7 Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding carry-on baggage and cargo, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A
Has to leave unblocked:
- Access to safety equipment
- View of seat belt
- No-smoking signs
- Hand-held fire extinguishers
Must be secured in bin so:
- It does not move
- Injure passengers

Explanation:

All accessible cargo must be stored in such a way that it does not block access to safety equipment or block the view of the seat belt and no-smoking signs.

All accessible cargo must be stored so that it does not hinder the use of hand-held fire extinguishers.

Carry-on baggage and cargo must be secured or stored in a bin so that it dees not move or injure passengers during the flight.

CAR 602.86

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2
Q

A TURBOJET-POWERED aeroplane operating in IFR flight in a commuter operation shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft, when an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the flight plan:

A

To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes.

CAR 602.88

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3
Q

Except for the purpose of landing or taking off. no aircraft shall be operated at an altitude of less than ______ feet over an aerodrome.

A

2000

CAR 602.96

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4
Q

In an airline operation, can a pilot operate an aircraft in IFR flight without an IFR flight plan or IFR flight itinerary filed?

A

Yes. IF:

authorized from the Minister
authorized to do so in an air operator certificate,
complies with the Commercial Air service Standards.

CAR 602.122
CAR 705.35

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5
Q

What should a pilot do if ESCAT (Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic) is in force?

A

He/she has to comply with any instructions received from the ATC.

CAR 602.146

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6
Q

How do you know that the aircraft equipment meets the applicable standards of airworthiness, and where is this information?

A

Any equipment that is not serviceable should be reported in the journey log by an AME. and any equipment listed on the MEL is checked and declared serviceable by the pilot in the pilots pre-flight check.

CAR 605.06

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7
Q

If equipment that appears on the MEL is unserviceable or removed from the aircraft, may the aircraft still be flown?

A

Yes. if operated in accordance with any conditions and limitations specified in the MEL which must also be carried on board.

CAR 605.09

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8
Q

When do crew members have to be seated at their stations with their safety belts fastened? What does the PIC have to assure during flight time?

A

During takeoff and landing
At any time that the PIC directs and;
In the case of crew memebers who are flight attendants, at any time that the in-charge flight attendant directs pursuant to paragraph 605.25(4)(b)

At least one pilot shall be seated at the flight controls with his/her safety belt fastened during flight time.

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9
Q

If you fly a pressurized aircraft in an AIR TRANSPORT SERVICE, what is the minimum oxygen requirement following an emergency descent?

A

Sufficient oxygen to supply the flight crew members for two hours if flying at altitudes exceeding FL 250.

CAR 605.31

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10
Q

What is the required oxygen equipment for a 20-minute flight at 12.000 feet asl with 10 passengers on board?

A

None.

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11
Q

When should the pilot at the flight controls wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen?

A

When the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks and is operated above F410.

When the aircraft is operated at cabin pressure altitudes above 13.000 feet asl.

When the aircraft is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks and is operated at or above FL250.

CAR 605.32

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12
Q

Regarding FDR and CVR, except where otherwise permitted, when will you be able to operate an aircraft?

A

Except where otherwise permitted, no person shall operate an aircraft for which a flight data recorder is required unless the flight data recorder is operated continuously from the start of the taxi until the complete stop of the aircraft

CAR 605.33
CAR 605.34

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13
Q

Consider an aircraft that does not have any approved minimum equipment list and for which a flight data recorder and a cockpit voice recorder are required, if the cockpit voice recorder is unserviceable:

A

The aircraft can be used for a maximum period of 90 days after the date of failure of the cockpit voice recorder if the flight data recorder is serviceable.

CAR 605.34

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14
Q

Consider a turbojet-powered aeroplane without MEL and for which an altitude alerting device is required, if this device is unserviceable, the aeroplane can be operated:

A

Where the device becomes unserviceable after takeoff, until it reaches an aerodrome at which the device can be repaired or replaced.

For the sole purpose of conducting a flight test, a competency check, a pilot proficiency check or flight crew member training.

From the place where the operator takes possession of the aeroplane to a place where the aeroplane can be equipped with such a device.

CAR 605.36

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15
Q

A gpws is mandatory in turbo-jet-powered aeroplanes, used in a commuter operation or in an airline operation, that have an MCTOW of more than ______ and for which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of _____ or more passengers.

