4

Question 1

The validity period of a medical certificate for an airline transport pilot licence is _______months if the pilot is 60 years of age. Moreover, he/she shall have an ECG every months.

Answer 1

6,12

CAR 404.04
CAR 424 Personal licensing and Training 1.7

Question 2

unless authorized to do so in an air-traffic control clearance, no person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than _____if the aircraft is below 3.000 feet agl within 10 NM of a controlled aerodrome.

Answer 2

200 knots.

CAR 602.32

Question 3

During a vfr flight, a VFR flight plan must be filed when:

Flying into a sparsely settled area.

Flying with intention to land at a military aerodrome.

Flying to the united States.

Flying inside the Air Defence idendfication zone (ADIZ).

Answer 3

Flying to the united States.

CAR 602.73

Question 4

which of the following is FALSE?

The crew members on an aircraft shall be seated at the:r stations with their safety belts fastened during taxi, takeoff and landing.

Passengers on an aircraft shall be seated at their stations with their safety belts fastened during taxi, takeoff and landing.

The pilot-m-command shall ensure that at least one pilot is seated at the flight controls with his/her safety belt fastened during flight time.

There is no need of safety belts for infants.

Answer 4

The crew members on an aircraft shall be seated at the:r stations with their safety belts fastened during taxi, takeoff and landing.

CAR 605.22
CAR 605.24
CAR 605.25
CAR 605.27

Question 5

The _____ shall use an oxygen mask if the aircraft is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks and is operated at or above FL250. or if the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks and is operated above FL410

Answer 5

Pilot at the flight controls.

CAR 605.32

Question 6

A multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft configured for 1 o or more passenger seats and manufactured afcer October 11,1991. and for which two pilots are required by the type certificate or by the subpart under which it is operated, must be equipped with:

Answer 6

A flight data recorder and a cockpit voice recorder.

CAR 605.33

Question 7

A GPWS is mandatory in _____ aeroplanes operated under Subpart 4 or 5 of Part vn that have a MCTOW of more than _____ and for which a type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of 10 or more passengers.

Answer 7

Turbo-jet powered; 15000kg

CAR 605.37

Question 8

Who is responsible for respecting the maximum flight time of a flight crew member?

The air operator.

The flight crew member.

The pic.

All of the above.

Answer 8

All of the above.
CAR 700.20
CAR 700.28

Question 9

Who is responsible for the safe movement of passengers boarding or exiting an aircraft?

Answer 9

The air operator

CAR 703.38
CAR 704.33
CAR 705.40

Question 10

In a commuter or airline operation, a copy of the aircraft standard operating procedures must be:

Answer 10

Carried on board the relevant aircraft.

CAR 704.124

CAR 705.138

Question 11

No air operator shall authorize a flight and no person shall commence a flight unless the aircraft, when operating an ifr flight on designated routes or over designated areas as defined in the Commercial Air service Standards, carries an enroute fuel reserve of _____% of the fuel required to fly to the destination aerodrome.

Answer 11

5%

CAR 705.25

Question 12

According to an aircraft used in an airline operation, no person shall operate a pressurized aircraft above ______ unless there is readily availabe to each flight attendant on board portable oxygen equipment with an oxygen supply for _____.

Answer 12

FL250; 15 minutes.

CAR 705.94

Question 13

The training certificate for the Transportation of Dangerous Goods by aircraft (TDG) expires months after its date of issuance.

Answer 13

24.

CAR 725.124 (25)

Question 14

In a cruise flight at FL290 within CDA. atc will provide a vertical separation of _____feet or more to another aircraft flying in the same direction, if you are at FL490. this separation will be at least ____feet.

Answer 14

2OOO; 4.000.

AIM, RAC 2.3.1
AIM, RAC 11.7.2

Question 15

Control zones with a civil control tower in a terminal control area generally have a radius of _____NM and extend to feet aae. unless otherwise indicated.

Answer 15

7; 3.000.

AIM, RAC 2.7.3

Question 16

Which of the following is true regarding class B airspace?

A TCA or a CZ may be classified as Class B airspace.

It includes all low-level controlled airspace above 12500 feet asl or at and above the MEA whichever is higher, up to but not including 18.000 feet ASL

ATC separation is provided to all aircraft (IFR and VFR).

All of the above.

Answer 16

All of the above.

AIM, RAC 2.8.2

Question 17

You are performing a holding pattern before landing at an aerodrome that is in the Standard Pressure Region. You should:

Answer 17

Set your altimeter on the current aerodrome altimeter setting immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.

AIM, RAC 2.11

Question 18

You are flying at FL220 in the standard pressure region. You plan to start your descent to land at an airport that is also in the standard pressure region, when should you reset your altimeter to the altimeter setting of the airport, if a cruise level flight is planned at 10.000 feet?

Answer 18

Before scarting the descent.

AIM, RAC 2.11

Question 19

Concerning flight plans and flight itineraries, which of the following is false?

intermediate stops may not be included in a single ifr flight itinerary.

intermediate stops may not be included in a single ifr flight plan.

a single VFR flight plan including one or more intermediate stops enroute may be filed presided the stop is of short duration.

a single ifr flight itinerary including one or more intermediate stops enroute may be filed provided the stop is in uncontrolled airspace.

Answer 19

intermediate stops may not be included in a single ifr flight itinerary.

AIM, RAC 3.9

Question 20

a super heavy aircraft has just departed under radar vectoring, you are next to take off from the same runway with an aircraft that weighs 100.000 kg. what radar separation will be provided by the controllers?

Answer 20

7 miles.

AIM, RAC 4.1.1

Question 21

You are landing at an airport where “land and hold short operations” are in use. atc gives you the following clearance: ’Alpha Bravo Charlie Delta cleared to land Runway 24. hold short of Runway 01. “you are not sure you can stop your aircraft without overrunning Runway 01. What should you do?

Answer 21

Tell the atc that you are unable to comply with this clearance because it is your responsibility to ensure that you will stop at a minimum of 200 feet from the runway edge being intersected.

AIM, RAC 4.4.9

Question 22

During an IFR flight under IFR flight plan, if your ETA for a reporting point changes by ____minutes or more, you should notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services.

Answer 22

3

AIM, RAC 8.1

Question 23

ATC should be advised of any TAS changes of more than____ % when enroute under an ifr flight plan.

Answer 23

5

AIM, RAC 8.2.2

Question 24

When conducting an IFR approach at an uncontrolled aerodrome, when are you required to make radio calls?

Answer 24

At least 5 minutes before starting the approach, when intending to conduct the procedure turn, when passing the final approach fix. when on final approach, in the event of a missed approach.

AIM, RAC 9.12

Question 25

You are flying a civil turbojet aeroplane at 295 kias. To perform a holding pattern at 15.000 feet ASL. you should:

Answer 25

Reduce your speed to 265 kias or less before entering the holding pattern and keep a speed of 265 kias or less when flying the hold.

AIM, RAC 10.7

Question 26

You are planning an ifr flight to an aerodrome where the barometric pressure is 31.23 inches of mercury. The approach you will perform at this aerodrome is the ils approach chat has a DH of 260 (200-3/4). Your altimeter does not allow you to sec the current altimeter setting. You should then correct the ceiling and visibility requirements to:

Answer 26

500-1 1/2

AIP, ENR 1.7

Question 27

The result of extending flaps is_____of the CL. ______ of the total airfoil camber, and _____ of the vso.

Answer 27

An increase; an increase; a decrease.

Question 28

Which of the following is true regarding wing fences?

They prevent airflow from drifting toward the ends of wings at high angles of attack.

They are mounted vertically on the upper wing.

They are placed approximately at the 2/3 of the swept wing from the wing root.

All of the above.

Answer 28

All of the above.

Question 29

What is the device that prevents the propeller of a direct drive turboprop engine from feathering?

Answer 29

The start locks.

Explanation

in a direct drive turboprop engine, the start lock is a device that prevents the propeller pitch from moving through the feather position.

Question 30

In a turbine engine, what is a hot start?

Answer 30

A start that happens with a normal engine rotation but with exhaust temperature that exceeds prescribed limits.

Explanation

Problems when starting a gas turbine engine:

A HUNG (or false) start is when the ignition is done correctly, but the RPM remain at a LOW value instead of increasing to the normal idle RPM. This can be caused by insufficient power to the engine from the starter or fuel control malfunction.

A HOT start occurs when the engine RPM are CORRECT, but the EXHAUST TEMPERATURE exceeds prescribed limits. This is usually caused by an excessively rich mixture in the combustion chamber or insufficient turbine RPM. in such conditions, fuel going to the engine must immediately be cut to prevent damage.

a hung start can occur at the same time as a hot start.

Question 31

What is the purpose of stators in an axial compressor?

Answer 31

It converts a part of the airflow speed in pressure.

it reduces the airflow rotating motion coming from the rotor.

it guides the airflow to the next stage with the right angle.

Explanation

in the axial compressor, the turbojet engine generally has a low pressure compressor and a high pressure compressor (characterized by different sizes and by their rotation speeds). Here, the compression rate is directly linked to the compressor speed rotation and to the number of stages it has. Such a compressor consists of a set of axial scages. each composed of a rotor and a stator. The rotor consists of a disk with fins on it. and rocates in front of the stator.

Each stage of rotor/stator has the same purpose: the rotor sucks and accelerates che airflow, deviating it from the engine axis, then the stator straightens the airflow in the axis and slows it down by converting part of the speed to pressure; the air is thus increasingly compressed as it passes through the stages, it therefore has less and less volume. This compressor, more efficient and with a smaller frontal area for a given air capacity than the centrifugal compressor, is used in most heavy turbojet aeroplanes.

Question 32

The EPR. used as a measurable indication of the thrust produced by a turbojet engine, is defined as the ratio:

Answer 32

Of total exhaust gas pressure to total pressure at the compressor inlet.

Explanation

Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is the total pressure ratio of a jet engine, measured as the ratio of the total pressure in the engine nozzle (behind the turbine) divided by the total pressure in the inlet seccion of the engine (in front of the compressor), in many gas turbine engines, the EPR (such as the N1. N2 and fuel flow), is used as the engine rating parameter, and as a measurable indication of the thrust chat the engine produces.

Question 33

An APU can be used:

1 - For air conditioning on the ground
2 - in case of engine failure in flight to maintain aircraft control
3 - To start the engines
4 - To provide electricity to the aircraft systems
5 - As anti-icing system on the ground

Answer 33

1, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Auxiliary Power unit (APU) is a device (generally a turbine generator) designed to power the various onboard systems of the aircraft (electrical voltage, pneumatic and hydraulic pressure, cooling, etc.) when the engines are stopped to save fuel, it may or may not be used in flight, apus are generally located at the rear of the aircraft (tail cone) and are powered by the kerosene of the aircraft tanks. They produce the energy (pneumatic, hydraulic or electrical) needed to start the engines.

Question 34

What will happen if. during a flight on an aircraft equipped with a constant speed hydromatic propeller, the oil pressure is lost?

Answer 34

The propeller goes to fine pitch.

Explanation

A hydromatic constant speed propeller is a hydraulic variable pitch propeller, it uses pressure differences that the oil exerts in the piston chamber, when the oil enters at high pressure in the dome, it moves the piston aft. causing the rotation of the blades to the coarse pitch, when the oil coming in the piston chamber is at the engine pressure, the blades place themselves on the fine pitch. An engine equipped with this type of propeller should be started when blades are on fine pitch in order to reduce che load placed on the propeller.

in case of oil pressure loss in flight, the propeller automatically feathers to fine pitch. The engine can improve the performances as long as it is rotating.

Question 35

Whac is a busbar in an aircraft?

Answer 35

A device allowing electrical circuics to be separated but interconnected to isolate main circuits or to feed chem with different sources in case of a component failure.

Explanation

A busbar is a brass or aluminum conductor that conducts electricity from the generator or the alternator to a distribution board.

Each electrical device (navigation lights, radio, etc.) is attached to the busbar through a circuit breaker or fuse.
The busbar allows electrical circuits to be separated but interconnected to isolate main circuits or to feed them with different sources in case of a component failure.

Question 36

Generally, in the pneumatic system of an aeroplane, the pressurized air comes from:

Answer 36

The high-pressure compressor.

usually, in a jet or turboprop aeroplane pneumatic system:

• air is taken in the high pressure compressor
• the pneumatic collector receives the a:r and releases it to different systems (air conditioning, pressurization, anti-ice systems, thrust reversers. etc.)
• the pressure between the compressor and the collector is controlled with valves
• the fan feeds an exchanger, which pre-cools the air of the compressor before it enters the collector; a fan air valve modulates the airflow to control the temperature To avoid overheating, ducts, collectors and anti-ice systems are monitored by heat and overspeed sensors. Overheat is avoided with a proper ventilation of the system.

Question 37

You are planning a flight at FL390 in an aeroplane that will be pressurized at a cabin pressure altitude of 8.000 feet, you take off from an airport that has an elevation of 1,569 feet. During the climb, you will have a groundspeed of 280 knots

and a rate of climb of 1,490 feet per minute. You will arrive at your cruise altitude at _____ nm from the departure airport, and the rate of climb required for your cabin to finish its pressurization when the aircraft arrives at its cruise altitude will be ______feet per minute.

Answer 37

117; 260.

Explanation

you can obtain the climb or descent time by dividing the height being between the altitude you are and the altitude you want to reach by the rate of climb or descent. Here: 37.431 feet at 1.490 feet per minute = 37.431 /1.490 = 25 minutes

To determine the distance when you know groundspeed and time, you can use che circular slide rule:

1 - Align groundspeed on the outer scale wich value 60 on the inner scale.

2 • Distance is che value on the outer scale that is aligned with time on the inner scale.

you can also use the following:

Distance = Time x speed

you can also use an electronic flight calculator.

Here, you have 116.7 NM.

you can determine the rate of climb or rate of descent by dividing the height between your altitude and the altitude you would like to reach by the time allowed.

Here: 6.431 feet in 25 minutes = 6.431 / 25 = 257,2 feet/minute.

Question 38

“EGPWS’ is used to designate:

Answer 38

An enhanced system alerting for ground proximity.

Explanation

A TAWS (Terrain Awareness and warning System) is an acronym from the Faa. it combines all the systems aimed at preventing CFiT (Controlled Flight into Terrain) accidents. The GPWS (Ground Proximity warning System) and the EGPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity warning System) are included in the TAWS.

Question 39

Which of the following airspeeds is defined as the airspeed that an aircraft should fly at sea level in the international Standard Atmosphere in order to have the same aerodynamic effects that it has at its altitude of flight?

Answer 39

EAS.

Explanation

Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is the airspeed that an aircraft should fly at sea level in the international Standard Atmosphere in order to have the same dynamic pressure, and so the same aerodynamic effects that it has at its altitude of flight, it allows one to know the airspeed that an aircraft should fly at sea level to have the same aerodynamic effects at an altitude where density is lower. This speed can be determined by applying a compressibility correction to the CAS.

in a low-speed flight, an airspeed indicator that has no error would indicate this speed.

Question 40

An aeroplane is flying at FL350 with a calibrated airspeed of 300 knots. The indicated outside temperature is -15ºC. what is the static air temperature?

Answer 40

-49ºC

Explanation

Around a flying aircraft air friction and compressibility cause an increase of air temperature (ram rise). The total air temperature (TAT) provided by the aircraft’s temperature probe is higher than the true outside air temperature (or ambient temperature, or sat [Static Air Temperature]), which is the temperature of undisturbed air.

Below/ 200 knots, the increase in temperature is minimal. However, above this speed, a correction must be applied to the temperature in order to find out the SAT. in most aircraft flying above 200 knots, this correction is made by the air-data computer.

To answer this question with precision, use an electronic flight calculator.

Question 41

The angle of attack indicator is an instrument that:

Answer 41

Allows flying an aircraft close to its critical angle of attack.

Explanation

The angle of attack indicator is an instrument that measures the angle of attack and provides a continuous read-out of the margin above the stall, despite aircraft weight centre of gravity location, angle of bank or any of the other factors that affect the indicated stall speed. The pilot can fly close to the critical angle of attack with greater precision.

This instrument is very useful during takeoff and landing operations on short surfaces.

Question 42

In a piston engine, with the force-feed method of lubrication, the oil ____ while with the SPLASH method the oil.

Answer 42

Flows through the hallow crankshaft; is contained in a reservoir under the engine in which the crankshaft goes.

Explanation
Engine lubrication can be done by the force-feed method or the splash method, in the force-feed system, a pressure pump is responsible for sending oil under pressure into the hollow crankshaft to lubricate the main and big-end bearing. The oil is then sprayed as a fine mist that lubricates the other parts of the engine. With the splash method, the oil is contained in a sump located at the base of the engine. The revolving crankshaft beats the oil and splashes the other parts of the engine.

Question 43

The torque motor of the gyromagnetic remote-indicating compass gets the correction information from the:

Answer 43

Amplifier

Explanation

a gyromagnetic remote indicating compass (or slaved gyro compass) is an instrument developed in order to compensate for the errors and limitations of conventional heading indicators (free gyro [that needs periodic adjustment]). The panel components of a typical system visible from the cockpit are usually an HSI and the slaving control and compensator unit.

The flight crew can choose either the “slaved gyro” or ‘free gyro” mode (the compass card may be adjusted manually).

The magnetic slaving transmitter is a detector unit mounted remotely from the rest of the system (generally on a wingap or at the fin”s top) to eliminate the magnetic interference from che aircraft, it is connected electrically to the HSI. it contains a device that senses the magnetic north: the “flux valve” (supplied with an alternative current). The error between the magnetic north and the heading displayed, after being amplified, becomes a signal relayed to the heading indicator unit in the cockpit. This signal drives a torque motor in the heading indicator unit that precesses the directional gyro unit until it is aligned with the transmitted signal.

Question 44

Whac is the purpose of the kerosene fluid in the compass chamber?

To lubricate che pivot point.

To decrease the compass weight of the card.

To damp out oscillations of the card.

All of the above.

Answer 44

All of the above.

Explanation

Wtien observing a magnetic compass, you notice that the compass card is in a liquid, it can either be alcohol or white kerosene, it allows the system oscillations caused by turbulence to be dampened, to diminish the compass card and magnets carried by the pivot weight, and to lubricate the pivot point.

Question 45

What is the maximum altitude at which you can use an enroute low altitude chart?

Answer 45

17.909 feet. OR below 18000ASL

AIP, GEN 3.2.4.7

Question 46

which of the following is/are true regarding the navigation database of the fms?

it contains all the elements necessary to prepare a flight plan.

it is normally updated every 28 days, before the flight.

Some elements can be entered in the database by command of atc or at pilot’s discretion.

All of the above.

Answer 46

All of the above.

Explanation

The navigation database (NDB) in the FMS contains the elements needed to prepare a flight plan. These elements include:

• Airways
• Waypoints and intersections
• Airports
  • Runways at the airports
• Standard terminal arrival (STAR) and standard instrument departure (SID)
• Navigation radio database
• instrument approach procedure (IAP)
• Holding patterns
• Radio navigation aids
  • Etc.

Some can be entered in the database on demand of atc or at a pik>t”s discretion.

The navigation database is usually updated on the ground every 28 days.

Question 47

An aeroplane is flying ac FL350 with a true airspeed of 510 knots. The indicated outside temperature is ISA +6ºC. Whac is the Mach number of this aeroplane?

Answer 47

0.873

Explanation

To determine che Mach number (M) when knowing the outside air temperature (T) and the TAS. first determine the local speed of sound (LSS). use the following formula: LSS (in knots) = 39 x % T (in kelvins)

in isa condition, the temperature at FL350 is: 15 - 35 x 2 = -55°C. you can also use an electronic flight calculator.

Here. OAT IS ISA -6.1.e..: -55 - 6 = -49*0.

For the conversion between keMn and Celsius temperatures, use the following formula:

Tk = Tc-273.15

Here: Tk = 273.15 - 49 = 224.15 K SO: LSS = 39 X % 224.15 = 583.89 ktS

Now. to determine the Mach number, use the following formula:

M = TAS / LSS

Here: M = 510 / 583.89 = 0.873

you can also use your electronic flight calculator.

Question 48

A waypoints is:

Answer 48

A geographical location defined by degrees of latitude and longitude.

Explanation

AIM GEN 5.1: waypoint (WP): A specified geographical location, defined by longitude and latitude, that is used in the definition of routes and terminal segmencs and for progress-reporting purposes. © Her Majesty the Queen in Right of Canada, represented by the Minister of Transport (2021). This information has been reproduced with the permission of Transport Canada.

Question 49

what is “V1*?

Answer 49

The critical engine failure recognition speed.

AIM, GEN 1.7

Question 50

Which of the following airspeeds makes it possible, after an aeroplane rotation, to reach the required climb performances in case of one engine failure?

Answer 50

V2

Explanation

The takeoff safety speed (V2) is the minimum speed at which a pilot is allowed to climb after he/she has reached a height of 10.7 metres (35 feet) above the takeoff surface in order to maintain the minimum climb gradient specified in case of takeoff with one inoperative engine. V2 is equal to or greater chan 20% more than the stall speed in takeoff configuration, and 10% more than the minimum control airspeed.

Question 51

What is associated with the increase of wind shear performances (positive wind shear)?

Answer 51

With an increase of the headwind and a decrease of che tailwind.

Explanation
a positive wind shear is a headwind speed increasing or a tailwind speed decreasing, in such a case, the aircraft inertia leads to a delay of seconds before the aircraft reaccs to this change. During this time, the aircraft airspeed increases, if the increase occurs during approach, airspeed will suddenly be greater, uft will be greater as well, and rate of descent lower. You should therefore decrease power.

Question 52

if you arrive over your threshold with too high airspeed, what should you do?

Answer 52

Land the aircraft as soon as possible and apply maximum braking.

Explanation
When arriving over the threshold with too high a speed, land the aircraft as soon as possible then apply maximum braking, without blocking the wheels. The aerodynamic braking devices will help you slow down the aircraft, if you have any doubt do not hesitate to go around.

Question 53

Regarding the information below, determine the maximum payload that can be carried:

• Maximum weight - zero fuel: 15.000 lbs
• Maximum ramp weight: 19.000 lbs
• Maximum takeoff weight: 18.800 lbs
• Maximum landing weights 16.400 lbs
• Operational empty weight: 12.600 lbs
• Fuel carried: 5.400 lbs
• Ground fuel burn (until takeoff): 300 lbs
• Flight fuel burn: 1.500 lbs

Answer 53

200 lbs

Explanation

The Maximum Payload is the maximum weight of passengers, baggage, cargo, etc., that can be carried once the crew members and fuel have been deducted from the useful Load.

The useful Load is the difference between the Gross Takeoff Weight and the Basic Empty weight.

The Operational Empty weight represents the Basic Empty weight plus the crew members’ weights. The Payload and the Fuel usable are not included.

Here, to calculate the Maximum Takeoff Payload, you must add the Operational Empty weight and the fuel carried. Now. subtract the result from the Maximum Takeoff weight, you get 800 lbs. However, you should not exceed the Maximum Landing weight.

At takeoff, the aircraft weights: 12600 + 5.400 - 300 = 17.700 lbs.

At landing, it weights: 17.700 -1.500 = 16.200 lbs.

By adding 800 lbs of Payload, the aircraft will land with a weight of: 16.200 - 800 = 17.000 lbs. This weight exceeds the Maximum Landing weight by 600 lbs.

The maximum Payload that can be earned is therefore: 16.400 -16.200 = 200 lbs.

Caution: the result of payload and operational empty weight should never exceed the maximum - zero fuel weight.

Question 54

Refer to image 1 in the Appendix.

According to the conditions below, determine V1. Vr and V2:

• Temperature at the airport: 20SC
• Elevation: 2.300 feet
• Altimeter setting: 28.12 inches of mercury
• Aircraft gross weight: 14.000 lbs
• Headwind: 10 knots
• Runway Gradient: 0%
• Anti-skip system: ON
• Anti-ice system: OFF

Answer 54

V1 = 97 kts: vr = 108 kts; V2= 119 kts.

To use this speed graph, use the altitude pressure at the airport.

Here, it is 4.000 feet.

Draw a straight vertical line from the temperature (in eq on the inferior index. From the intersection point between the straight line and the curve standing for the pressure altitude (in feet), draw a scraight horizontal line to the graph end.

For vi: draw a straight vertical line from the intersection point between the aircraft weight (in pounds) at V1 and the horizontal line earlier drew to the anti-ice system first bold line, if the system is ON. follow the descending line until the second bold line, if the system is OFF. draw a line directly to the “Wind Baseline”. Draw a straight horizontal line from the wind strength value (in knots) on the left index. From the “Wind Baseline1, follow the curve (downward in case of headwind and upward in case of tailwind) to the horizontal line you just drew. From the intersection point, draw a scraight vertical line to the “Slope Baseline”. Draw a straight horizontal line from the gradient percent value (in %) on the left index. From the “Slope Baseline1, follow the curve (downward in case of uphill runway and upward in case of downhill runway) to the vertical line you just drew. From the intersection point, draw a scraight vertical line to the V1 value (in knots).

By following this procedure, you end up on the Vi index on the ‘97 knots’.

• For vr: from the intersection point between the first straight horizontal line you drew and the straight vertical line standing for the aircraft weight (in pounds) at vr. draw a straight vertical line until the vr value.

By following this procedure, you end up on the vr index on the “108 knots’.

• For VZ from the intersection point between the first straight horizontal line you drew and the straight vertical line standing for the aircraft weight (in pounds) at vz draw a straight vertical line until the V2 value.

By following this procedure, you end up on the V2 index on the ‘119 knots”.

Question 55

Refer to image 2 in the Appendix.

According to the following information, determine the required fuel and the trip time:

• Trip distance: 3.500 NM
• Flight level: FL350
• Headwind: 75 kts
• Temperature: 5=C above standard
• Landing weight: 575.000 lbs

Answer 55

205.000 pounds; 3 hours 57 minutes.

Explanation

First, find che wind outlined on che wind index (on the bottom left): draw a straight horizontal line to che right. