles remain dry if the amount of water vapour in the air is low. They can absorb this vapour when the relative humidity is close to by not exceeding the saturation point, in the same manner as the development of cloud droplets and fog.

This process allows the molecules of water vapour to partially dissolve and increase their volume, but does not lead to droplet formation. However, these “pre-droplets” will cause an obstruction of visibility if they have a high enough air density. This natural phenomenon occurs when the air is relatively stable, mostly in an inversion situation when condensation nuclei are added.

Question 13

Consider a saturated parcel of air that is heated by subsidence. This heating will be made at the ______ adiabatic lapse rate.

Answer 13

Dry

Explanation

The subsidence causes an increase of the ground level atmospheric pressure and, by adiabatic compression, warms up and dries out the air going down, stabilizing the atmosphere by creating a temperature inversion. The result is a dissipation of clouds from the top and a clear sky.

Question 14

To determine the name given to a frontal system, the main factor is:

Answer 14

ExplanationThe direction of the colder air mass

Question 15

Middle clouds (altostratus, altocumulus…) are located from _____ foot/feet to ___ feet

Answer 15

6500; 23000

Explanation

Medium level clouds can be found between 6,500 and 23,000 feec.They are made of water droplets (sometimes supercooled) or ice crystals, depending on the freezing point temperature. Those clouds are the altocumulus (Ac), the altocumulus castellanus (Acc) and the altostratus (As).

Question 16

What is the orographic lift?

Answer 16

An air mass moving up a sloping mountain.

Orographic lift is a lifting agent operating when the air ascends the slope. If the air is unstable, it will continue to rise.

Question 17

While in low-level flight during a hot summer day, an aircraft will encounter less turbulence when flying over:

Answer 17

A water body.

Explanation
Thermal turbulence (or convection) appears during hot summer days, when the sun heats the ground. Some surfaces heat faster than others. Those temperature
differences result in isolated convective currents which create turbulence. The more a surface is heated by the sun, the more severe the turbulence.
Land warm up faster than the water.

Question 18

On 250 hPa charts, ______ knot isotachs spaced closer than ____NM indicate sufficient horizontal shear for CAT.

Answer 18

30; 90.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

c. On charts for standard isobaric surfaces such as the 250 mbs charts, 30 kt isotachs spaced closer than 90 NM indicate sufficient horizontal shear for CAT. This area is normally on the north (low-pressure) side of the jet stream axis, but in unusual cases may occur on the south side.

Question 19

Wind-shift areas associated with _____ are frequently the cause of clear air turbulence.

Answer 19

Troughs.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

6. Wind-shift areas associated with troughs are frequently turbulent.

The sharpness of the wind-shift is the important factor. Also, ridge lines may also have rough air.

Question 20

When jet stream turbulence is encountered in a CROSSWIND situation, pilots who want to cross the CAT area more quickly should _______ if the outside TEMPERATURE DECREASES.

Answer 20

Descend

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

8. If jet stream turbulence is encountered with direct tailwinds or headwinds, a change of flight level or course should be initiated since these turbulent areas are elongated with the wind but are shallow and narrow. A turn to the south in the Northern Hemisphere will place the aircraft in a more favourable area. If a turn is not feasible because of airway restrictions, a climb or descent to the next flight level will usually result in smoother air.
9. When jet stream turbulence is encountered in a crosswind situation, pilots wanting to cross the CAT area more quickly should, either climb or descend based on temperature change. If temperature is rising - climb; if temperature is falling - descend. This will prevent following the sloping tropopause or frontal surface and staying in the turbulent area. If the temperature remains constant, either climb or descend.

Question 21

Virga is:

Answer 21

An indicator of cooling and evaporation.

Explanation

“Virga” is any type of precipitation that does not reach the ground. Depending on the temperature, it is made of ice crystals sublimating or liquid droplets evaporating under a cloud passing through a thick non-saturated layer of air. We can find virga under any type of clouds giving precipitations, whatever their altitude.

Evaporation of water droplets cools down the air.

Question 22

Virga is:

Answer 22

An indicator of cooling and evaporation.

Explanation

“Virga” is any type of precipitation that does not reach the ground. Depending on the temperature, it is made of ice crystals sublimating or liquid droplets evaporating under a cloud passing through a thick non-saturated layer of air. We can find virga under any type of clouds giving precipitations, whatever their altitude.