A

15000 Kg (33.069 lbs); 10.

CAR 605.37

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16
Q

A standby attitude indicator shall be located in the instrument panel of a turbojet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part VII of the car and:

A

Appropriately illuminated during alI phases of operation.

CAR 625.41

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17
Q

When a new journey log is started, what information from the old one should be transferred to the new log?

A

The entries that are necessary to ensure that an unbroken chronological record is maintained.

CAR 605.93

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18
Q

When a current journey log is full, how long must its owner keep it?

A

At least 1 year.

CAR 605.94

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19
Q

When is the journey log of an aircraft not required to be on board during a flight?

A

if the aircraft will not land and shut down at any locacion other than the point of departure.

car 605.95

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20
Q

A flight crew member on RESERVE is a flight crew member who has been designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of:

A

More than one hour.

CAR 700.01

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21
Q

What is the maximum flight time that can be done during 30 consecutive days for a flight crew member?

A

112h

RAC 700.19
CAR 700.27

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22
Q

What are the standards that comply with unforeseen operational circumscances?

A

(1) Flight duty time and flight time limitations may be excended by up to 3 consecutive hours provided that
(a) where flight duty time is excended. the subsequent minimum rest period shall be increased by an amount at least equal to the extension to the flight duty time;
(b) the pilot-m-command shall notify the air operacor. in accordance with procedures outlined in che company operations manual, of the length of and the reason for the extension;

(C) the air operator shall retain the notifications until the completion of the next Department of Transport audit and

(d) the air operator shall notify the Minister as soon as practicable.
(2) Flights shall be planned to be completed within the maximum flight time and maximum flight duty time taking into account the time necessary for pre-flight and post-flight duties, the flight or series of flights, forecast weather, turn-around times and the nature of the operation.

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23
Q

If a flight crew member is required by the airline operator to travel for the purpose of positioning immediately after the completion of a flight duty period, and the flight duty period plus the travel time required for positioning exceed the maximum flight duty period permitted in the cars, the air operator shall provide the member with a rest period before the beginning of the next flight duty period that is equal to the duration of______ if the maximum flight duty period is exceeded by more than three hours.

A

The number of hours of work plus the amount of time by which the maximum flight duty period is exceeded.

CAR 700.43

Work hours + exceeded flight duty period

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24
Q

If an aircraft used in an air taxi or airline operation is to take passengers on an IMC flight where thunderstorms are expected, the aircraft must be equipped with:

A

Thunderstorm detection equipment OR weather radar equipment.

CAR 703.65
CAR 705.70

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25
Q

in air operation, crew members must have completed ____ takeoffs and landings within the last _____ in ____

A

3; 9O days; an aircraft of the same type.

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26
Q

The main purpose of winglets is to reduce drag during:

A

The climb and cruise at high altitude.

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27
Q

In the case of a conditional maintenance release, who needs to sign the journey log after the TEST FLIGHT?

A

The pilown-command who performed the flight test.

CAR 605.85

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28
Q

A ______is an automatic stabilization device used on many transport aeroplanes to reduce the rolling and yawing oscillations caused by Dutch roll and to coordinate the turn.

A

Yaw damper.

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29
Q

Which of the following is true regarding thrust reversers used on by-pass turbofans?

A

In the cascade thrust reverser system, a translating sleeve opens, closing the blocker doors. The fan airflow is then redirected through the cascade vanes, and forward.

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30
Q

The propeller of a free turbine engine will automatically move to the ____ position when stopped.

A

Feather

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31
Q

Turboprop engine power is usually measured with:

A

RPM and torque.

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32
Q

in a turbine engine, what is a hung start?

A

a condition of normal light off but with RPM remaining at a low value instead of increasing to the normal idle RPM.

33
Q

Whac is/are the benefit(s) of the turbofan engine over the turbojet engine?

A

Better thrust.

Acceleration of a larger airflow.

Noise reduction.

34
Q

In a gas turbine engine, the purpose of the diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is to _______ the airflow velocity and _____ the pressure.

A

Decrease; increase.

35
Q

Generally, the spark plugs in a gas turbine engine are lit:

A

At startup, takeoff and landing and during turbulence or precipitation.

36
Q

Which of the following symptoms will easily indicate a stall of your turbine engine compressor?

