2_6 Flashcards

1
Q

Clouds that can be associated with low ceilings and poor visibility are called:

A

Stratus

Explanation
Low-level clouds are found between the ground and 6,500 feet. They are composed of water droplets, possibly supercooled, and sometimes ice crystals. Low visibility can

be expected.
Those clouds include stratus (St), stratocumulus (Sc) and nimbostratus (Ns).

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2
Q

The temperature of the air that descends rapidly on the leeward side of a mountain after it has been forced upward on the wind-ward side when it was saturated will _____ at the _____ adiabatic lapse rate.

A

Increase; dry

Explanation
Orographic lift occurs when the wind blows against a mountain range. The air, forced upward, encounters a lower pressure: it expands and cools. When dew point is met,

condensation occurs, causing the formation of orographic clouds on the wind-ward side and on the upper side of the mountains. The rapid descending air on the leeward

side will not usually create a cloud formation as it has been dried up. Moreover, as it is compressed during the descent, the air warms up at the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

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3
Q

Clouds and precipitations than can be associated with moist and unstable air are:

A

Towering cumulus and showers.

Cumulus clouds develop in rising air currents and are a show of unstable air.

Convective clouds include cumulus (Cu), towering cumulus (TCu) and cumulonimbus (Cb). Convective clouds are created in unstable air. Flight conditions under those

clouds are turbulent because of vertical currents and turbulence. Precipitation under those clouds is showers.

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4
Q

________ type clouds are characteristic of mountain wave activity.

A

Lenticular.

Explanation

If the air mass related to orographic waves is moist, it will create particular clouds:

  • cap clouds: these cover mountaintops, making them invisible to pilots;
  • lenticular clouds: these appear lens-shaped on the ridges of waves, and can expand vertically over several thousands of feet;
  • rotor clouds: these are formed in turbulence swirls and can develop to cumulonimbus stage. Their base lies below mountain peaks and their top may exceed the peaks. We find the most severe turbulence between the ground and these clouds.
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5
Q

Jet streams stronger than 110 kts at the core have areas of significant clear air turbulence near them in the sloping tropopause _____ the core, in the jet stream front_____the core and on the ______ pressure side of the core.

A

Above; below; low.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

  1. Jet streams stronger than 110 kt (at the core) have areas of significant turbulence near them in the sloping tropopause above the core, in the jet stream front below the core and on the low-pressure side of the core.
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6
Q

On a 250 hPa chart, isotachs are close together. What should you expect?

A

Sufficient horizontal wind shear to cause CAT.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.10: These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly.

  1. On charts for standard isobaric surfaces such as the 250 mbs charts, 30 kt isotachs spaced closer than 90 NM indicate sufficient horizontal shear for CAT. This area is normally on the north (low-pressure) side of the jet stream axis, but in unusual cases may occur on the south side.
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7
Q

What type of clouds could be encountered near a mountain wave activity?

A

Cap clouds.

Rotor clouds.

Lenticular clouds..

Explanation

If the air mass related to orographic waves is moist, it will create particular clouds:

  • cap clouds: these cover mountaintops, making them invisible to pilots;
  • lenticular clouds: these appear lens-shaped on the ridges of waves, and can expand vertically over several thousands of feet;
  • rotor clouds: these are formed in turbulence swirls and can develop to cumulonimbus stage. Their base lies below mountain peaks and their top may exceed the peaks. We find the most severe turbulence between the ground and these clouds.
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8
Q

Coriolis force is caused by:

A

The rotation of the Earth.

Explanation

Air always moves from high pressure to low pressure zones. The force creating this movement is called the “pressure gradient force.” The Coriolis force, created by Earth’s rotation, forces air in movement to deviate to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. As wind speed increases, the Coriolis force becomes more powerful.

The Coriolis force is nil at the equator and increases with latitude to be the strongest at the poles.

In the Northern Hemisphere, wind blows counterclockwise around the depression and moves away from high pressure deviating to the right (clockwise). The opposite occurs in the Southern Hemisphere.

To find the low-pressure zone, stand with the wind at your back, and low pressure will be on your left (see Buys Ballot’s law).

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9
Q

At night, a ______ may go down slopes when the earth’s surface is cooled by .

A

Katabatic; radiation.

Explanation

Mountain winds are caused by a slope heating process du

A slope not covered with ice or snow warms up during the day, and warms the air with which it is in contact. This air becomes less dense and moves up the slope to the

mountaintop. This phenomenon is called “anabatic wind.”

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10
Q

The Continental Arctic air mass is:

A

Dry and cold.

Explanation
Continental arctic (cA) and continental polar (cP) air masses both consist of dry and cold air. They arise from extremely cold surfaces (covered by ice and snow) of the

extreme north.

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11
Q

While in flight in the overcast layer of a warm front, precipitation changes from steady rain to heavy showers. This is an indication that:

A

The warm air is moist and unstable.

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12
Q

An inversion will probably occur if a _____ air mass is over _____

A

mT; North Atlantic in spring.

Explanation

Inversion is when the Troposphere air temperature is increasing with altitude instead of decreasing.