Evaporation of water droplets cools down the air.

Question 23

The mountain waves causing pressure changes and very cold temperatures can cause the altimeter to over-read by as much as ______ feet.

Answer 23

3,000.

Explanation
Mountain effect error is caused by a wind blowing at altitude above mountain ranges. This wind will create mountain waves which are going to cause the wrong reading of the altimeter. In addition to the mountain waves, if the air temperature is different from the standard temperature (which is often the case), the altimeter may indicate an error of up to 3,000 feet higher than true altitude.

Question 24

During a descent from a height of thousands of feet, wind direction will _____ and wind speed will _____

Answer 24

Back; decrease.

Question 25

During a final approach, the headwind suddenly increases and remains high. To maintain the same angle of descent and the same airspeed, the pilot should first _____ the power, then ______ .

Answer 25

Reduce; increase it above the power setting that was used before the wind increased.

Question 26

Jet streams associated with a frontal surface flows approximately ______ the front

Answer 26

Parallel to

Explanation

Developed surface lows, which are under upper troughs and lows, result in strong, long jet streams. Jet streams associated with a frontal surface flow almost parallel to the front.

Question 27

At what plane and conditions does an air mass keep the same properties?

Answer 27

Explanation

The troposphere is divided into several large sections. Each of them is a specific air mass since it has the properties, on the horizontal plane, regarding temperature and moisture.

The features of an air mass (humidity and temperature) are determined by the area over which it was formed. However, as the mass moves away from this area, its
features change with the new conditions it meets along its path. In the event of major changes, horizontally and vertically, the air mass name changes. For example, a continental Arctic air mass travelling over a warm water area gains some humidity and becomes maritime polar.

Question 28

Which of the following will be present during the passage of a warm front if the air of the warm area is stable and moist?

Answer 28

Continuous precipitations of rain from nimbostratus.

Explanation

Meteorological conditions at frontal systems are predicted according to the warm air mass features.

At a warm front, if warm air is moist and stable, stratus clouds will be what you encounter. If warm air is moist and unstable, you can expect to encounter convective clouds, sometimes hidden in stratus clouds. Therefore, you should expect strong showers in front of the frontal surface.

Continuous rain comes from stratus clouds. Both these clouds and bad visibility are found in stable air area. There are few possibilities of experiencing turbulence under these clouds.

The nimbostratus cloud is a dark-grey cloud made of low layers. It is usually associated with a warm front and is responsible for continuous rain or snow.

Question 29

A Continental Arctic air mass is:

Answer 29

Cold and dry.

Explanation

Continental arctic (cA) and continental polar (cP) air masses both consist of dry and cold air. They arise from extremely cold surfaces (covered by ice and snow) of the extreme north.

Question 30

The name of a front corresponds to:

Answer 30

The name of the coldest air mass.

Fronts are named after the coldest air mass name of the system involved.

Question 31

On a summer afternoon, you are at an airport where a cold front is passing. The sky, which was earlier covered with a wide range of stratus, becomes completely clear. After the passage of the front, the temperature will probably:

Answer 31

Start to slightly increase then drop.

Explanation
Usually, ground temperature gradually decreases as a cold front passes. The warm ground has already warmed the air right behind the front and above. Therefore, several hours are required before the temperature goes down to the cold air mass real temperature.

Question 32

Clear ice will form when:

Answer 32

Large supercooled water droplets hit the aeroplane’s surfaces and spread over them.

Explanation

Clear icing is a heavy, glassy, solid ice layer that accumulates as it passes through a dense cloud or a precipitation zone of freezing rain. It extends irregularly on wing surfaces, tail, blades, antennas, etc. The ice only appears when a small portion of the large droplet of supercooled water freezes on impact. The aircraft surface temperature increases to 0°C because of heat released accompanying water state changes, from liquid to solid, during the impact of a part of the droplet. The portion of the droplet that is now liquid spreads over the aircraft and slowly freezes and meets other droplets.

The type of cloud where large supercooled droplets can be found is a cumulus. Cumulus clouds are characteristics of rising currents, necessary to create large enough water droplets.

Question 33

Large supercooled water droplets are usually found in the _____ levels of ______ clouds.