A

Heavy bangs

High TIT

Engine surge

LOW N1

37
Q

if the static source blocks during a climb, the vsi will:

A

indicace that the aircraft is in level flight.

38
Q

What is a radar altimeter?

A

a device that indicates the actual height of the aircraft above the ground it is overflying through the principle of echo.

39
Q

An aeroplane is flying at FL320 with a calibrated airspeed of 230 knots. The indicated outside temperature is -20°C. what is the static air temperature?

A

-39

40
Q

Generally, an air data computer is able to determine:

A

1 - Altitude of aircraft

2 - TAS

3 - CAS

4 - OAT (static air temperature)

5 - Vertical Speed

6 - MAC number

41
Q

Which of the following Instruments usually work(S) using a vacuum pump on light aircraft?

A

HI (heading indicator)

Attitude indicator

42
Q

A rapid increase in speed will cause the attitude indicator to give an erroneous reading.

A

Climb.

43
Q

Which of the following is the shortest distance between two points on the earth’s surface?

A

a great circle line.

44
Q

Which of the following is both a great circle and a rhumb line?

A

The equator

45
Q

The Enroute High Altitude Charts consist of charts.

A

6

Explanation

aim. GEN 3.2.4.8: Enroute High Altitude (Hi) chart: This chart series provides flight crev.s with information to facilitate navigation along high level airways and routes in compliance with air traffic concrol procedures. They are intended for use in high level airspace (18.000 feet asl and above).

This series comprises six hi charts depicting
1. Aeronautical radio information
2. High level airways structure
3. Controlled/unconcrolled airspace structure
4. Special use airspace
5 Communication facilities
6 Selected aerodromes,

It is used for ifr route planning and inflight navigation.

46
Q

What is the longitude of the international date line?

A

180° E.

Explanation
The earth is divided into 24 time zones of 15s longitude. These zones are numbered from 1 to 12 around the prime mendian. The change of day occurs on che 180th meridian.

47
Q

During a takeoff behind a HEAVY aeroplane which just landed, you should _____ to avoid its wake turbulence.

A

Leave the ground after the heavy aeroplane’s point of touchdown.

aim, air 2.9.2

48
Q

Avoiding wake turbulence is:

A

The sole responsibility of the pilot.

AIM, AIR 2.9.2

49
Q

Which are the requirements concerning operational flight plans?

A

Explanation

CAR 703.18:

  • No air operator shall permit a person to commence a flight unless an operational flight plan that meets the Commercial Air service Standards has been prepared in accordance with the procedures specified in the air operators company operations manual.

• The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is left at a point of departure, in accordance with the procedures specified in the company operations manual.

An air operator shall retain a copy of the operational flight plan, including any amendments to that plan, for the period specified in the company operations manual.

50
Q

During a descent, you should expect winds to _____ and _____ in speed.

A

Back; decrease.

51
Q

When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing:

A

Should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control.

AIM, AIR 2.7.2

52
Q

what is the recommended course of action if accidentally entering a thunderstorm cell?

A

Slow down to the turbulence penetration speed, do not maintain a rigid airspeed or altitude, and keep your present heading.

AIM, AIR 2.7.2

53
Q

To eliminate ice on the fan blades of a turbofan engine, you should:

A

Accelerated the engines for approximately 30 seconds prior to higher thrust operations.

AIM, AIR, 2.12.1.1

54
Q

Roll upset is associated with:

A

icing conditions involving large supercooled droplets.

Explanation

aim. AIR 2.12.3.3: Roll upset describes an uncommanded and possibly uncontrollable rolling moment caused by airflow separation in front of the ailerons, resulting in self-deflection of unpowered control surfaces, it is associated with flight in icing conditions in which water droplets flow back behind the protected surfaces before freezing and form ndges chat cannot be removed by de-icing equipment. Roll upset has recently been associated with icing conditions involving large super-cooled droplets; however, it theoretically can also occur in conventional icing conditions when temperatures are just slightly below 0°C.

55
Q

If severe icing conditions are inadvertently encountered, the pilot should consider the following actions to avoid a roll upset:

A

1 • Disengage the autopilot

2- Reduce the angle of attack by increasing speed

4 - Set appropriate power and monitor airspeed/angle of attack

5 - verify that wing ice protection is functioning symmetrically by visual observation if possible

56
Q

Pilots should routinely pass detailed pireps whenever _____ are encountered.

