14

Question 1

The pilot-ln-command must file a mandatory reportable incident with the TSB if:

Answer 1

A fuel shortage occurs that requires a diversion or requires approach and landing priority at the destination of the aircraft.

Explanation

aim, GEN 3.3.2: Mandatory Reportable incident: in the case of an incident involving an aircraft having a maximum certificated take-off weight greater than 2 250 kg. or of an aircraft being operated under an air operator certificate issued under Part vn of the CanadianAviation Regulations:

(1) an engine falls or is shut down as a precautionary measure.
(2) a power train transmission gearbox malfunction occurs.
(3) smoke is detected or a fire occurs on board.
(4) difficulties in controlling the aircraft are encountered owing to any aircraft system malfunction, weather phenomena, wake turbulence, uncontrolled vibrations or operations outside the flight envelope.
(5) the aircraft falls to remain within the intended landing or take-off area, lands with all or part of the landing gear retracted or drags a wing tip. an engine pod or any other part of the aircraft.
(6) a crew member whose duties are directly related to the safe operation of the aircraft is unable to perform their duties as a result of a physical incapacitation which poses a threat to the safety of persons, property or the environment.
(7) depressurization of the aircraft occurs that requires an emergency descent
(8) a fuel shortage occurs that requires a diversion or requires approach and landing priority at the destination of the aircraft.
(9) the aircraft is refuelled with the incorrect type of fuel or contaminated fuel.
(10) a collision, a risk of collision or a loss of separation occurs.
(11) a crew member declares an emergency or indicates an emergency that requires priority handling by air traffic services or the standing by of emergency response services.
(12) a slung load is released unintentionally or as a precautionary or emergency measure from the aircraft, or
(13) any dangerous goods are released in or from the aircraft.

Question 2

Under cvfr within the low level airspace above 12.500 feet, you should set the transponder on mode A code _____. plus mode C.

Answer 2

Explanation

aim. com 8.4: During visual flight rules (VFR) flight in low level airspace, adjust the transponder to reply on the following unless otherwise assigned by an air traffic services (ATS) unit:
(a) Mode A Code 1200 for operation at or below 12 500 ft above sea level (ASL): or
(b) Mode A Code 1400 for operation above 12 500 ft asl.

Question 3

Before entering RVSM airspace, pilots should ensure the following equipment is operating normally:

Answer 3

Two independent altitude measurement systems.

One altitude alert system.

One automatic altitude control system.

Explanation

aim. RAC 11.7.4: (a) Before entering rvsm airspace, the status of required equipment should be reviewed. The following equipment should be operating normally:
(i) two independent altitude measurement systems;

(ii) one automatic altitude control system; and
(iii) one altitude alert system.

Question 4

During descents or climbs in the RVSM airspace, the aircraft should not overshoot or undershoot the assigned level by more than:

Answer 4

150 feet.

Explanation
aim. RAC 11.7.4: (e) transition BETWEEN FLs: During cleared transition between flight levels, the aircraft should not overshoot or undershoot the assigned level by more chan 150 ft.

Question 5

Consider a RVSM-certified aircraft flying on the MAGNETIC TRACK 180º. What would be the three appropriate RVSM flight levels immediately above FL290?

Answer 5

FL300. FL320 and FL340.

Explanation
AIM. RAC 23.1: Refer to the table.

Question 6

Consider an aircraft flying northbound at FL280. What airspace will it enter just after leaving the northern boundary of the Southern control Area?

Answer 6

The Northern control Area.

Explanation

aim. RAC 2.6: Controlled airspace within the High-Level Airspace is divided into three separate areas. They are the Southern control Area (SCA). the Northern control Area (NCA) and che Arctic Control Area (ACA). Their lateral dimensions are illustrated in Figure 2.3. Figure 2.4 illustrates their vertical dimensions which are: SCA 18 OCX) ft asl and above: NCA FL230 and above;ACA FL270 and above.

Refer to figure 2.3.

Question 7

Which of the following is TRUE regarding T-routes?

Answer 7

The airspace associated with T-routes and the MOCA do not splay.

T-routes are depicted on En Route low Altitude charts using black dashed lines.

The airspace associated with T-routes extends upward from 2200 feet agl 10 NM either side of che centreline.

Explanation

aim. RAC 11.4.4: T-routes are low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route low Altitude charts using black dashed lines and require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The airspace associated with T-routes extends upward from 2200 ft agl 10 nm either side of the centreline, and does not splay. The MOCA provides obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of the track centreline and does not splay.

Question 8

A *T route on a LO chart represents a airway.

Answer 8

RNAV.

Explanation
aim. RAC 11.4.4: T-routes are low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route low Altitude charts using black dashed lines and require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The airspace associated with T-routes extends upward from 2200 ft agl 10 nm either side of the centreline, and does not splay. The MOCA provides obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of the track centreline and does not splay.

Question 9

An aircraft is in Class A airspace if flying:

Answer 9

At FL6CO or below, within the high-level controlled airspace.

Explanation
aim rac 2.8.1: Class a airspace will be designated from the base of all high-level controlled airspace, or from 700 ft agl. whichever is higher, up to and including FL600.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true regarding class F Restricted Areas?

Answer 10

ifr flights may occur through an active restricted area provided that the pilot has received a prior authorization from the corresponding user agency.

Explanation

aim. RAC 2.8.6: No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace, unless permission has been obtained from the user agency.

Question 11

What is the difference between class F ‘’restricted” and advisory airspaces?

Answer 11

Advisory airspace warns the pilot of intense or unusual traffic in an area; whereas restricted airspace is qualified as such due to a specific aeronautical or surface activity in the area.

Explanation

aim. RAC 2.8.6: Airspace may be classified as Class F advisory airspace if it is airspace within which an activity occurs that for flight safety purposes, non-participating pilots should be aware of. such as training, parachuting hang gliding military operations, etc.

There are no specific restncciorts that apply to the use of advisory airspace. VFR aircraft are. however, encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless participating in the activity taking place therein, if necessary, pilots of non- participating flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion.

a restricted area is airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. Restricted airspace is designated for safety purposes when the level or type of aerial activity, the surface activity, or the protection of a ground installation requires the application of restrictions within that airspace.

No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace, unless permission has been obtained from the user agency, in some instances, the user agency may delegate the appropriate controlling agency the authority to approve access. ifr flights will not be cleared through active restricted areas, unless the pilot states that permission has been obtained.

Question 12

What does “CYA 230(S)(T)” mean?

Answer 12

This is a class F advisory airspace used for training and soaring.

Explanation

aim. RAC 2.8.6: All designated Class F restricted and advisory airspace is published on hi or lo charts, as applicable, and on vfr aeronautical charts.

CYA = Advisory - CYR = Restricted - CYD = Danger.

A - acrobatic
 F - aircraft test 
H-hang gliding 
M - military operations
 P - parachuting 
S- soaring 
T-training

Question 13

What is the minimum elevation at which an aircraft can cross over an uncontrolled airport before joining the circuit ?

Answer 13

1.500 feet above aerodrome elevation (AAE).

AIM. RAC 4.5.2: (a) joining the Circuit

(l) Landing and takeoff should be accomplished on the runway pointing as directly into the wind as possible, or on a runway parallel to it. However, the pilot has the final authority and is responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft, and another runway may be used if it is determined to be necessary in the interest of safety.

(10 unless otherwise specified or required by the applicable distance-from-doud criteria, aircraft should approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side. Alternatively, once the pilot has ascertained without any doubt that there will be no conflict with other traffic entering the circuit or established within it. the pilot may also join the circuit on the downwind leg (Figure 4.6). When joining from the upwind side, the pilot should plan the descent to cross the runway in level flight at 1 O00 ft AAE or at the published circuit altitude and maintain that altitude until further descent is required for landing.

(ill) if it is necessary for an aircraft to cross the airport before joining the circuit, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least 500 ft above the circuit altitude.
(iv) All descents should be made on the upwind side or well clear of the circuit pattern.
(v) For aerodromes not within an mf area: where no MF procedures are in effect, aircraft should approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side. Alternatively, once the pilot has ascertained without any doubt that there will be no conflict with other traffic entering che circuit or established within It. the pilot may join the circuit on the downwind leg (Figure 4.6).
(vi) For aerodromes within an mf area when airport advisory information is available: Aircraft may join the circuit patter straight-in or at a 45º angle to the downwind leg or straight-m to the base or final legs (Figure 4.1). Pilots should be alert both to other vfr craffic entering the circuit at these positions and to ifr scraight-m or circling approaches.
(vii) For aerodromes within an mf area when airport advisory information is not available: Aircraft should normally approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side. Alternatively, once che pilot has ascertained without any doubt that there will be no conflict with other traffic entering che circuit or established within it. the pilot may join the circuit on the downwind leg (Figure 4.6). or as in subparagraph (vi) above.

Question 14

When within designated mountainous regions 1 and 5. outside airways and air routes, the pilot should fly at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within ___ nm of the aircraft.

Answer 14

2000; 5

Explanation
aim. RAC 2.12: An aircraft, when operated in accordance with ifr within designated mountainous regions, but outside of areas for which minimum altitudes for ifr operations have been established (including minimum radar vectoring altitudes. MOCAs. transition altitudes. 100NM safe altitudes. MSAs and AMAs shall be flown at an altitude of at least 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5NM of the aircraft in flight when in areas 1 and 5. and at least 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within 5NM when in areas 2.3 and 4.

Question 15

When flying IFR over mountainous terrain in winter with air temperatures much lower than ISA. what should you do with respect to altitudes?