Answer 33

Lower; cumulus

Explanation

The type of cloud where large supercooled droplets can be

in general, large supercooled water droplets can be found in the cloud area just below 0°C. If the temperature in the cloud remains around 0°C, the amount of supercooled

water droplets will increase with altitude. However, if the temperature is much lower than freezing point, the greater the increase in altitude the more the temperature will

decrease and the more water can be found in a solid state.

Question 34

When flying towards a stable warm front, what would you next expect if you are now experiencing snow?

Answer 34

Ice pellets and freezing rain.

Explanation

Here are the precipitations you should expect from high to low when crossing a warm front frontal surface in winter:

• snow in the higher cloud part of the warm air mass in which the temperature is below freezing point;
• rain in the cloud part of the air mass in which the temperature is above freezing point;
• freezing rain, caused by the rain going through cold air (usually under warm air), becoming supercooled and freezing upon contact of cold objects (like an aircraft flying at this frontal surface level);
• ice pellets in the area preceding freezing rain, which result from rain freezing when passing through cold air.

If you fly at high altitude, you will only encounter snow. However, if you are at a relatively low altitude and pass from cold air frontal surface to warm air, you will first encounter snow, followed by ice pellets and freezing rain.

Question 35

Which of the following factors will influence the catch rate of supercooled water droplets?

Answer 35

Aircraft speed
The wings shape
The size of the supercooled water droplets
The liquid content of the cloud

Explanation
When flying in icing conditions, the catch rate of supercooled water droplets depends on the quantity of water in a liquid state in the cloud, on their size, on the aircraft airspeed through the droplets, and on the aircraft lifting surface profile.

Question 36

What atmospheric conditions are required to lead to thunderstorms?

Answer 36

Lifting agent.

Unstable air.

High relative humidity.

Explanation

The basic conditions allowing thunderstorm development are any lift agent, unstable air and high relative humidity. The thunderstorm will be significant if the lift agent is steep, if the air is very unstable and if there is a very high relative humidity.

Question 37

Downbursts can be indicated by the presence of:

Answer 37

Virga.

Dust clouds or roll clouds.

Strong rainfall.

There is no way to predict downbursts, but dust clouds, roll clouds, virga and strong rainfall are clues of their presence.

Question 38

Violent thunderstorms should be avoided by at least:

Answer 38

20 NM

Explanation

When you are in flight with a thunderstorm on your route, change your heading as soon as possible to avoid it. Maintain a distance of at least 5 NM between you and the thunderstorm to avoid hail. If the thunderstorm is very violent, turbulence could be experienced within 15 NM of the thunderstorm. In this case, fly farther away. 20 NM would be a good call… a violent thunderstorm will be recognizable from the frequent lightning. A thunderstorm with its top at 35,000 feet or more should be considered as very violent and extremely dangerous.

AIM, AIR 2.7.2: (a) Above all, never think of a thunderstorm as “light” even though the radar shows echoes of light intensity. Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Remember that vivid and frequent lightning indicates a severe activity in the thunderstorm and that any thunderstorm with tops 35 000 ft or higher is severe. Whenever possible:

(i) don’t land or take off when a thunderstorm is approaching. The sudden wind shift of the gust front or low level turbulence could result in loss of control;
(ii) don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm even when you can see through to the other side. Turbulence under the storm could be disastrous;
(iii) avoid any area where thunderstorms are covering 5/8 or more of that area;
(iv) don’t fly into a cloud mass containing embedded thunderstorms without airborne radar;
(v) avoid by at least 20 NM any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving intense radar returns. This includes the anvil of a large cumulonimbus; and
(vi) clear the top of a known or suspected severe thunderstorm by at least 1 000 ft altitude for each 10 kt of wind speed at the cloud top.

Question 39

What is the principal danger caused by a thunderstorm near an aircraft that is taking off or landing?

Answer 39

Sudden change in wind direction.

Explanation

Thunderstorms are responsible for strong winds (downbursts and wind shears), severe turbulence, gusts (up to 80 knots) and squalls. These conditions can be found under the thunderstorm, but also up to a distance of 15 nautical miles away from it. These changes in wind direction are particularly dangerous for aircraft taking off or landing at low altitude and low airspeed.

Low-level wind shear, when associated with a thunderstorm, is caused by a gust front and a strong downburst.

Question 40

Steam fog forms when:

Answer 40

Water vapour saturates cold air.

Explanation

Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over a warm water surface. Water evaporation saturates cold air. Condensation forms and creates this fog which occurs most of the time in fall over lakes and rivers.