A

Mixed icing conditions.

Moderate icing conditions.

Severe icing conditions.

Explanation

aim. air 2.12.3.7:

Pilots should cake advantage of all information available to avoid or. at the very least, to plan a safe flight through known icing conditions, as well as fas. taps, and metars. pilots should ask for pertinent SIGMET5 and any pireps received along the planned route of flight. Significant weather Prognostic Charts should be studied, if available. Weacher information should be analyzed to predict where icing is likely to be found, and to determine possible safe exit procedures should severe icing be encountered. Pilots should routinely pass decailed pireps whenever icing conditions are encountered.

57
Q

Let’s suppose that, at sea level, your aircraft stalls at 47 knots and with an angle of attack of 17°. At 10.000 feet, the true stalling airspeed of that aircraft will _____ and its critical angle of attack will _____

A

increase; remain che same.

58
Q

Usually, on a piston engine, the ____ speed is greater than the _____ speed.

A

Maximum range; maximum endurance.

Explanation
usually, on a piston engine, the airspeed that provides the best endurance is lower than the airspeed providing the maximum range, and the altitude giving the maximum endurance is lower than the airspeed giving the maximum range.

59
Q

What is “vsi”?

A

The stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration.

AIM, GEN 1.7

60
Q

What IS “V2”?

A

The takeoff safety speed.

AIM, GEN 1.7

61
Q

On a turbine engine, damage from a foreign object would be easy to identify:

A

On the compressor blades.

Explanation
Foreign object damage (FOD) is any damage attributed to any object that is not part of the aircraft. On a turbine engine, a FOD would be easy to identify on the compressor blades or the guide vanes.

62
Q

According to ‘V” speeds, which of the following is true?

V1 is always less than or equal to vmbe.

V1 is always less than or equal to vmeg.

vr is always greater than or equal to vmca x 1.5.

All of the above.

A

V1 is always less than or equal to vmbe.

Explanation

The takeoff decision speed (or engine failure recognition speed) (V1) is the aircraft’s maximum speed under which a pilot may decide to abort takeoff considering the available acceleration-stop distance or to continue the takeoff considering che available accelerate-go distance. V1 is less than or equal to vr and vmbe. and is not less than vmeg.

The rotation speed (Vr) is the calibrated airspeed at which the pilot initiates rotation of the aeroplane to enable the rising of che landing gear, vr varies with takeoff weight, air-density and flap setting, vr is greater or equal to vi. vmca x 1.1. or the speed needed to get V2 by 35 feet above che runway departure end.

The takeoff safety speed (V2) is che minimum speed at which a pilot is allowed to climb after he/she has reached a height of 10.7 metres (35 feet) above the takeoff surface in order to maintain the minimum climb gradient specified in case of takeoff with one inoperative engine. V2 is equal to or greater chan 20% more than the stall speed in takeoff configuration, and 10% more than the minimum control airspeed.

63
Q

What is the main danger associated with ice accumulation on aircraft wings?

A

A decrease in lift due to turbulent airflow over the wings.

64
Q

What are you supposed to do if the aircraft’s horizontal stabilizer stalls?

A

Pull the controls to get a nose up attitude.

65
Q

The point of maximum chord thickness on a laminar flow wing is located at about ______ aft of the leading edge, whereas the point on a conventional wing is located at about ______ of the leading edge.

A

50%; 25%.

Explanation
Compared to a conventional wing, a laminar flow wing is usually thinner. The leading edge is more streamlined and the upper surface of the wing is almost symmetric with the lower surface. The thickest part of a conventional wing is at 25% from the chord, whereas the thickest part of a laminar flow wing is located 50% from the chord.

66
Q

On an airline transport aircraft, the ______ is the first device that alerts the pilot of the proximity of the stall.

A

Stick shaker.

Explanation
a stick shaker is a stall-warning de/ice installed on transport category aircraft that shakes the pilot’s control column when the critical angle of attack is close.

67
Q

when climbing throughout an isothermal layer at a constant CAS. the Mach number and the tas

A

increases; keeps the same value as the Mach number.

68
Q

What is the approximate angle of bank to keep in order to maintain a rate 1 turn when flying at 120 ktas?