Answer 15

You should operate at a altitudes of at least 1.000 feet above the mea/moca

Explanation
aim. RAC 8.5: When temperacures are extremely cold, true altitudes will be significantly lowerr than indicated altitudes. Although pilots may fly ifr at the published MEA/MOCA in the winter. when air temperatures are much lower than ISA they should operate at altitudes of at least 1000 ft above the MEA/MOCA

Question 16

you are PLANNING an ifr flight to an aerodrome where the barometric pressure is 31.27 inches of mercury. The approach you will perform at this aerodrome is the ILS approach that has a DH of 360 (200-1/2). Your altimeter does not allow you to set the current altimeter setting. You should then correct the celling and visibility requirements to:

Answer 16

500-1 1/4.

Explanation

aip, ENR 1.7: Altimeters of all ifr. controlled vfr flight (CVFR) and vfr aircraft are to be set to 31.00 inches of mercury for en route operations below 18 OOO feet asl. All pilots are to maintain this setting until beyond the area affected by the extreme high pressure or until reaching the final approach segment of an instrument approach for ifr aircraft or the final approach for VFR aircraft At the beginning of the final approach segment the current altimeter setting will be set by those aircraft capable of such a setting. Aircraft that are unable to set altimeter settings above 31.00 inches of mercury will retain a 31.00 inches of mercury setting throughout the entire approach. Aircraft on departure or missed approach will set 31.00 inches of mercury prior to reaching any mandatory or fix crossing altitude, or 1 5CO feet above ground level (AGL). whichever is lower.

For aircraft operating IFR chat are unable to set the current altimeter setting, che following restrictions apply:

To determine che suitability of departure alternate aerodromes, destination aerodromes and destination alternate aerodromes, increase the ceiling requirements by 100 feet and visibility requirements by 1/4 statute mile (SM) for each 1/10 inch of mercury, or any porcion chereof. over 31.00 inches of mercury. These adjusted values are then applied in accordance with the requirements of the applicable operating regulations and operations specifications.

Example: Destination altimeter setting is 31.28 inches, instrument landing system (its) decision height (DH) is 250 feet (200-1/2). when flight planning, add 3CO-3/4 to the weather requirements, which would now become 500-1 1/4.

Question 17

A turbojet aircraft for which a Mach number has been assigned is transitioning from oceanic airspace to Canadian Domestic Airspace, what airspeed should the aircraft maintain?

Answer 17

The assigned Mach number, within 0.01. until the aircraft receives approval from atc to make the change.

Explanation

aim. rac 3.6.2: car 602.76(1) and (2) specify that a pilot shall notify as soon as practicable an air traffic control unit, a flight service station, a community aerodrome radio station or a responsible person, as the case may be. of any change to:
(a) the cruising altitude or cruising flight level:
(b) the route of flight;

(0 the destination aerodrome;

(d) when in controlled airspace:
(l) the true airspeed at the cruising altitude or cruising level where the change intended is 5% or more of the tas specified in che ifr flight plan; or (li) the Mach number, where the thange intended is 0.01 or more of the Mach number that has been included in the atc clearance.

where the flight is being conducted in controlled airspace, the pilot shall receive atc clearance before making the intended change.

Question 18

When must seat belts and restraint systems be used?

Answer 18

During aircraft movement on the surface, during takeoffs and landings, and on the PICs order.

Question 19

No person shall conduct a take-off in _____ without a third attitude indicator.

Answer 19

A transport category aircraft operated in commercial air service.

Explanation

car 605.41: (1) No person shall conduct a cake-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part VII without a third attitude indicator that meets the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aeroplane

(a) has a MCTOW of less than 5 700 kg (12566 pounds): and
(b) was operaced in Canada in a commercial air service on October 10. 1996.
(2) No person shall conduct a take-off in a transport category aircraft without a third attitude indicator that meets the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aircraft
(a) is a transport category helicopter not operated in IFR flight;
(b) is a transport category aeroplane powered by reciprocating engines that was manufactured before January 1,1598; or (0 is not operaced pursuant to Part vn.
(3) No person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-propeller powered aeroplane that is operaced under Part vn without a third attitude indicator that meets the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aeroplane
(a) has a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 30 or fewer;
(b) has a payload capacity of 3 402 kg (7.500 pounds) or less; and (0 was manufactured prior to March 20.1997.
(4) After December 20.2010. no person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-propeller powered aeroplane having a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seacs. of 10 or more, and operated under Part vn. unless the aeroplane is equipped with a third attitude indicator that meecs the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards^;

Question 20

After completing elementary work on his/her aircraft, a pilot should:

Answer 20

Make the applicable entries for the work done in the technical record and journey log of the aircraft, and authorize the aircraft to fly.

Explanation

CAR 571.03: information Note: Compliance with seccion 571.03 of che cars is the responsibility of the person performing the work. This regulation is applicable to the making of an entry into a technical record, which is distinct from the maintenance release addressed by section 571.1 o of the cars.

(1) a person who performs maintenance or elementary work on an aeronautical product shall ensure that the following information is recorded in che technical records, established in accordance with Subpart 605 of the cars, for the aeronautical product:

information Note: Appendix A of Standard 625 - Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance lists the tasks and conditions associated to elementary work and section 605.94 of the cars requires thac all tasks designated as elementary work be recorded in the journey log.

Question 21

how should an infant be restrained during takeoff and landing?

Answer 21

in the arms of an adult who is restrained by a safety belt.

Explanation

CAR 605.26: where the pilot-m-command or the in-charge flight attendant directs that safety belts be fastened, every passenger who is not an infant shall:

• ensure that the passenger’s safety belt or restraint system is properly adjusted and securely fastened;

• if responsible for an infant for which no child restraint system is provided, hold the infant securely in the passenger’s arms; and
• if responsible for a person who is using a child restraint system, ensure that the person is properly secured.

Question 22

in a commuter operation or in an airline operation, the flight duty period is defined as:

Answer 22

The period that begins when the flight crew member reports for a flight and that ends after engines off at the end of the last flight.

Explanation

CAR 101.01: flight duty period means the period that begins when the earliest of the following events occurs and ends at engines off or rotors stopped at the end of a flight:

(a) the flight crew member carries out any duties assigned by the private operator or the air operator or delegated by the Minister before reporting for a flight.
(b) the member reports for a flight or. if there is more than one flight during the flight duty period, reports for the first flight.
(c) the member reports for positioning, and
(d) the member reports as a flight crew member on standby: (penode de service de vol)

Question 23

In case of unforeseen operational circumstances occurring within 60 minutes of the beginning of the flight duty period, who is permitted to extend the crew member’s flight duty period beyond the maximum period permitted?

Answer 23

The pilot-in-command. after consulting with all crew members on their level of fatigue.

Explanation

CAR 700.63: (1) if the pilot-in-command is of the opinion that an unforeseen operational circumstance that occurs within 60 minutes of the beginning of the flight duty period could lead to a level of fatigue that may adversely affect the safety of the flight, the pi town-command may. after consulting with all crew members on their level of fatigue.

(a) reduce a flight crew members flight duty period;
(b) extend a flight crew members flight duty period by the following number of hours in excess of the maximum flight duty period set out in section 700.28 or subsection 700.60(1) by
(1) one hour for a single-pilot operation.
(li) two hours, if the flight crew is not augmented.

(Ill) three hours, if the flight crew is augmented and there is one flight dunng the scheduled flight duty penod. and (iv) two hours, if the flight crew is augmented and there are two or three flights during the scheduled flight duty period; or

(c) extend a flight crew members rest period.
(2) if a further unforeseen operational circumstance arises after take-off on the final flight for which the maximum flight duty penod was extended under subsection (1). the pilot-in-command may. despite chat subsection, continue the flight to the destination aerodrome or to an alternate aerodrome.
(3) An air operator shall extend the rest period after a flight duty period is extended under this section by an amount of time that is at least equal to the extension of the flight duty penod.
(4) At the end of a flight duty period, the pilot-in-command shall notify the air operator of any change to a flight duty period made under this section.

Question 24

The flight crew members of an aircraft flying in an airline operation may, due to unforeseen operational circumstances:

Answer 24

Exceed the 40 hours in 7 days’ flight time restriction by not more than 3 hours.

car 720.17: unforeseen operational Circumstances: The standards for compliance with this section are:

(1) Flight duty time and flight time limitations may be extended by up to 3 consecutive hours provided that:
(a) where flight duty time is extended, the subsequent minimum rest period shall be increased by an amount at least equal to the extension to the flight duty time;
(b) the pilot-m-command shall notify the air operator, in accordance with procedures outlined in the company operations manual, of the length of and the reason for the extension; (C) the air operator shall retain the notifications until the completion of the next Department of transport audit and
(d) the air operator shall notify the Minister as soon as practicable.
(2) Flights shall be planned to be completed within the maximum flight time and maximum flight duty time taking into account the time necessary for pre-flight and post-flight dudes, the flight or series of flights, forecast weather, turn-around times and the nature of the operation.

Question 25

What is the maximum flight duty period for an augmented flight crew under the following conditions:

• Operation: 705

• Additional flight crew members: 2
• Class of the rest facility: 1

Answer 25

18 hours.

Explanation

CAR 700.60: (1) Despite section 700.28. if the air operator assigns for a flight the number of additional flight crew members set out in column 2 of the table to this subsection and provides, for each additional member, the corresponding rest facility set out in column 3. the maximum flight duty period is the period set out in column 1.