Arctic sea smoke is a kind of steam fog.

Question 41

Advection fog may form when:

Answer 41

Warm air is moving over a cold surface.

Explanation
Advection fog is created by warm moist air cooling that moves over a colder surface. It can occur when the air comes from warm land or a warm water surface and goes over a cold water surface. It also can appear when cooled down air is moving from the south to the north.

This fog can persist for many days and covers a wide area. It frequently occurs on the coasts.

Question 42

Radiation fog has the greatest probability to form when the wind does not exceed _____ knots, the sky is _______ at night, and the _____

Answer 42

5; clear; temperature is close to the dew point.

Explanation

Radiation fog occurs during clear nights: the ground cools down and cools the air with which it is in contact.

Ideal conditions for this type of fog include:

• moist air;
• temperature slightly below dew point;
• condensation nuclei;
• light wind increasing cooling in low levels;
• clear sky. allowing faster cooling.

Question 43

Upslope fog is due to:

Answer 43

Expansional cooling.

Explanation

When a parcel of moist air is constrained by light winds up a slope, it cools down by expansion. This cooling is the cause of slope fog.

Question 44

Frontal fog will form when:

Answer 44

Rain falling from the warm air saturates the cold air.

Explanation

Precipitation fog, also called frontal fog, can usually be found at the warm front. Drizzle or rain falling down from the warm air evaporates in cold air and saturates it in humidity, which creates fog.

Question 45

In a NOTAM, “SR” means ______ and “SS” means _____

Answer 45

Sunrise; sunset.

Explanation

AIM, MAP 3.23.5: NOTE: SR means sunrise and SS means sunset.

Question 46

What is the meaning of the term “CAVOK”?

Answer 46

No clouds below 5,000 feet, visibility of 6 SM or more, no precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog, or low drifting snow.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 1.4: The term “CAVOK” (KAV-OH-KAY) may be used in air-co-ground communications when transmitting meteorological information to arriving aircrafc.CAVOK refers to the simultaneous occurrence of the following meteorological conditions at an airport:

• no cloud below 5 000 feet, or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is higher, and no cumulonimbus;
• a visibility of 6 SM or more;
• no precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog, or low drifting snow.

Question 47

What is the maximum visibility that can be reported by an AWOS observation?

Answer 47

9 SM.

Explanation

AIM, MET 8.5.4: Visibility: Reported in statute miles (SM) up to 9 miles.

Question 48

The abbreviation “RETS” in a METAR means:

Answer 48

Recent thunderstorms.

Question 49

In aviation weather reports, surface winds are given in:

Answer 49

Degrees true and knots.

Explanation

AIM, MET 8.3: f) Wind direction is always three digits, given in degrees (true) but rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees (the third digit is always a “0”). Wind speeds are two digits (or three digits if required), in knots.

Question 50

When you use a surface weather chart for flight planning, you should be aware that:

Answer 50

It is issued 2-3 hours after observation, therefore, it shows weather conditions that existed 2-3 hours before the issuance of the chart.

Question 51

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.

Before starting engines, what is the total weight of the loaded aircraft and is it within its limits?

Answer 51

20255 lbs; within limits

Question 52

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.
Before starting engines, what is the centre of gravity of the loaded aeroplane and to what % MAC does it correspond?

Answer 52

279.440 inches; 28.244% MAC.

Question 53

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.
Before starting engines, is the maximum zero fuel weight within limits?

Answer 53

yes

Question 54

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.
At destination, the aircraft’s centre of gravity, _____ % MAC, will _____ within the limits.

Answer 54

277.29; be

Question 55

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.
Before starting the engines, _____ pounds of payload can be added without exceeding limits.

Answer 55

100

Question 56

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix.
Without regarding the previous question, before starting the engines, the passenger of seat 8 changes to seat 3. What is the new centre of gravity?

Answer 56

280.114 inches.

Question 57

For this series of 8 questions, refer to the W&B in the Appendix. Ultimately, the passenger of the previous question decides not to take the flight. At takeoff, the new weight of the aircraft will be ______ pounds and its center of gravity will be at ______% MAC

Answer 57

19,735; 29.113

Question 58

Regarding the initial aircraft loading, what is the maximum amount of fuel that can be carried for the flight (considering that the fuel will be added in the fuselage and wing tanks only)?