An inversion can occur at night, when the ground cools down air with which it is in contact. Sometimes this happens when a cold air mass slips under a warm air mass. A tropical maritime air mass (mT) is warm and moist.

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13
Q

A Trowal forms:

A

During an occlusion.

Explana

A trowal (TROugh of Warm air Aloft) is a trough of warm air in altitude. It is found in warm or cold occlusion, or, in other words, when there are three air masses: a cool air mass moving over a cold air mass or a cold air mass moving over a cool air mass, and a third air mass, of warm air, that creates a trough above those two colder air masses.

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14
Q

What is the cause of the stratus cloud deck common to most warm fronts?

A

The adiabatic cooling of the climbing warm air.

Explanation

As air rises, it encounters a lower pressure: it expands and cools. This process is called “adiabatic cooling.”

Non-saturated air is cooled by approximately 3°C for each 1,000 feet. This phenomenon is called the “dry adiabatic lapse rate.”

If the air is cooled until the dew point, condensation is formed and clouds appear.

It is easy to see a warm active front approaching. The first clue is high cirrus clouds. Immediately afterward, you can see cirrostratus. It keeps growing until it becomes a solid altostratus and altocumulus mass. Low nimbostratus join altostratus to create a bench of compact clouds with their base close to the surface and their top up to 25,000 feet (sometimes more), which covers the whole area. Precipitation, usually abundant, will create precipitation fog (or frontal fog) and will develop because of extra humidity.

Warm air mass is usually pretty stable, air is calm, which helps the creation of stratus clouds.

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15
Q

During a flight inside stratus type clouds, you would expect _____ ice when the temperature is between _____ and _____

A

Rime; -10°C; -20°C.

Explanation
Supercooled water droplets in stratus clouds are small. When the temperature of the skin of an aircraft passing through these clouds is below the freezing point, rime ice

will appear. The ideal outside temperature for this type of icing is between -10 and -20°C.

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16
Q

During a navigation flight, you begin to fly at an altitude where the temperature is well below the freezing point. A few nautical miles before your arrival, you decide to start your descent to an altitude where the temperature is back over the freezing point and where it is raining. After a few minutes at this altitude, you notice that a layer of barely visible ice has formed on the aeroplane’s wings, just over the fuel tanks. What is the likely cause of this phenomenon?

A

The fuel temperature remained below the freezing point, cooling the wings and causing the formation of ice due to rain freezing on the surface.

Explanation

AIM, AIR 2.12.2: (e) The Cold-Soaking Phenomenon: Where fuel tanks are located in the wings of aircraft, the temperature of the fuel greatly affects the temperature of the wing surface above and below these tanks. After a flight, the temperature of an aircraft and the fuel carried in the wing tanks may be considerably colder than the ambient temperature. An aircraft’s cold-soaked wings conduct heat away from precipitation so that, depending on a number of factors, clear ice may form on some aircraft, particularly on wing areas above the fuel tanks. Such ice is difficult to see and, in many instances, cannot be detected other than by touch with the bare hand or by means of a special purpose ice detector.

As well, cold-soaking can cause frost to form on the upper and lower wing under conditions of high relative humidity. This is one type of contamination that can occur in above freezing weather at airports where there is normally no need for de-icing equipment, or where the equipment is deactivated for the summer. This contamination typically occurs where the fuel in the wing tanks becomes cold-soaked to below-freezing temperatures because of low temperature fuel uplifted during the previous stop, or cruising at altitudes where low temperatures are encountered, or both, and a normal descent is made into a region of high humidity. In such instances, frost will form on the under and upper sides of the fuel tank region during the ground turn-around time, and tends to re-form quickly even when removed.

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17
Q

Freezing drizzle:

A

Causes a severe clear icing just below the cloud it falls from.

Explanation
Freezing drizzle (FZDZ) falls from low stratus clouds (but can be found up to 15,000 feet at -10°C) that have a high water content. When leaving the cloud, the drizzle droplet

evaporates: it becomes smaller and smaller as it falls down to the ground. It is why the most severe icing (clear type) will occur just below the cloud, where the droplets are

the largest.

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18
Q

In flight, an aircraft encounters ______ precipitations. You may conclude that freezing rain precipitations will be present at higher altitudes.

A

Ice pellets.

Explanation

Here are the precipitations you should expect from high to low when crossing a warm front frontal surface in winter:

  • snow in the higher cloud part of the warm air mass in which the temperature is below freezing point;
  • rain in the cloud part of the air mass in which the temperature is above freezing point;
  • freezing rain, caused by the rain going through cold air (usually under warm air), becoming supercooled and freezing upon contact of cold objects (like an aircraft flying at this frontal surface level);
  • ice pellets in the area preceding freezing rain, which result from rain freezing when passing through cold air.

If you fly at high altitude, you will only encounter snow. However, if you are at a relatively low altitude and pass from cold air frontal surface to warm air, you will first encounter snow, followed by ice pellets and freezing rain.

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19
Q

What characterizes the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm?

A

The presence of downdrafts only, in the entire area of the cloud.

Explanation
Thunderstorms start dissipating after precipitation has reached the ground. This cold precipitation cools down the lower part of the cloud, causing a loss of energy in the

thunderstorm cell. The descending current, created by precipitation, extends more and more through the entire cell. Only a thin zone of the summit still has ascending

currents. Precipitation decreases gradually and the summit extends in an anvil shape.