Class 3 rest facility means a seat that reclines at least 40 degrees from vertical and that has leg
and foot support.
(6) Stipulates the maximum flight duty period available when a flight is augmented with one or two
additional flight crew members and a rest facility is provided. A rest facility is required to be
provided for each additional flight crew member.
(7) With one additional flight crew member and a:
(a) Class 3 rest facility: the maximum flight duty period would be 14 hours;
(b) Class 2 rest facility: the maximum flight duty period would be 15 hours; or
(c) Class 1 rest facility: the maximum flight duty period would be 15 hours
(8) With two additional flight crew members and a:
(a) Class 3 rest facility: the maximum flight duty period would be 15.25 hours;
(b) Class 2 rest facility: the maximum flight duty period would be 16.50 hours; or
(c) Class 1 rest facility: the maximum flight duty period would be 18 hours.

Question 26

An operational control system is required in a commuter operation where aeroplanes:

Answer 26

Are operaced under IFR.

Are turbo-jet aeroplanes with a seating configuration of 19 passengers or less and are operated at night under VFR.

Have a seating configuration of 10 to 19 passengers and are operated at night under VFR.

Explanation

CAR 724.15: Operations conducted under Subpart 704 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations require a Type C or D operational control system. Another organization may be contracted to exercise operational control on behalf of an air operator. Note: A Type A or Type B system is only required for No Alternate IFR.

Type C • (1) General

(a) Application - A Type C classification shall apply to air operators operating under instrument Flight Rules (IFR) and visual Flight Rules (VFR) at night in commuter operations using:
(i) aeroplanes with a seating configuration, excluding pilots, of 10 to 19: or
(ii) turbo-jet aeroplanes with a seating configuration, excluding pilots, of 19 or less.

Question 27

Question 27

which of the following is true regarding the safety briefing that is given to the passengers of aircraft flying in a commuter operation?

Answer 27

The pilot-m-command shall ensure that each passenger who is seated next to an emergency exit is made aware of how to operate that exit.

The pilown-command shall ensure that in the event of an emergency and where time and circumstances permit all passengers are given the briefing.

if the briefing is insufficient for a passenger because of that passenger’s physical, sensory or comprehension limitations, seat orientation or responsibility for another person on board the aircraft the pilot-in-command shall ensure that the passenger is given an individual briefing.

Explanation

car 704.34: (1) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that passengers are given a safety briefing in accordance with the Commercial Air sen/ice Standards.

(2) if the safety briefing referred to in subsection (1) is insufficient for a passenger because of chat passenger s physical, sensory or comprehension limitations, seat orientation or responsibility for another person on board the aircraft the pilot-in-command shall ensure that the passenger is given an individual safety briefing that
(a) is appropriate to che passenger’s needs: and
(b) meets che Commercial Air service Standards.
(3) An air operator shall ensure that each passenger is provided, at the passenger s seat or by means of dearly visible placards, with the safety information required by the Commercial AJr service Standards.
(4) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that in che event of an emergency and where time and circumstances permit all passengers are given an emergency briefing in accordance with the Commercial Air service Standards.
(5) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that each passenger who is seated next to an emergency exit is made aware of how to operace that exit.

Question 28

No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft operated in IMC in a commuter operation where weather conditions are at or above the take-off minima, but below the landing minima, for the runway to be used unless:

Answer 28

The weather conditions are at or above the landing minima for another suitable runway at that aerodrome.

Explanation

CAR 704.26: (1) Subject to subsection (2). no person shall conduct a cake-off in an aircraft in imc where weather conditions are at or above the take-off minima, but below the landing minima, for the runway to be used unless

(a) the take-off is authorized in an air operacor certificate; and
(b) the person complies with the Commercial Air service Standards.
(2) A person may conduct a take-off in an aircraft in imc where weather conditions are at or above the take-off minima, but below che landing minima, for che runway to be used, if the weather conditions are at or above che landing minima for another suitable runway at that aerodrome, taking into account the aircraft performance operating limitations specified in Division IV.

Question 29

The operation under 704 of an aircraft that is not equipped with an operative Class A taws and that has a seating configuration of 10 passengers or more is allowed if:

Answer 29

it is necessary for the pilot-m-command to deactivate, in the interests of aviation safety, the taws or any of its modes, and the pilot-in-command does so in accordance with the aircraft flight manual, aircraft operating manual, flight manual supplement or MEL

The operation takes place within the three days after the day on which the failure of the taws occurs if the aircraft does not have an MEL.

The aircraft is operated in day vfr only.

Question 30

Which of the following is true regarding the initial Line indoctrination on turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes that pilots must undertake?

Answer 30

A sector is a flight composed of a take-off. departure, arrival and landing including at least a 50 NM enroute segment.

Each pilot shall complete 20 flying hours and 4 mandatory sectors, 2 sectors to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying.

indoctrination shall be conducted over parts of the air operators route structure that are typical of those over which the flight crew will be expected to fly.

Explanation

car 724.115: (27) Line indoccrinacion Training for Pilots - Line indocerinacion shall be conducted ever parts of ehe air operator’s route structure which are typical of those over which the flight crew will be expected to fly.

(28) une indoctrination - Sectors/Hours Requirements - During line lndoctnnaaon. a flight crew member shall be given the following minimum experience, while performing the duties appropriate to the crew station. Sectors/hours acquired dunng proving or ferry flights may be counted towards this requirement. The required number of flying hours and sectors apply to the pilot-in-command and the second-in-command.
(a) For the purpose of une indoctrination an aeroplane would be :n one of the following groups:
(l) reciprocating engine powered;

(10 turbo-propeller powered;

(ill) turbo-jet powered.
(b) For the purposes of Line indoctrination a sector is a flight composed of a take-off. departure, arrival and landing including at least a 50 NM enroute segment.
(ill) Specific requirements for initial Line indoctrination on turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes shall be as follows:

(A) each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of. as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in subsection 724.115<27) and complete 20 flying hours and 4 mandatory sectors. 2 sectors to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying: and

(B) After completing the 4 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flcwn to a maximum 5C4ti reduction of che original time requirement.

Question 31

Co-authority dispatch means:

Answer 31

The shared responsibility of the pilot-in-command and the flight dispatcher for all decisions respecting the operational filght plan prior to its acceptance by the pilot-in-command. and for the filght watch.

Explanation

CAR 1012.01: Co-authority dispatch means the shared responsibility of the pilot-m-command and the flight dispatcher for all decisions respecting the operational flight plan prior to its acceptance by the pilown-command. and for che flight watch, (regulation desvols en coresponsabilite)

Question 32

Unless with special authorization, a twin-engined aeroplane in an airline operation cannot be operated, on an international flight, on a route containing a point that is farther from an adequate aerodrome than the distance that can be flown:

Answer 32

in eo minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

Explanation

car 705.26: (1) Subject to subseccion (2). no air operator shall operate a twin-engined aeroplane on a route containing a point chat is farther from an adequate aerodrome chan che discance chat can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, unless che flight is conducted wholly within Canadian Domestic Airspace.

(2) An air operator may operate an aeroplane on a route referred to in subsection (1) where
(a) the aeroplane is turbine-powered;
(b) che air operator is authorized to do so in its a:r operator certificate; and

(0 the air operator complies with the Safety Critena for Approval of Extended Range Twin-engine Operations (ETOPS) Manual.

Question 33

which of the following is true regarding the pre-flight briefing given to the crew members of an aircraft in an airline operation?

Answer 33

The briefing shall cover, among others, the anticipated weather and flying conditions, and filghc altitudes.

The briefing shall cover, among others, reviews of selected emergency, safety and security procedures.

it’s the pilot-m-command that shall ensure that, prior to each flight or series of filght segments, the crew members of the aircraft including the in-charge flight intendant. are given a pre-flight briefing.

Explanation

car 70531: The piloc-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that, prior to each flight or series of flight segments, the crew members of the aircraft are given a pre-flight briefing chat meecs the Commercial Air service Standards.

car 72531: The pre-flight crew member briefing shall consist of a joint crew member briefing involving all crew members or a briefing from the piloc-in-command to the in-charge filghc attendant and from che in-charge flight attendant to other cabin crew members. Where the filghc involves only one filghc attendant the pilot-in-command shall bnef chat flight attendant in accordance with subseccion 72531(2).

(1) Pre-flight Briefing - All Crew Members

The contents of che pre-flight crew member briefing that involves all crew members shall include the following as appropnate:

(a) anticipated weather;
(b) anticipated flying conditions;

(C) filghc time

(d) altitudes:
(e) review of selected communication procedures;
(f) review of selected emergency procedures;
(g) review of selected safety procedures;
(h) review of selected security procedures; ancf£

(I) any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers.

Question 34

Under the Minimum Equipment List, if a category B inoperative item is discovered, it shall be repaired:

Answer 34

Within three consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.

Explanation

TP 9155 - Master Minimum Equipment List/Minimum Equipment List Policy and Procedures Manual - Second Edition => Chapter 3 - MEL Policy and Procedures - 3.11 Repair Interval Categories:

The maximum time an aircraft may be operated between the deferral of an inoperative item and its repair will be specified in the MEL or GMEL Passenger convenience items referred to in paragraphs 3.9.4 a) and 3.9.4 b) must include a category. Most of these items will be a “D” category provided any (M) procedure (in the case of eletronically supplied items) is applied.

Since the MEL is a dispatch document, the repair interval may expire in flight without penalty.

Category a - items in this category shall be repaired within the time interval specified in the ’’Remarks and Exceptions” column of the air operator’s approved MEL Whenever the proviso in the ‘Remarks or Exceptions’ column of the MMEL states cycles or flight time, the time interval begins with the next flight whenever the time interval is listed as flight days, the time interval begins on the flight day following the day of discovery.

Time Limited Dispatch - some MEL’S have relief that is subject to time limited dispatch expressed as a specific number of engine hours or cycles, and will start in accordance with the times established by the engine manufacturer or as indicated in the remarks column of the MEL. Time limited relief cannot be extended.

Category B - items in this category shall be repaired within three consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.

Category c - items in this category shall be repaired within 10 consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery

Category D - items in this category shall be repaired within 120 consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery.

Question 35

No person shall conduct a take-off in _____ without a third attitude indicator.

Answer 35

A large aircraft operated under Part VII of the cars.

Explanation

car 605.41: (1) No person shall conduct a cake-off in a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane that is operated under Part vn without a third attitude indicator that meecs the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aeroplane

(a) has a MCTOW of less than 5 700 kg (1Z566 pounds): and
(b) was operaced in Canada in a commercial air service on October 10.1596.
(2) No person shall conduct a take-off in a transport category aircraft without a third attitude indicator that meecs the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aircraft
(a) is a transport category helicopter not operated in IFR flight;
(b) is a transport category aeroplane powered by reciprocating engines that was manufactured before January 1,1598; or (0 is not operaced pursuant to Part vn.
(3) No person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-propeller powered aeroplane that is operaced under Part vn without a third attitude indicator that meets the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards unless the aeroplane
(a) has a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 30 or fewer;
(b) has a payload capacity of 3 402 kg (7.500 pounds) or less; and (0 was manufactured prior to March 20.1997.
(4) After December 20.2010. no person shall conduct a take-off in a turbo-propeller powered aeroplane having a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seacs. of 10 or more, and operated under Part vn. unless the aeroplane is equipped with a third attitude indicator that meecs the requirements of section 625.41 of the Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance standards.

car 601.01: Large aircraft: means an aeroplane having a maximum permissible cake-off weight in excess of 5.700 kg (12.566 pounds) or a rotorcraft having a maximum permissible take-off weight in excess of 2730 kg (6.018 pounds), (gros aeronef)

Question 36

The rules associated with a 1200 RVR (1/4 SM) take-off in the following conditions are:

Airplane: Turbine multi-engine (with certified engine-out take-off and climb performance).
Number of passengers: 23.
Operating certificate: 704.

Answer 36

1 - The pilot-m-command and second-in-command attitude indicators on the aeroplane shall incorporate pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments above and below the zero pitch reference line to at least 15º.

3 - The runway must be equipped with serviceable and functioning high-intensity runway lights or run way centreline lights or with runway centreline markings that are plainly visible to the pilot throughout the take-off run.

4 - The pilot-m-command and the second-in-command, if the Company operations Manual allows the take-off. have received training regarding rules surrounding rvr 1200 take-off and for which the validity period is not expired.

6 - a take-off alternate airport must be indicated on the ifr flight plan and be located within 60 minutes of flight time at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

7 - The pilot-m-command must have at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command experience on the aeroplane type.

9 - The Company operations Manual must contain detailed guidance on how to determine departure one-engine-inoperative climb gradient and obstacle clearance.

Explanation

CAR 724.26 Take-Off Minima:

weather Belov.’ Landing Limits: The standards for conducting a take-off in IMC when weather conditions are above take-off. but below landing minima for the runway in use are:

a) For departures where the operator has presented more than 9 passenger seats from being occupied: an alternate aerodrome is specified in the ifr flight plan and that aerodrome is located:

in the case of a twin-engined aircraft, within the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the normal cruising speed: or

(B) in che case of an aircraft with three or more engines, within the distance thac can be flown in 120 minutes at the normal cruising speed; and

(b) For all other departures:
an alternate aerodrome is specified in the ifr flight plan and that aerodrome is located:

Question 37

Fora category I ILS approach with a CAP advisory visibility of “1/2 RVR 26”. pilots of an aircraft operated commercially are authorized to fly the approach if the visibility goes down to ___ if the air operator is not approved for “OPS SPEC” and ____ if the air operator is approved for “OPS SPEC”.

Answer 37

3/8 RVR 1800; 1 /4 RVR 1200.

Approach Ban - Commercial Operators - General - Non-Precision, APV, or CAT I Precision Approach

With certain exceptions, pilots of commercial aircraft are prohibited from completing a non-precision approach, an APV. or a CAT i precision approach past the FAF inbound or. where there is no FAF. the point where the final approach course is intercepted, if the visibility report is below the value corresponding to the CAP advisory visibility for the approach conducted;

Minimum Visibility - Aeroplanes - Non-Precision, APV, or CAT I

CAP Advisory Visibility = Visibility Report

Approach Ban - Commercial Operators - Ops Spec -Non-Precision, APV, or CAT I Precision Approach

703.704 and 705 operators authorized through ops Spec 019.303 or 503 and meeting all the conditions related to the approach procedure, are permitted to conduct an approach at a visibility value less than those specified in Subpart 700 of the cars General approach ban. with certain exceptions, pilots of commercial aircraft are prohibited from completing a non-precision approach, an APV. or a CAT i precision approach past the FAF inbound or. where there is no FAF. the point where the final approach course is intercepted, if the visibility report is belcw the value corresponding to the CAP advisory visibility for the approach conducted:

Minimum Visibility - Aeroplanes - 703/704/705 Ops Spec - Non-Precision, APV, or CAT I

CAP Advisory Visibility = Visibility Report

Question 38

For this question, refer to the ““CAP”” in the Appendix.

you are operating a propeller turbine engine aircraft for a commercial operator. The air operator is approved to conduct RVR 1200 1 /4 SM take-off and is certified for OPS Spec, allowing the use of approach ban minimums in the cap gen. when listening to the atis for Prince-Georges airport (CYXS). you hear that the runway in service is Runway 15. the reported visibility at the airport is 1/4 SM and reported RVR for Runway 15 is 1000. if you wish to conduct an ifr flight:

Answer 38

You cannot start taxiing since reported visibility is not high enough.

Explanation

CAP GEN, Application of Low and Reduced Visibility Procedures

Low and reduced visibility procedures apply to ground movements of aircraft arriving and departing under low or reduced visibility conditions. Arrivals and departures below RVR 600 are not authorized, when weather conditions indicate visibility below RVR 26CO is imminent procedures will be implemented restricting aircraft and vehicle operations on the movement area. The following message will be added to the atis broadcast: “LOW visibility procedures in effect- or “REDUCED visibiuty procedures IN EFFECT-.

The cap will contain a low visibility Procedures Page and a low visibility Taxi chart for aerodromes with runways certified to operate below RVR 1200 down to and including rvr eoo.

Aerodromes with runways certified for Reduced visibility procedures (RVR 2600 down to and including rvr 1200) may have a Reduced visibility Procedures Page and a Reduced visibility Taxi chart if chere are special pilot procedures chat need to be published.

The cap will also contain the level of service for each runway in the Aerodrome Chart. The certification will list the RVR number (–rvr 1200) if the runway has RVR equipment or only the statute mile visibility (% SM”) if no RVR equipment is present. An entry of RVR 600 indicates the runway meecs the requirements to operate below rvr 1200 (% SM) down to and including rvr 600.

Sequencing of Aircraft for Ground Movements for Take-Off

Do not request scare push back or call for taxi clearance until the reported rvr is a minimum of:

Aircraft/Pilot Take-Off Minima: 1200 RVR / 600 RVR Minimum RVR for Start 1000 RVR / 600 RVR

Question 39

For this question, refer to the ‘“•CAP”” in the Appendix.
you are planning to fiy the RNAV (GNSS) RWY 09 approach at Power River Airport (CYPW). The aircraft is operated under the 705 section and the air operator is approved for ““OPS SPEC’”’, in these conditions, the minimum visibility to fly the approach would be:

Answer 39

1 SM.

Question 40

You are planning to fiy the ILD/DME RWY 12 approach at Campbell River Airport (CYBL). The aircraft is operated under the 703 section, in these conditions, the minimum visibility to fly the approach would be: you skipped the question

1/2 RVR 2600.

1 RVR50.

Answer 40

3/4 RVR 4000.

Question 41

For this question, refer to the “’CAP”” in the Appendix.

you are on the ground at Vancouver airport (CYVR). about to start the engines in order to take off from Runway 26R. The air operator is approved for low and reduced visibility procedures, in order to start the engines, the minimum authorized RVR will be ____ in order to cake off the minimum authorized RVR will be ____

Answer 41

RVR 600; RVR 600.

Application of Low and Reduced Visibility Procedures

Low and reduced visibility procedures apply to ground movements of aircraft arriving and departing under low or reduced visibility conditions. Arrivals and departures below RVR 600 are not authorized, when weather conditions indicate visibility below RVR 2600 is imminent procedures will be implemented restricting aircraft and vehicle operations on the movement area. The following message will be added to the atis broadcast: “LOW visibility procedures in effect- or “REDUCED visibiuty procedures IN EFFECT-.

The cap will contain a low visibility Procedures Page and a low visibility Taxi chart for aerodromes with runways certified to operate below RVR 1200 down to and including rvr 600.

Aerodromes with runways certified for Reduced visibility procedures (RVR 26CO down to and including rvr 1200) may have a Reduced visibility Procedures Page and a Reduced visibility Taxi chart if chere are special pilot procedures chat need to be published.

The cap will also contain the level of service for each runway in the Aerodrome Chart. The certification will list the RVR number (–rvr 1200) if the runway has RVR equipment or only the statute mile visibility (% SM”) if no RVR equipment is present. An entry of RVR 600 indicates the runway meecs the requirements to operate below RVR 1200 (% SM) down to and including rvr 6CO.

Sequencing of Aircraft for Ground Movements for Take-Off

Do not request scare push back or call for taxi clearance until the reported rvr is a minimum of:

Aircraft/Pilot Take-Off Minima: 1200 RVR / 6CO RVR

Minimum rvr for stare 1000 RVR/ 600 RVR

Reproduit avec I’autorisacion du miniscre de I’induscrie. 2015.

Question 42

A straight line drawn on a Lambert conformal conic projection chart is a ____on Earth. A straight line drawn on a Mercator projection chart is a ____on Earth.

Answer 42

Great circle; rhumb line.

Explanation
On a Lambert conformal conic projection, a scraighc line linking two points represents an arc of a great circle.
On a Mercator projection, meridians and parallels of latitude are scraighc and parallel lines, and a straight line drawn between two points on che map stands for a rhumb line.

Question 43

Question 43

Consider two airports at exactly the same longitude. The first is at N52°34‘ latitude and the second is at N53s48‘ lacitude. what is the distance between the two airports?

Answer 43

74NM

Question 44

Which of the following is true regarding the Organized Track System (OTS) of the North Atlantic (NAT) when westbound?

Answer 44

The validity period of the daytime OTS is 1130 to 1900 utc at 03O=W. and the most northerly track is designated by the letter A.

AIM. NAT 1.20.3.2: a) Westbound

(I) The westbound OTS message is designed and published by Shanwick dally.

(ii) The most northerly track of a day OTS is designated as NAT Track Alpha; the adjacent track to the south, as NAT Track Bravo; and so on.

(Ill) The valid times are 1130 to 1900 UTC at 30=W.

(iv) The flight level profiles normally published are FL 310 to FL 390 inclusive
(v) Tracks that landfall at or north of CUDDY FL 340 will not be published.

(A) FL 340 is omitted from these tracks to allow profiles for aircraft originating in the Reykjavik OCA. b) Eastbound

(I) The eastbound OTS message is designed and published by Gander daily.

(ii) The most southerly track is designated as Track Zulu; the adjacent track to the north, as Track Yankee; and so on.

(Ill) The valid times are 0100 to 0800 UTC at 30^.

(iv) The flight level profiles normally published are FL 310 to FL400 inclusive.

(A) FL 310 is available on New York tracks only.

(v) Eastbound traffic routing, south of both the night datum line and the main OTS. should flight plan using FL 310. FL 340. FL 360. or FL 380.
(vl) New York Tracks entering shanwick OCA that cross, or route south of, the night datum line may be any combination of FL 310. FL 340. fl 360. or FL 380. or as otherwise agreed between santaMaria and NewYork. Additional levels will be allocated to New York Tracks if the core OTS is located in that area.

Question 45

Which of the following is true regarding the Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP) throughout the North Atlantic (NAT) region?

Answer 45

Offsets are not to exceed 2 NM right of centreline and offsets to the left of centreline are not permitted.

slop mitigates collision risk and wake turbulence encounters.

Aircraft without automatic offset programming capability must fly the route centreline.

Explanation

aim. nat 1.21: The strategic lateral offset procedure (SLOP) is now a standard operating procedure (SOP) throughout the North Atlantic (NAT) region. This procedure mitigates collision risk and wake turbulence encounters. Pilots conducting oceanic flights within the NAT region with automatic offset programming capabilityare recommended to fly lateral offsets up to 2NM right of centreline.

SLOP reduces risk by distributing aircraft laterally, it is applicable within the New York oceanic. Gander oceanic, shanwick oceanic. Santa Maria oceanic. Nuuk, and Reykjavik flight information regions (firs), and within the Bods oceanic FIR when flights are conducted more than 135 km (100 NM) seaward from the shoreline.

SLOP conforms to direction in the international Civil Aviation organize tiornsjiCAO) Procedures for Air Navigation services- Air Traffic Management(Doc 4444) and is subject to the following guidelines:

a) Aircraft without automatic offset programming capability must fly the route centreline.
b) Operators capable of programming automatic offsets may fly the centreline or an offset up to a maximum of 2 NM right of centreline.
c) Offsets to the left of centreline are not permitted.
d) An aircraft overtaking another aircraft should offset within the confines of this procedure, if capable, so as to minimize the amount of wake turbulence for the aircraft being overtaken. The pilot should take into account wind, estimated wake vortex drift and time to descend. (Nominal descent rates for wakes are 300-600 ft/min.)
e) Pilocs should use whatever means are available (e g. traffic alert and collision avoidance system[TCAS]. communications, visual acquisition) to determine the best flight path to fly. Pilots may contact ocher aircraft on frequency 123.45 MHz. as necessary, to coordinate the best wake turbulence offset option.
f) Pilocs may apply an offset outbound after the oceanic entry point and must return to the cencreline before the oceanic exit point. Position reports transmitted via voice should be based on the waypoints of the current air traffic control (ATC) clearance and not on the offset positions.
g) There is no ATC clearance required for this procedure, and it is not necessary that atc be advised.

Question 46

Regarding SLOP, pilots conducting oceanic flights within the NAT region with automatic offset programming capability are recommended to fly lateral offsets up to ____ NM ___ of centreline

Answer 46

2; right.

Question 47

in NAT airspace, pilots must squawk on their transponder:

Answer 47

The last atc assigned code for a period of 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace (unless otherwise directed by ATQ. then squawk code 2000.

Explanation

aim, NAT 1.14: Transponders must be operated at all times on Mode A or Mode C on code 2000 while the aircraft is operated in the North Atlantic (NAT) region. However, the last air traffic control (ATC) assigned code must be retained for a period of 30 min after entry into NAT airspace unless the pilot is otherwise directed by ATC.

NOTE: This procedure does not affect the use of the special purpose codes 7500.7600. and 7700.

Question 48

On a snow covered runway. V1 will _____ and Vr will ____

Answer 48

Decrease; remain the same.

Explanation

V1 may vary according to the aeroplane weight. The pilot may therefore make arrangements to have the accelerate-stop distance equal the accelerate-go distance: what is called balanced field length, it allows a takeoff with the highest weight possible regarding runway length and conditions, in such a case. V1 depends on:

• The aeroplane weight: The heavier the aeroplane, the more difficult to stop it. and much more difficult to continue the takeoff. By increasing V1, the stop distance will be longer, but the go distance will be decreased, allowing both distances to be equalized.
• The wind: a headwind will reduce the accelerate-go distance, and will especially reduce the accelerate-stop distance (because the groundspeed corresponding to the vi will be lower), as with the increased weight, an increase of V1 allows the accelerate-stop distance to be increased and the accelerate-go distance to be reduced in order to balance both distances.
• The air density: The decrease of air density will cause an increase in the accelerate-stop distance, and much more an increase of the accelerate-go distance. Once again, the increase of V1 allows both distances to be balanced.
• The runway slope: An upslope will cause a decrease in the accelerate-stop distance. However, the accelerate-go distance will be increased. Vi will then be increased in order to increase the accelerate-stop distance and to decrease the accelerate-go distance.
• The runway surface: a contaminated runway (snow. rain, etc.) will reduce the braking capacity of the aeroplane, which will cause an increase of the accelerate-stop distance. The accelerate-go distance will not change, in this case, a decrease of V1 will allow the accelerate-stop distance to be reduced, and it will increase the accelerate-go distance in order to balance both distances.
• The runway length: A greater runway length could allow, for example, an increase of the V1 to vr value.

in short the pilot will increase V1 if the weight of the aeroplane is greater, in case of headwind, if the density altitude is high, if the runway is upslope or if the runway length is long enough.

On the contrary, he/she will decrease V1 if the aeroplane i

The rotation speed (Vr) is the calibrated airspeed at which the pilot inmates rotation of the aeroplane to enable the rising of the landing gear, vr varies with takeoff weight, air-density and flap setting, vr is greater or equal to vi. vmca x 1.1. or the speed

needed to get V2 by 35 feet abcve the runway departure end.

Question 49

On an upslope runway. V1 will ____ and vr will remain the same but must always _____

Answer 49

increase; greater or equal to v1.

Explanation

V1 may vary according to the aeroplane weight. The pilot may therefore make arrangements to have the accelerate-stop distance equal the accelerate-go distance: what is called balanced field length, it allows a takeoff with the highest weight possible regarding runway length and conditions, in such a case. V1 depends on:

• The aeroplane weight: The heavier the aeroplane, the more difficult to stop it. and much more difficult to continue the takeoff. By increasing V1, the stop distance will be longer, but the go distance will be decreased, allowing both distances to be equalized.
• The wind: a headwind will reduce the accelerate-go distance, and will especially reduce the accelerate-stop distance (because the groundspeed corresponding to the vi will be lower). As with the increased weight, an increase of V1 allows the accelerate-stop distance to be increased and the accelerate-go distance to be reduced in order to balance both distances.
• The air density: The decrease of air density will cause an increase in the accelerate-stop distance, and much more an increase of the accelerate-go distance. Once again, the increase of V1 allows both distances to be balanced.
• The runway slope: An upslope will cause a decrease in the accelerate-stop distance. However, the accelerate-go distance will be increased. Vi will then be increased in order to increase the accelerate-stop distance and to decrease the accelerate-go distance.
• The runway surface: a contaminated runway (snow. rain, etc.) will reduce the braking capacity of the aeroplane, which will cause an increase of the accelerate-stop distance. The accelerate-go distance will not change, in this case, a decrease of V1 will allow the accelerate-stop distance to be reduced, and it will increase the accelerate-go distance in order to balance both distances.
• The runway length: A greater runway length could allow, for example, an increase of the V1 to vr value.

in short the pilot will increase V1 if the weight of the aeroplane is greater, in case of headwind, if the density altitude is high, if the runway is upslope or if the runway length is long enough.

On the contrary, he/she will decrease V1 if the aeroplane i

The rotation speed (Vr) is the calibrated airspeed at which the pilot inmates rotation of the aeroplane to enable the rising of the landing gear, vr varies with takeoff weight, air-density and flap setting, vr is greater or equal to vi. vmca x 1.1. or the speed

needed to get V2 by 35 feet above the runway departure end.

Question 50

Consider a turbojet aircraft taking off from a high-elevation airport. What would be the effects on the takeoff distance and speeds compared to a takeoff from an airport at sea level?

Answer 50

The takeoff distance. V1 and V2will increase.

A decrease in air density leads to a decrease in aircraft performance.

Several factors influence density: altitude, temperature or air humidity.

An increase in altitude leads to a density decrease: the higher you are. the less important air column pressure.

An increase in temperature has the same effect: the warmer it is. the less dense the air is (less air molecules in a given volume than in cold air).

Regarding humidity, the higher it is. the less dense the air is. High humidity leads to a decrease in engine performances.

with high density altitude, the aircraft needs a longer roll distance before it has enough lift, and additionally its climb race will be weaker. During approach, the aircraft has a higher true airspeed and a longer landing distance.

The takeoff decision speed (or engine failure recognition speed) (V1) is che aircraft’s maximum speed under which a pilot may decide to abort cakeoff considering the available acceleration-stop distance or to continue the takeoff considering the available accelerate-go distance, vi is less than or equal to vr and vmbe. and is not less than vmcg.

The rotation speed (VO is the calibrated airspeed at which the pilot inmates rotation of the aeroplane to enable the rising of the landing gear, vr varies with takeoff weight, air-density and flap setting, vr is greater or equal to vi. vmca x 1.1. or the speed needed to get V2 by 35 feet above che runway departure end.

The cakeoff safety speed (V2) is the minimum speed at which a pilot is allowed to climb after he/she has reached a height of 10.7 metres (35 feet) above the takeoff surface in order to maintain the minimum climb gradient specified in case of takeoff with one inoperative engine. V2is equal to or greater than 20% more than the stall speed in takeoff configuration, and 10% more than che minimum control airspeed.

V1 may vary according to the aeroplane weight. The pilot may therefore make arrangements to have the accelerate-stop distance equal the accelerate-go discance: what is called balanced field length, it allows a takeoff with the highest weight possible regarding runway length and conditions, in such a case. V1 depends on:

• The aeroplane weight The heavier the aeroplane, che more difficult to scop it. and much more difficult to continue the takeoff. By increasing vi. the stop distance will be longer, but the go distance will be decreased, allowing both distances to be equalized.
• The wind: A headwind will reduce che accelerace-go distance, and will especially reduce the accelerate-stop distance (because che groundspeed corresponding to the vi will be lower). As with the increased weight, an increase of vi allows the accelerate-stop distance to be increased and the accelerate-go distance to be reduced in order to balance both distances.
• The air density: The decrease of air density will cause an increase in the accelerate-stop distance, and much more an increase of the accelerate-go discance. Once again, the increase of V1 allows both distances to be balanced.
• The runway slope: An upslope will cause a decrease in the accelerate-stop discance. However, the accelerace-go distance will be increased. Vi will then be increased in order to increase the accelerate-stop distance and to decrease the accelerate-go distance.
• The runway surface: A contaminated runway (snow. rain, etc.) will reduce the braking capacity of che aeroplane, which will cause an increase of the accelerate-stop distance. The accelerace-go discance will not change, in this case, a decrease of vi will allow the accelerate-stop discance to be reduced, and it will increase the accelerate-go distance in order to balance both distances.
• The runway length: a greater runway length could allow, for example, an increase of che V1 to vr value.

in short the pilot will increase V1 if the weight of the aeroplane is greater, in case of headwind, if the density altitude is high, if che runway is upslope or if the runway length is long enough.

On the contrary, he/she will decrease V1 if che aeroplane is light in case of tailwind, if the density altitude is weak, if the runway is downslope. if the runway is contaminated or if che runway length is reduced.

Question 51

During cakeoff. the assumed (or flex) temperature allows for:

Answer 51

A reduction of both noise and engine wear.

Explanation

Flex temp is a way to reduce the takeoff thrust to the minimum required for a safe takeoff, it allows both noise and engine wear to be reduced, and enables considerable savings in maintenance costs.

Gas turbine engines produce reduced chrust as che ambient air temperature increases. The flex temperature (or assumed temperature) is the highest air temperature at which the engines would produce the required thrust to take off safely.

When full thrust is not needed (light aircraft, long runway, headwind, etc.), crew members can use lower N1 by telling the engines (via the FMC) that the oat is higher than it really is.

When the flex (FIX) thrust is selected during takeoff, the engine controller produces maximum thrust for the given assumed temperature, if necessary, the pilot can pull the throttles to idle and abort the takeoff, or push the throtdes into the Take Off/Go Around (TOGA) to apply full power.

Question 52

On a turbo-jet aircraft, closing the bleed-air valve for departure allows better takeoff performance because:

Answer 52

The turbo-jet produces greater thrust.

Explanation

in order to function, the various onboard systems, such as pressurization, some de-icing systems or air conditioning, use part of the air from the compressor (thanks to a bleed valve). The use of these systems will produce a loss of thrust and an increase of the turbine temperature.

Question 53

When does aircraft pressurization usually start?

What can you tell me about the rate of descent and rate of the cabin?

Answer 53

On airline aircraft, pressurization usually starts during the takeoff run.

During a descent, when aircraft altitude = cabin altitude, the rate of descent indicated on the cabin vertical speed indicator = rate of descent indicated in the aircraft vertical speed indicator.

During a climb, the cabin vertical speed indicator should not show an indication above the aircraft vertical speed indicator.

Explanation

The control of cabin pressurization is done through three parameters: the cabin altitude (measured by an altimeter in the cabin; should not be more than 8.000 feet), the pressure differential (difference between aircraft pressure and outside pressure: maximum differential pressure is generally between 7 and 9 PSl. depending on the aircraft), and the cabin vertical speed indicator (which shows the speed at which the cabin climbs or descends).

Pilots have different controls, depending on the aircraft:

• on lighter aircraft, the pilot has a rotary knob to set cabin altitude. This knob has an inner scale showing che chosen cruise altitude and an outside scale indicating the corresponding cabin altitude. The cabin rate of descent or rate of climb is also set manually.
• On airline aeroplanes, control of pressurization can be done in normal operation or In manual operation.

in normal operations, the pilot does not touch anything (except, sometimes, a knob to enter the arrival airport ele/ation); computers that manage pressurization will directly get the information needed in the FMS. a knob allows the pilot to enter the arrival airport elevation manually (or the QNH. depending on the aircraft) in case, for example, of an FMS error. Generally, pressurization starts during the takeoff run.

in manual operation, the pilot manually enters the desired cabin rate of climb or descent.

whether or not in normal operation, the cabin vertical speed indicator should not show an indication above the aircraft vertical speed indicator. Too high a cabin vsi would be uncomfortable for passengers.

During the descent, when the aircraft altitude is the same as the cabin altitude, the rate of descent indicated on the cabin vsi will be equal to the one indicated in the aircraft vsi.

if necessary, a “Dump’ knob allows the pilot to completely open outflow valves to depressurize the cabin.

Question 54

The outflow valve on an aircraft pressurization system:

Answer 54

Prevents cabin pressure from being too high.

Explanation

The pressurization usually works using the air of engines compressors. The air is cooled with a combination of turbine and radiators to be send in the cabin.

The pressure is then regulated by an automatic valve, creating a leak in the pressurized section, the outflow valve, and avoid the cabin pressure to being too high.

if necessary, a Dump” knob allows the pilot to completely open outflow valves to depressurize the cabin.

Question 55

The maximum difference that can be sustained between the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft and outside pressure is called:

Answer 55

Maximum differential pressure.

Explanation

The control of cabin pressurization is done through three parameters: the cabin altitude (measured by an altimeter in the cabin; should not be more than 8.000 feet), the pressure differential (difference between aircraft pressure and outside pressure; maximum differential pressure is generally between 7 and 9 PSi. depending on the aircraft), and the cabin vertical speed indicator (which shows the speed at which the cabin climbs or descends).

Question 56

Which of the following is true regarding fuel measurements through capacitance probes?

Answer 56

Fuel measurement is fully electrical.

Explanation

Some aircraft are equipped with fuel capacitance probes to measure the amount of fuel in the tanks.

Basically, a capacitance probe (or capacitor) consists of two or three metallic concentric tubes one inside the other. The tubes are electrically isolated from each other by a dielectric: air or fuel.

Capacitance is the eletrical charge that can be held by the probes. Fuel has roughly twice the capacitance of air.

Air enters the capacitor from the top and fuel enters from the bottom.

when the tanks are full, the capacitance of the probes is greater than when the fuel tanks are empty. Changes in fuel levels cause a change in probe capacitance, information is then supplied and processed by a computer. To ensure accuracy in any phase of flight, several capacitance probes are placed in parallel throughout the tank.

it should be noted that fuel capacitance increases as density increases. That is why some aircraft include density measuring devices to adjust the reported information from the probes.

The electrically operated gauges indicate the amount of usable fuel and will go to zero when the power is shut off or if the system fails.

Question 57

Whac is a magnastick?

Answer 57

An alternate device used to check fuel quantity inside the tank when the aircraft is on the ground.

Explanation

a magnascick (or floacstick) is a device used as an alternate means of measuring fuel quantity in the tanks when on the ground, it consists of a calibrated rod chat slides inside a closed tube fixed to the bottom of the tank, a magnecic float rises or falls along the tube depending on che amount of fuel. The top of the rod is also magnetic.

When the magnastick is lowered, the rod descends until it is stopped by the magnetic float. The lower the fuel is inside the tank, the lower the float and che lower the rod goes, indicating how much fuel is in the tank.

When not in use. the rod is secured within the tube.

Question 58

Why are most transport aircraft equipped with trimmable horizontal stabilizers?

Answer 58

Because this system allows a reduced drag in flight.

Explanation
The adjustable or trimmable horizontal stabilizer is a trimming device incorporated on most transport aircraft, in this system, the full horizontal tail surface moves around its lateral axis, thus varying the angle of attack of the stabilizer regarding the airframe. Some advantages of the trimmable horizontal stabilizer are the reduced drag in flight, and a tremendous trimming power over the full speed range of the aircraft.

Question 59

On an aeroplane in constant climb, lift is:

Answer 59

Equal to the weight minus the component of the weight that acts to the rear.

Explanation
During a constant climb, the aeroplane is in equilibrium, since the aeroplane is banked with respect to the horizon, a part of the weight is added to the drag acting to the rear. The traction is then equal to the drag plus the weight component and the lift is equal to the weight minus the weight component acting rearward.

Question 60

What will be the effect of a change in temperature on the critical Mach number (Merit) of a given aircraft?

Answer 60

No change.

Explanation

The critical Mach is the number beyond which appears, on the upper surface of a wing, an area where the airflow reaches then exceeds the local speed of sound.

The critical Mach number (Merit) may be defined as the speed at which the first shock waves will be created on some parts of the aircraft (usually the wing’s upper surface, where the airflow is moving faster).

The critical Mach number depends on the style of the airfoil (camber, sweep back, wash-out. etc.).

For a given aircraft, the critical Mach number remains constant regardless of the flight altitude, and therefore regardless of the pressure and temperature of the ambient air.

However, the true airspeed (TAS) corresponding to the critical Mach number does change with pressure and temperature: a decrease of pressure and temperature will cause a decrease of the TAS corresponding to the Mcrit, and an increase of pressure and temperature will cause an increase of the TAS corresponding to the Mcrit.

Question 61

The critical Mach number (Mcrit) may be defined as:

Answer 61

The highest airspeed at which the airflow reaches Mach 1 on some parts of the aircraft.

Explanation
The critical Mach is the number beyond which appears, on the upper surface of a wing, an area where the airflow reaches chen exceeds the local speed of sound.

The critical Mach number (Mcrit) may be defined as the speed at which the first shock waves will be created on some parts of the aircraft (usually the wings upper surface, where the airflow is moving faster).

Question 62

What is the purpose of leading edge flaps that can be found on large transport aircraft?

Answer 62

To increase lift coefficient by increasing wing camber.

Explanation
When leading edge flaps are dropped, the wing camber increases. The wing then has a higher lift coefficient at big angles of attack and weaker airspeed.

Question 63

What is the advantage of a slotted trailing edge flap over a split flap?

Answer 63

The slotted flap delays the separation of the boundary layer.

Explanation
A slotted flap is a flap where a slot appears between the wing trailing edge and the flap itself when deployed. This slot allows the high-pressure air to move from the wing’s lower surface to the flap’s upper surface. The boundary layer is then forced to remain •attached” to the flap, which produces more lift compared to a plain flap or a split flap.

Question 64

why are outboard ailerons of transport aircraft locked when flying at high speed?

Answer 64

To reduce the effectiveness of ailerons.

To prevent reversal of ailerons.

To reduce stress on wings when using the ailerons.

Explanation

Most large transport aircraft are equipped with two ailerons on each wing: an inboard aileron (near the wing root) and an outboard aileron (near the wing tip).

when the aircraft speed is below a cercain value, both inboard and outboard ailerons are used to control the aircraft. However, at higher airspeeds (usually when flaps are up), only inboard ailerons are used to manoeuvre the aircraft, while outboard ailerons are locked and do not react anymore to flight controls.

There are three main reasons for this:

• The first is the reduction of stress on the wing when ailerons are used at high speeds. The outboard aileron, being far from the root of the wing, would cause an excessive bending stress on the wing. The inboard aileron, being near the wing root, causes much less stress on the wing.
• The second is to prevent reversal of ailerons. This phenomenon would happen if the outboard aileron were used at high airspeed. The downward outboard aileron would twist the wing tip downward. This would cause a loss of lift of the wing which would descend instead of rise. The aircraft would then turn in the opposite direction.
• The third is to reduce control effectiveness. At high airspeeds, air flows fast on the wing causing the controls to be too responsive. On some aircraft, outboard spoilers are locked as well to reduce sensitivity.

Question 65

An aircraft will have the best performances when flying at _____ temperature in a ____ and _____ air.

Answer 65

Low; cold; dry.

Explanation

a decrease in air density leads to a decrease in aircraft performance.

Several factors influence density: altitude, temperature or air humidity.

An increase in altitude leads to a density decrease: the higher you are. the less important air column pressure.

An increase in temperature has the same effect: the warmer it is. the less dense the air is (less a:r molecules in a given volume than in cold air). Regarding humidity, the higher it is. the less dense the air is. High humidity leads to a decrease in engine performances.

Question 66

When flying an ILS approach and maintaining a 3° glide path at a constant indicated airspeed, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 66

in negative wind shear, an increase of power setting is first required in order to decrease the rate of descent.

Explanation

Let’s assume a wind going from nil to 10 knots tailwind, or a headwind abruptly decreasing by 10 knots (negative wind shear): inertia leads to a delay of seconds before the aircraft reacts to this change. During this time, the aircraft airspeed decreases by about 10 knots, if this decreasing occurs dunng approach, when the aircraft is flying at lew speed, the approach slope will suddenly be more pronounced and a stall could occur, you should therefore increase power.

Question 67

During an approach, what would be the INITIAL INDICATION that a constant headwind has changed to a calm wind?

Answer 67

The aircraft would pitch down, the altitude and the indicated airspeed would decrease.

Explanation
Let s assume a wind going from nil to 10 knots tailwind, or a headwind abruptly decreasing by 10 knots (negative wind shear): inertia leads to a delay of seconds before che aircraft reacts to this change. Dunng this time, the aircraft a rspeed decreases by about 10 knots, if this decreasing occurs dunng approach, when the aircraft is flying at lew speed, the approach slope will suddenly be more pronounced and a stall could occur, you should therefore increase power.

Question 68

An aircraft is not certified to successfully complete a go-around without ground contact once it has entered the low-energy landing regime, which of the following DEFINE the low-energy landing regime?

Answer 68

Aircraft height is 50 feet (representative value depending on the aircraft type) or less above the runway elevation.

Aircraft airspeed is decreasing.

Aircraft flaps and landing gear are in the landing configuration.

Explanation

Commercial and Business Aviation Advisory Circular (CBAAQ No. 0141: it is a common belief among pilots and many air operators that aircraft are certified to successfully complete a balked landing or go-around from any point during the approach or landing phase. This is not the case.

in brief, an aircraft is not certified to successfully complete a go-around without ground contact once it has entered the low-energy landing regime. For the purposes of this CBAAC the low-energy landing regime is defined as:

1. aircraft flaps and landing gear are in the landing configuration;
2. aircraft is in descent
3. thrust has stabilized in the idle range;
4. airspeed is decreasing; and
5. aircraft height is 50 feet* or less above the runway elevation.
   * Note: 50 feet is a representative value, a given aircraft may enter the low-energy landing regime above or below 50 feet in accordance with approved landing procedures for that type.

Question 69

Among the following actions, which ones should be taken if an aircraft encounters vertical wind shear during initial climb?

Answer 69

Set the power levers to maximum, increase angle of attack and allow airspeed to decrease just above the stick shaker activation.

Explanation

A vertical wind shear is a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height

if wind shear is encountered during initial climb, che following acciorts should be taken without delay:

• if possible, disconnect the autothroctles and maintain or set the power levers to maximum takeoff thrust
• if the autopilot is engaged and if che Flight Director provides wind shear recovery guidance, keep the autopilot engaged, if not follow che Flight Director pitch command if it provides wind shear recovery guidance, or set the required pitch attitude as indicated in the aircraft operating manual (AOM) or in the quick reference handbook (QRH):
• if possible, level the wings to maximize che climb gradient
• Monitor the airspeed and flight-path angle:
• Allow airspeed to decrease just above the sack shaker activation;
• Do not change the flaps or landing gear configuraaons;
• when out of the wind shear condition, increase airspeed when a climb is confirmed, retract the flaps and landing gear, then establish a normal climb profile.

Question 70

During a climb in IMC. which of the following is true regarding the indications of the instruments if the aircraft experiences a blockage of the static source of the pitot static system?

Answer 70

The asi will under-read, the vsi will show zero, and the altimeter will stop at the present indication.

Explanation
a complete blockage of the static pressure system causes an underestimation of che airspeed indicator in climb and an overestimation in descent, it also causes a reading error on the altimeter, which will fix on the last indication. The third instrument becoming defective is the vertical speed indicator, which gives a le/el flight indication.

Question 71

At a certified airport, aircraft following the on-slope signal of a PAPi are provided with safe obstruction clearance to a minimum of _____ on either side of the extended runway centreline out to _____ from the runway threshold.

Answer 71

6º; 7.5 km.

Explanation

aim, AGA 7.6.1: VASIS is a generic term referring to different approach slope indicators. Types of VASiS are vasi (visual approach slope indicator). AVASi(abbreviated VASi). PAPi(precision approach path indicator), and apapi (abbreviated PAPi).

a VASiS consists of a series of lights visible from approximately 4 NM and designed to provide visual indications of the desired approach slope to a runway (usually 3°). At a certified airport, aircraft following the on-slope signal are provided with safe obstruction clearance to a minimum of 6° on either side of the extended runway centreline out to 7.5 km (4.1 NM) from the runway threshold. Newly certified airports are commonly protected out to 8º on each side of the extended runway centreline. Exceptions will be noted in the CFS. Descent using VASIS should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway centreline.

Question 72

The _____ is a low-intensity approach lighting system.

Answer 72

LIAL

Explanation

aim, AGA 7.5.1: a) Low intensity Approach Lighting System (UAL): This system is provided on non-precision approach runways and consists of aviation yellow fixed-intensity twin light units spaced at 60-metre intervals commencing 60 m from the threshold and extending back for a total distance of 900 m (terrain permitting).

Question 73

Regarding ground marshalling signals, what is the meaning of a movement from left to right with a hand horizontally in front of the throat?

Answer 73

Cut the engine(s).

Explanation

aim, AIR 1.8: See the table.

Question 74

Layers of frost, ice. or snow with a thickness and roughness comparable to medium or large sandpaper can reduce up to ____ % the lift of the wing and increase the drag up to _____%.

Answer 74

30; 40

Explanation

By accumulating on lifting surfaces, ice can modify their profile. This change leads to an increase in drag and a decrease in lift. An ice layer with the thickness of sandpaper destroys lift by 30% and increases drag by 40%. The consequence of this effect is an increase in stall speed. The mass of accumulated ice is the least dangerous factor.

Question 75

ice on the airframe will:

Answer 75

a - increase the drag
b - Reduce the maximum lift 
c - increase the takeoff distance 
d - increase the stall speed
e - increase the landing speed
f - Reduce the stalling angle of attack 
g - Reduce climb performances 
h - increase the aircraft weight

Explanation

An accumulation, even very fine, of frost, snow or ice on the aircraft surfaces will impair its charactenstics. On the airfoils, a thin layer of frost affects che uniform airflow on the wing’s upper surface and causes boundary layer separation. The stall speed will increase and the stall angle of attack will decrease. Snow or ice accumulation will affect even more aircraft charactenstics. With an important accumulation, the aircraft would be unable to take off. the stall speed being so high. An increase in the aircraft’s weight plays a role as well, though less important on the stall speed increasing. Before caking off. it is imperative to remove all traces of snow, ice or frost from the aircraft, in flight, avoid icing conditions if the aircraft is not equipped for chose conditions.

Question 76

You make a circuit on a runway where winds are strong, when you turn from the base leg to the final leg. you should expect to feel a illusion

Answer 76

Skidding

Explanation
in a tun from downwind to upwind the aircraft seems to skid outward, although the ball is cencred. This is an illusion, but the drift is real and ample room must be allowed between the aircraft and obstructions on the outside of the turn.

Question 77

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix.

what is the maximum time before a pre-takeoff inspection is required if the outside air temperature is -6°C in light snow mixed with light rain and the concentration of the fluid is 100/0?

Answer 77

20 minutes.

Explanation

Note: Below the table, the note 3 indicates: use light freezing rain holdover times in conditions of very light or light snow mixed with light rain.

TP 14052 - Guidelines for Aircraft Ground - Icing Operations

=> Chapter 11 - Holdover Time Guidelines and Associated Procedures -11.1 Holdover Time (HOT):

11.1.4.2 Determining the lowest time value for the precipitation conditions present

Once the appropriate cell within the hot Guidelines table for the conditions, temperature and fluid in use has been established, the lowest time value, based upon the precipitation rate, needs to be established. The process for obtaining this value may best be illustrated by use of an example.

Snow Example: Assume that the precipitation condition is moderate snow. The fluid in use is a Type iv fluid and the generic Type iv hot table will be used. The concentration of the fluid is 100/0. The temperature range is -30C and above, using this information it has been determined, by locating the correct cell, that the range of HOT times for these circumstances is 0:35 -1:10, i.e. thirty five minutes to one hour and ten minutes.

For this example, the lowest hot time limit is 35 minutes, based upon the published hot guidelines for 2019/2020. accessible through the Transport Canada website.

Discussion: The time limit is 35 minutes because che times shown in the hot guidelines cell. i.e. 0:35 -1:10. are che range of values are moderate snow.

if the precipitation condition were light snow, then its range would be 1:10 - 2:00.

11.1.6 Elapsed time within the range of hot for the conditions

Transport Canada considers that when the time chat has expired since anti-icing is within che range of time chosen by che Pilot-m-command for the conditions present and covered by the Guidelines, chere is a requirement to conduct an inspection pnor to takeoff. This inspection will usually be conducted from within the aircraft and may be an inspection of one or more of the representative surfaces of the aircraft. The inspection must be described in the Air Operators Approved Ground icing Program.

Question 78

Which of the following is true regarding final approach descents?

Answer 78

A stabilized final approach may help to prevent CFiT.

Explanation

aim. air 2.16.1: Controlled Flights into Terrain (CFIT) continue to be a major threat to cMl aviation safety in Canada. A stabilized final approach during an npa has been recognized by the ICAO CFIT Task Force as an aid to prevent CFiT. The step-dcwn technique presumed by npa procedure design may have been appropriate for early piston transport aircraft, but it is less suited to larger jet transport aircraft.

when using the step-down technique, the aircraft files a senes of vertical descents dunng the final approach segment as it descends and levels off at the minimum ifr altitudes published for each segment of the approach. The successive descents and level-offs result in significant changes in power settings and pitch attitudes and for some aircraft, may prevent the landing configuration from being established until landing is assured, using the step-down technique, the aircraft may have to be flown at minimum ifr altitudes for each segment of the approach and consequently be exposed to reduced obstacle separation for extended periods of time, a premature descent or a missed level-off could render the aircraft vulnerable to a CFIT accident.

Many air operators require their flight crews to use a stabilized approach technique which is entirely different from that envisaged in the onginal NPA procedure design. The stabilized approach is calculated to achieve a constant rate of descent at an approximate 3° flight path angle with stable airspeed, power setting, and attitude, and also with the aircraft configured for landing. The safety benefits derived from the stabilized final approach have been recognized by many organizations including ICAO, the FAA and TCCA. Those air operators not already doing so are encouraged to incorporate stabilized approach procedures into their sops and training syllabi.

CAUTION: Caution should be exercised when descending belcw the MDA while following an FMS-generated vertical path, unlike vertically guided approaches, which have their ocss verified below the DA OCSs on lnav procedures below the MDA have NOT been assessed, as a result, obstacles may penetrate the computer-generated flight path. Pilots are reminded to visually scan for obstacles before descending below the MDA

vasi and papi are calibrated for a defined geometric vertical path angle, in cold temperatures, a non-temperature compensated barometric FMS-generated vertical path may be lower than that of a calibrated vasi or papi. in high temperatures, a barometric FMS-generated vertical path will be higher than that of a calibrated vasi or papi. Pilots should be aware of this limitation and operate accordingly

Question 79

Regarding the TEM model, an example of threat could be:

Answer 79

The crew is facigued because they have been through bad weather conditions.

Explanation

The model is based on the premise that, in every flight hazards that must be handled by the crew will be present. These hazards increase the risks during a flight and are termed “threats” and ’errors” in the TEM model. Threats include such things as weather conditions, traffic, aircraft serviceability issues, unfamiliar airports, etc. Provided that the crew members have an opportunity to handle che threat effective management of the hazard leads to a positive result with no adverse consequences. However, mismanagement of che threat can lead to crew error, which the crew must also manage. Mismanagement of crew error may lead to an undesired aircraft state, which can lead to an accident. At any point effective management of the situation by the crew can mitigace the risk, and the situation may be inconsequential.

Question 80

Which of the following is TRUE regarding fatigue?

Answer 80

Air operators should use a FRMS to predict and prevent flight crew fatigue.

Risks of fatigue can be decreased by adopting a certain lifestyle.

Cumulative fatigue is brought by an accumulation of transient fatigue.

Explanation

Today, fatigue is still a major factor responsible for many aviation accidents.

There are three types of fatigue: transient, cumulative and circadian:

• Transient fatigue is acute fatigue brought on by intensive mental or physical activity for a relatively short period of time, or when sleep time is restricted dunng one or two days.
• Cumulative fatigue is fatigue brought on by an accumulation of transient fatigue, stress, or by extended hours awake across a senes of days.
• Circadian fatigue occurs when working during nighttime hours, particularly during the window of circadian low (WOCl) (usually between zoo a.m. and 06:00 a.m.).

Fatigue may result in an increased reaction time, reduced attentiveness, impaired memory, withdrawn mood, and many other effects that increase the probability of making errors. Pilots may adopt good habits to reduce risks associated with fatigue. For example:

• By maintaining a healthy lifestyle: planning physical activities, healthy meals;
• Taking advantage of every off-duty time period to rest and take naps;
• Advising colleagues if one detects a symptom of fatigue:
• Advising colleagues if they show symptoms of fatigue (people are not the best evaluators of their own alertness state, and they are often sleepier than they think).

Air operators should use a fatigue risk management system (FRMS) to predict and prevent flight crew fatigue.