Answer 58

6600

Question 59

When using the GNSS during the enroute part of an IFR flight, the full deflection of the CDI needle (without WAAS) corresponds to +/- ____ NM from the selected track.

Answer 59

5

Explanation

When using the GNSS, the CDI deflection depends on the aircraft position in relation to the departure or arrival airport.

• If the aircraft is located more than 30 NM from the departure airport or less than 30 NM from the arrival airport (en-route mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 5 NM (1 NM per dot) without WAAS and 2 NM with WAAS (0.4 NM per dot) from the selected track.
• If the aircraft is located less than 30 NM from the arrival airport and more than 2 NM from the FAF (terminal mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/-1 NM from the selected track (0.2 NM per dot).
• If the aircraft is located less than 2 NM from the FAF (approach mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 0.3 NM from the selected track (0.06 NM per dot).

Question 60

Which of the following is false regarding RAIM function of a TSO C129a GPS?

RAIM is able to predict satellite failures, and will alert the pilot when a satellite removal from service is scheduled.

To work, RAIM function continuously uses ground-based navaids.

While in approach, if the RAIM function is not available prior to crossing the RAF, the GPS receiver activates the approach mode automatically.

All of the above.

Answer 60

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.2.1: Refer co the explanations.

Question 61

Is there NOTAMs for users of WAAS avionics (TSO C145a/C146a)?

Answer 61

Yes, if WAAS service is expected to not be available for a duration of more than 15 minutes at the destination aerodrome, a NOTAM will be issued.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.5.2: NAV CANADA has implemented a NOTAM system for users of WAAS avionics (TSO C145a/C146a). When WAAS service is expected not to be available fora duration of more than 15 min, a NOTAM will be issued. This typically implies a WAAS GEO satellite failure.

Pilots should flight plan based on the assumption that the services referred to in a NOTAM will not be available. However, once they arrive at the aerodrome, they may discover that a service is in fact available, in which case they may use the approach safely if they so choose.

When LPV, LP and WAAS-based LNAWVNAV are not available, pilots may fly the LNAV procedure to the published MDA as this will almost always be available to pilots using WAAS avionics. Since LNAV procedures will be used when LPV and LNAWVNAV are not available, pilots should ensure that they maintain their skills in flying these approaches.

Question 62

Which of the following best describes the WAAS?

Answer 62

It allows GPS to be used as a primary means of navigation.

It covers a more extensive service area than traditional ground-based navigation aids.

Each station in the network relays the data to a wide area master station where correction information for specific geographical areas is computed.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.0: See the explanations.

Question 63

What is the minimum number of GPS satellites necessary for the RAIM?

Answer 63

5

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.3.1: RAIM uses extra satellites in view to compare solutions and detect problems. It usually takes four satellites to compute a navigation solution, and a minimum of five for RAIM to function. The availability of RAIM is a function of the number of visible satellites and their geometry. It is complicated by the movement of satellites relative to a coverage area and temporary satellite outages resulting from scheduled maintenance or failures.

Question 64

Which of the following is true regarding GPS overlay approaches?

Answer 64

When the pilot is using the GPS to fly the approach, the appropriate navigation aid which defines the published approach does not have to be monitored. Also, pilots are allowed to use the GPS when the traditional navigation aids are temporarily unserviceable.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.4.2.2: Unless required by the AFM or AFM supplement, when conducting GNSS overlay approaches, the VOR, DME and/or NDB onboard navigation equipment does not need to be installed and/or functioning and the underlying approach navigation aid(s) do(es) not need to be functioning. Nevertheless, good airmanship dictates that all available sources of information be monitored.

Question 65

When may a pilot perform a GPS- (TSO-C129/C129a avionics) based approach at an alternate airport?

Answer 65

For GPS units that do not have FDE RAIM (Fault Detection and Exclusion RAIM) the PIC must do a RAIM prediction a least once before the midpoint of the flight to the destination airport.

Not more than one satellite outage is predicted for a 60-minute period before or after the ETA at the alternate airport.

When the alternate aerodrome and the destination aerodrome are separated by a minimum of 75 NM where both aerodromes are in either Nunavut, or north of 56 degrees North latitude in Quebec and Labrador, and by a minimum of 100 NM where either or both aerodromes are located anywhere else in Canada.