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20
Q

In a tornado, wind circulation is _____ in the Southern Hemisphere.

A

Clockwise.

Explanation

A low pressure area is called “cyclone.” “depression” or “low pressure.” A depression is a zone where che pressure is relatively low and minimum value is in the centre.

A tornado is an extremely hollow depression, slightly extended, but very concentrated.

Air always moves from high pressure to low pressure zones. The force creating this movement is called che “pressure gradient force.” The Coriolis force, created by Earth’s rotation, forces air in movement to deviate to che right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. As wind speed increases, the Coriolis force becomes more powerful.

The Coriolis force is nil at the equator and increases with latitude to be che strongest at the poles.

In che Northern Hemisphere, wind blows counterclockwise around the depression and moves away from high pressure deviating to the right (clockwise). The opposite occurs in the Southern hemisphere.

To find che low-pressure zone, stand with the wind at your back, and low pressure will be on your left (see Buys Ballot’s law).

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21
Q

The downdrafts associated with microbursts can reach a vertical speed of feet per minute.

A

6,000

Explanation
Downdrafts associated with microbursts can reach a vertical speed of 6,000 feet per minute. When arriving close to the ground, they spread out in all directions in

horizontal winds moving as fast as 80 knots. They cause strong wind shears and change direction fast. Microbursts can be found as far as 10 miles from the thunderstorm

cell and can remain for an hour.

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22
Q

Attempting to land below a thunderstorm, even if ceiling and visibility are favourable, is not recommended. This is because of:

A

The risk of strong irregular winds and gusts.

Explanation

Thunderstorms are responsible for strong winds (downbursts and wind shears), severe turbulence, gusts (up to 80 knots) and squalls. These conditions can be found under the thunderstorm, but also up to a distance of 15 nautical miles away from it. These changes in wind direction are particularly dangerous for aircraft taking off or landing at low altitude and low airspeed.

Low-level wind shear, when associated with a thunderstorm, is caused by a gust front and a strong downburst.

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23
Q

What type of fog is associated with a warm front?

A

Frontal fog.

Explanation

Precipitation fog, also called frontal fog, can usually be found at the warm front. Drizzle or rain falling down from the warm air evaporates in cold air and saturates it in humidity, which creates fog.

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24
Q

Arctic sea smoke is:

A

A type of fog that forms when Arctic cold air comes over a relatively warmer body of water.

Explanation

Steam fog occurs when cold air moves over a warm water surface. Water evaporation saturates cold air. Condensation forms and creates this fog which occurs most of the time in fall over lakes and rivers.

Arctic sea smoke is a kind of steam fog.

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25
Q

Radiation fog is caused by:

A

Air with high relative humidity cooling down during a clear night.

Explanation

Radiation fog occurs during clear nights: the ground cools down and cools the air with which it is in contact.

Ideal conditions for this type of fog include:

  • moist air;
  • temperature slightly below dew point;
  • condensation nuclei;
  • light wind increasing cooling in low levels;
  • clear sky. allowing faster cooling.
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26
Q

Which of the following situations could lead to advection fog?

A

An air mass coming from the south shore and moving inward of northern lands during winter.

Explanation
Advection fog is created by warm moist air cooling that moves over a colder surface. It can occur when the air comes from warm land or a warm water surface and goes over a cold water surface. It also can appear when cooled down air is moving from the south to the north.

This fog can persist for many days and covers a wide area. It frequently occurs on the coasts.

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27
Q

Winds provided on _____ are expressed in magnetic degrees.

A

ATIS

Explanation

To determine if wind direction is being expressed in true or magnetic degrees, remember that “everything written is true.” The ATIS is a spoken message: therefore, the wind direction is in magnetic degrees.

On the other hand, the METAR is a written message: therefore, the wind direction is in true degrees.

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28
Q

Which of the following is true regarding VOLMETs?

A

The VOLMET is a meteorological information particularly for aircraft over the high seas.

Information on the content, issue times and transmitter frequencies for NAT VOLMET broadcasts is given in the CFS.

The VOLMET contains METARs and TAFs for selected aerodromes and may be provided either by data link (D-VOLMET) or by voice broadcasts on designated frequencies, normally HF.

Explanation

AIM, MET 1.4.1: The VOLMET is meteorological information for aircraft in flight, particularly those over the high seas. The VOLMET contains METARs and aerodrome forecasts (TAF) for selected aerodromes and may be provided either by data link (D-VOLMET) or by voice broadcasts on designated frequencies, normally high frequency (HF).

Information on the content, issue times and transmitter frequencies for NAT VOLMET broadcasts is given in the CFS, Section “D”, Radio Navigation and Communications.