A

19º

Explanation

To find the required angle of bank in order to maintain a rate 1 turn at a given speed, use the following formula:

Angle of bank = (TAS in kts /10) + 7

Here. Angle of bank = (120 /10) + 7 = 19 º

69
Q

According to an aircraft gust load factor, which of the following is/are true(s)?

A
  • The higher the aircraft speed, the stronger the gust load.

• The higher the aircraft aspect ratio, the stronger the gust load.

  • The higher the altitude, the lower the gust load.

• The higher the aircraft weight, the lower the gust load.

The higher the Altitude and Weight, the lower the gust load
The higer the Speed and Aspect Ratio, the stronger the gust load

70
Q

Which of the following is wrong?

Generally, turbojet aeroplanes fly with speeds above the speed for maximum range.

in a turbojet engine, the speed for maximum range does not provide a good stability and is difficult to maintain.

The maximum range of a turbojet aeroplane is found at high altitude.

None of the above.

A

None of the above.

Explanation

as for a piston engine, the maximum range of a turbojet engine and its speed for maximum range will be greater at high altitude because air density at high altitude will cause less drag than at low altitude.

The maximum range speed of a turbojet engine is very close to the minimum drag speed: at this speed, stability is very low. in addition, this speed is difficult to keep regarding the changing flight conditions (changes in temperature affect power, turbulence affect drag etc.). Turbojet aeroplanes are then usually flying at speeds above the speed for maximum range. The fuel consumption slightly increases but the flight time decreases.

71
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the safety management system (SMS)?

A

SMS help companies identify safety risks before they become bigger problems.

Explanation

Safety management systems (SMS) help companies identify safety nsks before they become bigger problems. Transport Canada regulations require the aviation industry to put safety management systems in place as an extra layer of protection to help save lives.

Transport Canada lets industry groups tailor the safety management system (SMS) within guidelines set out in the regulations, to meet their unique operating requirements, but expects the company to measure how well the system works. SMS is based on the idea that you can always find better ways to prevent hazards, so the system will always be changing.

72
Q

The captain of an aircraft should:

A

Encourage the co-pilot to express his/her position about the flight and to ask him/her questions if he/she has any doubt. * •

Explanation

TP 12864E - Human Factors For Aviation - Advanced Handbook => Chapter 5: Crew Resource Management (CRM) - Communication:

Listening - indicators of Bad Listening:

  • interrupting
  • Diverting
  • Debating
  • Tuning out
  • Dismissing

improving Your Listening
• Be patient

  • Question
  • Observe
  • Paraphrase
  • Be supportive
73
Q

it is recommended not to fly an aircraft for a period of ____hours after donating blood.

A

48

74
Q

At 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is:

A

45 to 75 seconds.

TP 12863E - Human Factors For Aviation - Basic Manuel => Chapter 5: The Body - What The Body Takes In:

Types of hypoxia - Effects of Hypoxia • Time of useful Consciousness: The most common measure of the effects of hypoxia is Time of useful Consciousness (Tuq. TUC indicates how much time you have to function in a reasonably competent way without supplemental oxygen. As altitude increases, your ability to perform declines rapidly.

Times of useful Consciousness at altitude:

  1. 000 feet: 5-12 minutes
  2. 000 feet: 45-75 seconds
  3. 000 feet: 13-30 seconds
  4. 000 feet and above: 12-15 seconds or less
75
Q

Which of the following phenomena occurs during a rapid ascent and may cause pain, cramps, itching and tingling under the skin, chest pain and shortness of breath?

A

Decompression sickness.

76
Q

You are in climb when you have a sudden sensation of ear-popping. This is caused by:

A

The pressure inside your ear was greater than the outside pressure. The Euscachian tube opened to equalize the pressure.

77
Q

At night, it is the _____ that allows the human eye to see. However, it takes a period of at least _____minutes for the eye to adapt comp etely to the dark.

A

Rods: 30.

78
Q

A pilot who is landing at an upslope runway can expect an impression of being too
____ and an impression of making a _____ approach. Therefore, he/she will make a flare that is too ____

A

High; flat; late.

79
Q

A pilot approaching a poorly lit airport with a town below the approach at night will experience the illusion of being ____ and as a result, he/she will fly a _____ approach.

A

Too high; low.