Question 66

When do we have to do a RAIM prediction while doing an LNAV approach?

Answer 66

When intending to perform a LNAV approach, the RAIM prediction feature should be verified prior to takeoff and prior to start the descent.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.4.2.1: Pilots using TSO C129/C129a avionics should use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that approach-level RAIM will be supported at the destination or alternate airport for the ETA (±15 min). This should be done before takeoff, and again prior to commencing a GNSS-based approach. If approach-level RAIM is not expected to be available, pilots should advise ATS as soon as practicable and state their intentions (e.g. delay the approach, fly another type of approach, proceed to alternate).

Question 67

A pilot can find the service frequencies of an airport that offers a VDF guidance service:

Answer 67

In the part of the CFS dedicated to the desired airport.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.10: VHF direction finders (VDF) are installed at a number of flight service stations (FSSs) and airport control towers. VDFs operate on pre-selected very high frequency (VHF) communication frequencies, which are listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) entry for the aerodrome where the equipment is installed. An airport controller or flight service specialist responsible for VDF operation has access to numerical readouts that provide a visual indication of an aircraft’s bearing from a VDF site.

This information is based on the radio transmission received from the aircraft, thus giving the VDF operator a means of providing bearing or heading information to pilots requesting the service.

Question 68

Onboard RHO-THETA RNAV computers can electronically offset a ______ station. in order to get a new waypoint. This waypoint is defined by its _____ from the

Answer 68

VOR/DME; bearing and distance.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.12: VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Discance Measuring Equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA) System: The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any desired location within reception range. The relocated position is known as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance from the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments and the computer provides steering guidance to and from waypoints.

Question 69

The waypoint given by an RNAV system may be provided by:

Answer 69

AVOR/DME.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.12: VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA) System: The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any desired location within reception range. The relocated position is known as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance from the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments and the computer provides steering guidance to and from waypoints.

Question 70

The RHO-RHO RNAV system has the location of the DME facilities in its data base. Measuring the distance from _____ or more of these stations can provide a
positional fix.

Answer 70

2

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.13: Distance Measuring Equipment (DME-DME [RHO-RHO]) System: DME-DME is a system which combines distance measuring equipment (DME) receivers with a microprocessor to provide an area navigation (RNAV) capability. The system has the location of the DME facilities in its data base. Measuring the distance from two or more of these stations can provide a positional fix. The system provides a means of entering waypoints for a random route and displays navigation information such as bearing, distance, cross-track error and time-to-go between two points.

Question 71

The accuracy of an RNAV is expected to be achieved at least _____ % of the flight time.

Answer 71

95

Explanation

An RNAV specification is shown as “RNAV X”, with “X” indicating the lateral navigation accuracy in nautical miles. This accuracy is expected to be achieved at least 95% of the flight time by aircraft operating within the airspace, route or procedure.

Question 72

The RNAV VOR/DME system will switch to dead reckoning navigation if:

Answer 72

The onboard computer does not receive any information regarding radial from the VOR station.

Explanation

In navigation, you can calculate your current position using a predetermined position, or fix, and some information known or estimated (speeds over elapsed

The RNAV VOR/DME system uses the dead reckoning navigation when the on-board computer does not receive any information of radial or distance from the VOR/DME

station. In this situation, the RNAV uses the TAS provided by the air data computer, the heading from the aircraft compass and the last computed wind speed.

Question 73

Which of the following is true regarding the INS?

Answer 73

It measures acceleration against time to determine speed and position.

Explanation

An inertial navigation system (INS) is a navigation aid that needs a computer, accelerometers and gyroscopes to continuously calculate, via dead reckoning (relative to a known starting point, orientation and velocity), the position (for example, a move east or south), orientation (rotation about an axis) and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of the aircraft without any external aid.

A typical inertial measurement unit (IMU) contains three rate-gyroscopes (measuring angular velocity) and three accelerometers (measuring linear acceleration): one for each axis.

The INS initially needs to know its position and velocity from another source (the pilot, a GPS receiver, etc.) to determine its own updated position and velocity by integrating information received from the accelerometers. The INS is fully autonomous: it does not require any external references to determine its own position, orientation or velocity once it has been initialized. However, because of some integration drift problems (decreased accuracy during the flight), the data can be corrected by a reset with a complementary source, such as a satellite positioning system.

Nowadays, most of the INS have been replaced by the IRS (inertial reference system). The operation of the IRS is similar to the operation of the INS. The main difference is that the gyroscopes have been replaced by lasers (one on each aircraft axis). The lasers have the advantage of lasting longer, as they do not have any moving parts. The IRS often gives information directly to the FMS.

Question 74

What does an “I” as the first letter of the localizer frequency identifier mean?

Answer 74

That the localizer centreline is within 3° of the runway centreline.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.11.1: LOC alignment exceeding 3° of the runway heading will have an “X” as the first letter of the indicator, whereas LOCs and back courses with an alignment of 3= or less will have an “I” as the first letter.

Question 75

The angular width of a localizer is ____, and the glide-slope beam width is _____

Answer 75

3 to 6°; 1.4°

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.11.1: The LOC provides the pilot with course guidance to the runway centreline. When the LOC is used with the glide slope, it is called an ILS. The LOC is adjusted to provide an angular width typically between 3° and 6°, depending on runway length. The transmitter antenna array is located at the far end of the runway away from the approach. LOCs operate in the 108.1-111.9 MHz frequency range. The LOC may be offset up to 3° from the runway heading and still publish as a straight-in procedure; however, the amount of offset will be published as a note on the approach plate.

AIM, COM 4.11.2: The glide path is adjusted to a published approach angle (typically 3°) and a beam width of 1.4°.

Question 76

Which of the following is true regarding emergency automatic landing systems?

Answer 76

These systems can be engaged by automated emergency descent management systems, envelope protection systems, or manually by a passenger.

These systems are only available for aircraft under IFR flight plan.

These systems can select runways without consideration of international boundaries.

Explanation

AIM, COM 11.2: Some light aircraft are equipped with an emergency automatic landing system that can perform a completely autonomous landing in an emergency situation. These systems could be triggered by automated emergency descent management systems, envelope protection systems, or they can even be engaged manually by a passenger if the pilot has become incapacitated. Upon activation, emergency automatic landing systems will determine the optimal route to a suitable aerodrome, fly the aircraft to a selected runway, and perform a survivable landing. Regardless if the aircraft was being operated under visual flight rules (VFR) or instrument flight rules (IFR), once a destination runway has been determined, the onboard system generates a path to the Final approach Fix which avoids terrain, obstacles and, depending on aircraft options, even severe weather along the way.

Emergency automatic landing systems select the most suitable runway based on several factors, although these systems normally prefer airports with control towers since they offer better coordination with other traffic as well as emergency services on the ground. It should be noted that these systems can select suitable runways without consideration of international boundaries.

Question 77

The CDI deflection by one dot represents _____ for a VOR and ____ for an ILS.

Answer 77

2°; 0.5º

Explanation

Normally, the LOC width is 5°, which results in full deflection of the track bar at 2.5° (0,5° per dot). The full deflexion of the VORs CDI represents 10°: 2° per dot.

Question 78

On the ILS glide path, the needle deflection from full scale up to full scale down represents:

Answer 78

1.4°

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.11.2:The glide path is normally adjusted co an approach angle of 3° and a beam width of 1.4°.

Question 79

Which of the following is true regarding a LOC-based approach?

Answer 79

LOC-based approaches cannot be overlaid.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 9.2.2: The standard “T” design of the approach courses may be modified by the procedure designer where required by terrain or for ATC considerations. For instance, the “T” design may appear more like a regularly or irregularly shaped “Y”, or may even have one or both outboard IAWP eliminated, resulting in an upside down “L” or an T configuration.

AIM, COM 5.4.2: All approaches must be retrieved from the avionics database, and that database must be current. While it is sometimes acceptable to use pilot-generated waypoints en route, it is not permitted for approach procedures.

AIM, COM 5.4.2.2: GNSS overlay approaches are included on certain traditional VOR- or NDB-based approaches, that have been approved to be flown using the guidance of IFR approach-certified GNSS avionics. Because of approach design criteria. LOC-based approaches cannot be overlaid.

GNSS overlay approaches are intended to be a transition measure to allow immediate benefits while waiting for the commissioning of a GNSS stand-alone approach for a runway. For this reason, in most cases, the GNSS overlay approach will be discontinued when a GNSS stand-alone approach is published for a given runway.

Question 80

Which of the following radar systems uses a coded interrogation and reply signal?

Answer 80

SSR