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29
Q

Question 29
METAR CYCB 251900Z 02011KT 1SM BR BKN002 OVC020 01/01 A3000 RMK FG1SF6SC1 VIS SE1/4 S-W 3 SLP163= SPECI CYCB 251852Z 03009KT 1SM BR OVC002 RMK FG1SF7 VIS SE 1/4 W 3=

SPECI CYCB 251813Z 03009KT 1/2SM FG OVC002 RMK FG2ST6 VIS VRB 1/4-3/4=

TAF CYCB 251838Z 2519/2607 04012KT 1/2SM FG OVC002 TEMPO 2519/2521 5SM -DZ BR OVC005 FM252100 02012KT 2 1/2SM -DZ BR OVC005 TEMPO 2521/2607 P6SM NSW

BKN008 OVC015 RMK NXT FCST BY 260100Z=

According to the information above, the difference between the lowest cloud ceiling reported at 1900Z and the one forecasted for the same time is feet.

A

300.

AIM, MET 7.0: See explanations.

AIM, MET 7.4: “TEMPO” is only used when the modified forecast condition is expected to last less than one hour in each instance, and if expected to recur, the total period of the modified condition will not cover more than half of the total forecast period. The total period of the modified condition is the time period during which the actual modified weather condition is expected to occur, and not the total time stated for the ‘TEMPO” time period. When the modified forecast condition is expected to last more than one hour, either “FM” or “BECMG” must be used.

AIM, MET 8.0: See explanations.

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30
Q

An urgent PIREP will have the following code:

A

UACN01.

Explanation

AIM, MET 1.1.6.1: PIREPs are also transmitted under the headings “UACN10” for normal PIREPs and “UACN01” or “UUA” for urgent PIREPs.

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31
Q

On a Clouds and Weather GFA chart, a scalloped border, depicted in brown when shown in colour, encloses organized areas of clouds where the sky condition is:

A

BKN or OVC.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.11: (b) Clouds: A scalloped border, depicted in brown when shown in colour, encloses organized areas of clouds where the sky condition is either broken (BKN) or overcast (OVC).

Where organized areas of clouds are not forecast and visibility is expected to be greater than 6 SM, a scalloped border is not used. In these areas, the sky condition is stated using the terms SKC. FEW or SCT.

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32
Q

When are winds indicated in GFAs?

A

When they blow at 20 knots or more.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.11: (g) Surface winds—The speed and direction of forecast surface winds with a sustained speed of at least 20 kt are indicated by wind barbs and an associated windspeed value. When accompanied by strong gusts, mean sustained winds of less than 20 kt may also be included, at the forecaster’s discretion, if moderate mechanical turbulence is expected to occur as a result of the wind gusts. Wind gusts are indicated by the letter “G,” followed by the peak gust speed in knots (KT).

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33
Q

On a surface Graphic Area Forecast, what are the green hatched areas circled by a dashed green line?

A

Areas of intermittent rain.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.11: Areas of showery or intermittent precipitation are shown as hatched areas enclosed by a dashed green line. Areas of continuous precipitation are shown as stippled areas enclosed by a solid green line.

34
Q

When the abbreviations ACC or TCU are used in a P SIG WX/TMPS SIG Charts, you should be alert about the presence of:

A

Moderate or severe icing and turbulence.

Explanation

AIM, MET 4.9: The comments box provides information that the weather forecaster considers important (e.g., formation or dissipation of fog, increasing or decreasing visibility). It is also used to describe elements that are difficult to render pictorially or, if added to the depiction, would cause the chart to become cluttered (e.g., light icing). The standard phrases “HGTS ASL UNLESS NOTED” and “CB TCU AND ACC IMPLY SIG TURBC AND ICG. CB IMPLIES LLWS” are also included in the comments box.

35
Q

Refer to Image 4 in the Appendix.

What do these weather symbols mean?

A

Frontolysis of a stationary front; frontogenesis of a warm front; stationary front; frontolysis of an occluded front.

36
Q

What do aerodrome forecasts (TAF) normally provide?

A

TAFs are intended to relate to weather conditions, such as wind, visibility and cloud heights in AGL, for flight operations within 5 NM of the centre of the runway complex

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.2: TAFs are intended to relate to weather conditions for flight operations within 5 NM of the centre of the runway complex, depending on local terrain. AIM, MET 7.0: See the explanations.

37
Q

If a TAF contains the terms TEMPO or PROB, can the aerodrome meet the alternate minimum requirements?

A

Yes, if the forecasted TEMPO condition is not below the published alternate minimum requirements and the PROB condition is not below the landing minima for that aerodrome.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.13: Aerodrome forecasts (TAF) that contain the terms BECMG, TEMPO or PROB may be used to determine the weather suitability of an aerodrome as an alternate, provided that:

  • where conditions are forecast to improve, the forecast BECMG condition shall be considered to be applicable as of the end of the BECMG time period, and these conditions shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome;
  • where conditions are forecast to deteriorate, the forecast BECMG condition shall be considered to be applicable as of the start of the BECMG time period, and these conditions shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome;
  • the forecast TEMPO condition shall not be below the published alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome; and
  • the forecast PROB condition shall not be below the appropriate landing minima for that aerodrome.
38
Q

FBCN35 KWNO 110758 YZH

DATA BASED ON 110600Z
VALID 120600Z FOR USE 0000-1200Z
24000	30000	34000	39000	45000	53000
3120-36	333051	322958	312252	302050	311655
FBCN33 KWNO 110758 YZH

DATA BASED ON 110600Z
VALID 111800Z FOR USE 1500-0000Z
24000 30000 34000 39000 45000 53000
3416-40 362251 321352 311450 311851 331654

FBCN31 KWNO 110758 YZH
DATA BASED ON 110600Z
VALID 111200Z FOR USE 0800-1500Z
24000	30000	34000	39000	45000	53000
2516-41	222650	251251	291651	311851	321754

According to the YZH FD above, at 2000Z at 39,000 feet, winds will blow from _____ at 14 knots and the outside temperature will be ____°C.

A

310°T; -50.

39
Q

WSCN31 CWEG 212123 SVjSIGMET L1 VALID 212155/220155 CWEG- V^VWTN 15 NM OF LN /4942N12344W/35 NW VANCOUVER - /4903N12245W/20 SE & VANCOUVER. js&SEV MXD ICG FCST BLO 150 IN CVCTV CLD. SEV ICG REPD BY A340 25NM NW ^OF VANCOUVER AT 2131Z. AREA MOVG SW 15 KT. WKNG NXT 3 HRS. ;s£.jEND/GFA31/CMAC-W/BSS/TBG

Using the above SIGMET, determine which of the following is true:

A

At 2131Z, an Airbus A340 met severe icing 25 nautical miles at the north-west

40
Q

What is the maximum validity period of a TAF?

A

30 hours

Explanation

AIM, MET 7.4: Period of Validity: The period of validity for the TAF is indicated by two four-digit date/time groups; the first four-digit group indicates the start date and time of the TAF, and the second four-digit group indicates the end date and time of the TAF. A TAF is considered to be valid from the moment it is issued (e g. a TAF with an indicated period of validity from 1100Z to 2300Z that was issued at 1040Z is considered to be valid from 1040Z) until it is amended; until the next scheduled TAF for the same aerodrome is issued; or until the period of validity ends and no new TAF has been issued. The maximum period of validity for a TAF is 30 hr; however, some TAFs have staggered issue times and more frequent update cycles, which affects their periods of validity.

41
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding FBs (forecasts in digital form of the wind and temperature aloft)?

A

Winds are expressed in knots and to the nearest 10° true, and temperatures are expressed in degrees Celsius.

Explanation

AIM, MET 9.2: Upper level wind and temperature forecasts (FD) are upper level forecasts of wind velocity, expressed in knots (kt) and to the nearest 10° true, and temperature, expressed in degrees Celsius (°C).

Forecasts in digital form of the winds and the temperatures aloft (FB) are currently available over the phone. They have a similar format to FD forecasts but are updated four times a day and include other improvements. FD forecasts will continue to be available but will gradually be replaced by FB forecasts.

42
Q

The period of validity of a SIGMET for volcanic ash and tropical storm is _____ hours.

A

6

Explanation

AIM, MET 6.6: The period of validity of a WS SIGMET is 4 hr and it may be issued up co 4 hr prior to the commencement of the phenomenon in the corresponding FIR. There is an exception for volcanic ash and tropical storm SIGMETs which are valid for 6 hr and may be issued up to 12 hr before they enter the corresponding FIR.

In the case of a SIGMET for an ongoing phenomenon, the date/time group indicating the start of the SIGMET period will be rounded back to 5 min from the filing time (date/time group in the WMO heading).

In the case of a SIGMET for an expected phenomenon (forecast event), the beginning of the validity period will be the time of the expected commencement (occurrence) of the phenomenon.

43
Q

Refer to Image 3 in the Appendix.

These symbols, present on a surface weather chart, represent: 1 ____ and 2_____

A

Freezing rain; freezing drizzle.

44
Q

On 250 hPa upper-level analysis charts, the number “030” that would be indicated just under the centre of a high-pressure system would indicate that:

A

The height of the high-pressure cencre is 10.300 metres.

Explanation

AIM, MET 11.1: Height: The solid lines (contours) on all the charts represent the approximate height of the pressure level indicated by the map. The contours are labelled in decametres (1 Os of metres) such that on a 500 hPa map, 540 means 5 400 m and on a 250 hPa map, 020 means 10 200 m. Contours are spaced 60 m (6 decametres) apart except at 250 hPa, where the spacing is 120 m.

45
Q

Refer to Image 2 in the Appendix.

In a significant weather prognostic high-level chart, this image represents:

A

Severe squall lines.

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: (f) Severe squall lines: Severe squall lines are depicted using the symbol -V- and are oriented to true north with a representative length.

46
Q

Refer to Image 1 in the Appendix.
On Significant Weather Prognostic High-Level Charts (SIGWX HI LVL), image “a” represents _____ , and image “b” represents_____

A

Radioactive material in the atmosphere; a volcanic eruption.

Explanation

AIM, MET 12.2: (I) volcanic eruption: refer to explanations.

(m) radioactive material in the atmosphere: refer to explanations.

47
Q

What is “station pressure”?

A

The weight of the column of air measured above an airport.

Explanation

The pressure at che station is the actual atmospheric pressure at the elevation of this station. As atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, the higher a station, the lower its pressure.

To obtain a constant pressure dist

To obtain the mean sea level pressure with the station pressure, add the weight of an imaginary air column going from the station to the mean sea level. Also take account

of the temperature at the station.

48
Q

During a descent starting at 3,000 feet AGL and ending on the ground, you can expect that the wind ____ and _____

A

Will back; decrease.

Explanation

Usually, from che ground to several thousands of feet, wind veers (it becomes dextrorotatory) and its speed increases. On che contrary, when descending, it is going back (it becomes levorotacory) and its speed decreases.

49
Q

To get the altimeter setting:

A

Station pressure is reduced to sea-level pressure using the International Standard Atmosphere.

Explanation

The altimeter is calibrated for the standard atmosphere, so it has to be set with real pressure conditions to provide pilots with the right altitude above sea level. This pressure (standardized atmospheric pressure) is the altimeter setting given, in North America, in inches of mercury.

The standard atmospheric pressure is different from the mean sea level pressure (MSL). To get the altimeter setting, station pressure is reduced to sea level pressure using the standard temperature at seal level (15°C) and the standard lapse rate (1.98°C per 1,000 feet).

50
Q

The responsible person with whom the pilot filed a flight itinerary:

A

Is an individual who has agreed with the person who has filed a flight itinerary to ensure that the control unit or search and rescue is notified if the aircraft is overdue.

CAR 602.70
CAR 602.77

51
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the following NOTAM?

(J0094/19 NOTAMN
A) CXXX B) 1910100901 C) PERM
E) CPY5 TORONTO/WILSON’S (HELI)
AMEND PUBLICATIONS: BUILDING 433725N 0792920W (APRX 3.3NM E AD). 305FT AGL 598FT AMSL. NOT LGTD, NOT PAINTED.)

A

This NOTAM has been issued for CYP5. It is valid from October 10, 2019, at 0901Z and will end when a NOTAMR or NOTAMC is issued.

AIM, MAP 3.2.3.3
AIM, MAP 3.2.3.4

52
Q

CMNPS airspace is that _____ airspace within CDA, between _____ and _____ inclusive.

A

Controlled; FL 330; FL410.

Explanation

AIP, ENR 2.2.2: CMNPS airspace is defined as a controlled airspace within CDA, between flight levels (FL) 330 and FL 410 in the Designated Airspace Handbook (TP 1820E) (see Figure 2.2.2, “RNPC, CMNPS and CMNPS Transition Airspace”). This airspace is contained for the most part in the Arctic Control Area (ACA) and the NCA, with a small portion in the Southern Control Area (SCA).

53
Q

Where can the details about extended range twin-engined operations (ETOPS) be found?

A

In the safety criteria for approval of extended range twin-engine operations manual of Transport Canada.

CAR 705.26

54
Q

An operational TCAS in an aircraft should be indicated in the” “ item of the flight plan.

A

Equipment.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.15.4: See explanations.

55
Q

The pilot of _____ flight between Canada to Mexico must fill _____

A

A private or commercial; an ICAO flight plan.

Explanation

AIM, RAC 3.5.3: A VFR or IFR flight plan must be Filed prior to conducting any flight between Canada and a foreign state. If the flight is to any country other than the U.S., an ICAO flight plan must be Filed. ATS must not accept flight itineraries, composite flight plans, or CVFR flight plans for flights between Canada and the U.S.

ADCUS notification is no longer accepted on flight plans for transborder flights departing from Canada to the U.S. or from the U.S. to Canada. Pilots are required to file a flight plan to an acceptable customs destination in the U.S. and are also required to contact U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to make customs arrangements prior to their flight. Failure to do so may subject the pilot to a penalty.

56
Q

If flying at 1,500 feet AGL, _____ is the approximate maximum distance at which you can receive a signal from a VOR station on the ground.

A

47 NM.

Explanation

You can determine a VHF radionav reception distance such as VOR with the following formula: Reception Distance (in NM) = 1.23 ‘’/Altitude AGL (in feet)

Here, reception distance is: 1.23 V1,500 = 47.64 NM.

57
Q

You are flying on a heading of 160° and the VOR needle is centred with a FROM indication when 130° is selected on the OBS. Determine the heading to steer to intercept the 180° radial inbound with a 60° angle.

A

300°.

58
Q

You are flying on a heading of 187°M and the relative bearing to the NDB station, indicated on your fixed card ADF, is 115°M. In order to intercept a track of 195°M outbound with a 30° interception angle, you should steer a heading of _____. While on the track, you apply a 15° correction to the right to compensate for the wind. Your RMI will indicate _____ .

A

225°M; 015°M.

59
Q

If you are flying in an aircraft with a dual VOR system, you can check their accuracy by comparing them to one another. What are the acceptable tolerances on the ground and in the air, respectively?

A

±4°; ±4°.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.5.1: While standard avionics maintenance practices are used for checking aircraft VOR receivers, dual VOR equipment may be checked by tuning both sets to the same VOR facility and noting the indicated bearings sent to that station. A difference greater than 4° between the aircraft’s two VOR receivers indicates that one of the aircraft’s receivers may be beyond acceptable tolerance.

60
Q

On a standard HSI, the full-scale deflection of the ILS indication is ____ , which is ____

A

±2.5°; 1/2°.

61
Q

After taking off from JFK airport, you turn left on a heading of 134°M in order to intercept a track of 118°M outbound. What will display the RMI when you have intercepted the track?

A

298°

The main benefit of the RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator) is to merge information on magnetic bearing to navaids. It shows the continued relative position of a VOR station, just as an ADF station.

62
Q

If you are using a VOR station identification signal and the signal becomes discontinued, this means that:

A

The station is undergoing maintenance or calibration.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.2: During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, or when a NAVAID is identified as not meeting the required performance standard, it is temporarily removed from service and a NOTAM is issued to advise pilots of the deficiency. The removal of the transmitted NAVAID identification can also warns pilots that the facility may be unreliable even though it may still transmit a navigation signal. Under these circumstances the facility should not be used. Similarly, prior to commissioning, a new facility (particularly VOR or ILS) may transmit with or without identification. In such cases, a NOTAM would identify that the facility is unavailable and not to be used for navigation.

63
Q

What is a VOR’s function based on?

A

It measures the phase difference between two transmitted signals.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.5: The VOR is a ground-based, short-distance NAVAID which provides continuous azimuth information in the form of 360 usable radials to or from a station. It is the basis for the VHF airway structure. It is also used for VOR non-precision instrument approaches.

The principle of the VOR is based on the phase difference between two transmitted signals.

64
Q

When checking your VOR and DME while airborne by flying over VOR check landmark, the radial must be within ______ , and your DME indication should be
within _____ of the published distance.

A

±6°; ±0.5 NM or 3%, whichever is greater.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.5.2 : Aircraft VOR equipment may also be checked while airborne by flying over a landmark located on a published radial and noting the indicated radial. Equipment which varies more than ±6! from the published radial should not be used for IFR navigation.

AIM, COM 4.7: Accuracy of the DME system is within ±0.5 NM or three percent of the distance, whichever is greater..

65
Q

DMEs operate in the _____ range and are based on the technology of.

A

UHF; secondary radars.

Explanation

Discance measurement equipment (DME) and the glide slope of the ILS are navaids that both work on the ultra-high-frequency range (UHF), be

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is an electronic transmitter/receiver that provides a seamless reading of the distance between the aircraft and a ground station.

As a secondary surveillance radar, the DME requires equipment aboard the aircraft capable of returning a strong signal to the transmitter.

66
Q

In which of the following situations will the DME have the greatest error?

A

When che aircraft is high and close to che station.

Explanation
The DME measures the slant range between an aircraft and che ground station, not che horizontal distance. The higher and che closer an aircraft is to the ground station,

the bigger che difference between the slant range and the ground distance. The error caused by the slant range will then be more significant when you are close to the

station and at high altitude.

67
Q

ATACAN military station can provide _____ to civilian aircraft.

A

DME information.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.8: TACAN users may obtain distance information from a distance measuring equipment (DME) installation by selecting the TACAN channel that is paired with the VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) frequency. This TACAN paired channel number is published in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) for every VOR/DME facility.

CAUTION: Only DME information is being received by the TACAN avionics. Any apparent radial information obtained through the TACAN avionics from a VOR/DME facility can only be false signals.

68
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a GPS during an approach?

A

In approach mode, a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 0.3 NM from the selected track.

Explanation

When using the GNSS, che CDI deflection depends on the aircraft position in relation to the departure or arrival airport.

  • If the aircraft is located more than 30 NM from the departure airport or less than 30 NM from the arrival airport (en-route mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 5 NM (1 NM per dot) without WAAS and 2 NM with WAAS (0.4 NM per dot) from the selected track.
  • If the aircraft is located less than 30 NM from the arrival airport and more chan 2 NM from the FAF (terminal mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/* 1 NM from che selected track (0.2 NM per dot).
  • If the aircraft is located less than 2 NM from the FAF (approach mode), a full deflection of the CDI equals +/- 0.3 NM from the selected track (0.06 NM per dot).
69
Q

Which of the following is true regarding WAAS?

A

The SBAS GEO satellites serve as addicional sources of navigacion ranging signals.

The signal scabilicy of che WAAS is better than the one offered by che ILS.

WAAS GPS accuracy is 5 cimes greacer than a basic GPS accuracy.

AIM, COM 5.2.1: Refer co the explanations.

AIM, COM 5.3.2: SBAS uses a network of ground-based reference stations that monitor navigation satellite signals and relay data to master stations, which assess signal validity and compute error corrections. The master stations generate two primary types of messages: integrity, and range corrections. These are broadcast to SBAS-capable GNSS receivers via GEO satellites in fixed orbital positions over the equator. The SBAS GEO satellites also serve as additional sources of navigation ranging signals.

The first SBAS, the U.S. FAA’s WAAS, was commissioned in 2003.

WAAS messages are currently being broadcast by three geostationary satellites located on the equator at 107.3°W, 116.8°W and 133°W.

AIM, COM 5.4.2.5: RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance based on WAAS are entirely dependent on the WAAS signal. WAAS meets essentially the same navigation performance requirements (accuracy, integrity and continuity) as ILS, and pilots can expect guidance to be similar to that provided by an ILS, with some improvement in signal stability over ILS.

70
Q

How many satellites are needed to obtain a 3-dimensional position fix with a GPS?

A

4

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.3.1: RAIM uses extra satellites in view to compare solutions and detect problems. It usually takes four satellites to compute a navigation solution, and a minimum of five for RAIM to function.

71
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding GPS operations?

A

It measures a distance by timing a radio signal sent from a satellite. This signal carries data such as satellite position and time of transmission.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.2.1: GPS positioning is based on precise timing. Each satellite has four atomic clocks on board, guaranteeing an accuracy of one billionth of one second, and broadcasts a digital pseudorandom noise (PRN) code that is repeated every millisecond. All GPS receivers start generating the same code at the same time. Code matching techniques establish the time of arrival difference between the generation of the signal at the satellite and its arrival at the receiver. The speed of the signal is closely approximated by the speed of light, with variations resulting from ionospheric and atmospheric effects modeled or directly measured and applied. The time of arrival difference is converted to a distance, referred to as a pseudo range, by computing the product of the time of arrival difference and the average speed of the signal. The satellites also broadcast orbit information (ephemeris) to permit receivers to calculate the position of the satellites at any instant in time.

72
Q

What frequency should be set to use VHF direction finder services?

A

A preselected frequency between 115.00 and 144.00 MHz.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.10: VHF direction finders (VDF) are installed at a number of flight service stations (FSSs) and airport control towers. VDFs operate on pre-selected very high frequency (VHF) communication frequencies, which are listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) entry for the aerodrome where the equipment is installed. An airport controller or flight service specialist responsible for VDF operation has access to numerical readouts that provide a visual indication of an aircraft’s bearing from a VDF site.

This information is based on the radio transmission received from the aircraft, thus giving the VDF operator a means of providing bearing or heading information to pilots requesting the service.

73
Q

Onboard RNAV computer systems which utilize VOR/DME signals can:

A

Transfer the information provided by a VOR/DME station into bearing and distance information given by any waypoint.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.12: VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Discance Measuring Equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA) System: The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any desired location within reception range. The relocated position is known as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance from the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments and the computer provides steering guidance to and from waypoints.

74
Q

Which of the following RNAV systems will provide the best accuracy?

A

RHO-RHO.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.12: VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)/Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA) System: The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/ distance measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any desired location within reception range. The relocated position is known as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance from the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments and the computer provides steering guidance to and from waypoints.

AIM, COM 5.13: Distance Measuring Equipment (DME-DME [RHO-RHO]) System: DME-DME is a system which combines distance measuring equipment (DME) receivers with a microprocessor to provide an area navigation (RNAV) capability. The system has the location of the DME facilities in its data base. Measuring the distance from two or more of these stations can provide a positional fix. The system provides a means of entering waypoints for a random route and displays navigation information such as bearing, distance, cross-track error and time-to-go between two points.

75
Q

The RNAV VOR/DME system will switch to dead reckoning navigation if:

A

The onboard computer does not receive any information of radial or distance from the VOR/DME station.

76
Q

A TLC reflects CDI deviation as one dot for every _____ off course.

A

0.5 NM.

The TLC (track-line computer) reflects CDI deviation as one dot for every 0.5 NM off course.

77
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the INS?

A

It needs settings before being used.

It is subject to errors.

It does not need a ground based station to complete its updates during the flight.

Explanation

An inertial navigation system (INS) is a navigation aid that needs a computer, accelerometers and gyroscopes to continuously calculate, via dead reckoning (relative to a known starting point, orientation and velocity), the position (for example, a move east or south), orientation (rotation about an axis) and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of the aircraft without any external aid.

A typical inertial measurement unit (IMU) contains three rate-gyroscopes (measuring angular velocity) and three accelerometers (measuring linear acceleration): one for each axis.

The INS initially needs to know its position

Nowadays, most of the INS have been replaced by the IRS (inertial reference system). The operation of the IRS is similar to the operation of the INS. The main difference is

that the gyroscopes have been replaced by lasers (one on each aircraft axis). The lasers have the advantage of lasting longer, as they do not have any moving parts. The IRS

often gives information directly to the FMS.

78
Q

The normal, reliable coverage of ILS LOCs is _____ within ___of either side of the course centreline and _____within _____of the course centreline.

A

18 NM; 10°; 10 NM; 35°.

Explanation

AIM, COM 4.11.1: The normal, reliable coverage of ILS LOCs is 18 NM within 10° of either side of the course centreline and 10 NM within 35° of the course centreline.

79
Q

The track bar sensitivity of a localizer is approximately _____ times greater than the track bar of a VOR.

A

4

The full deflection of the LOC track bar is about 2.5° (0,5° per dot).

The full deflexion of the VORs CDI represents 10°: 2° per dot.

80
Q

When flying the LNAV approach, you should use the RAIM prediction to make sure that the approach-level RAIM will be supported at the destination at your ETA +/- ______.

A

15 minutes.

Explanation

AIM, COM 5.4.2.1: Pilots using TSO C129/C129a avionics should use the RAIM prediction feature (including known satellite outages obtained by NOTAM at KGPS) to ensure that approach-level RAIM will be supported at the destination or alternate airport for the ETA (±15 min).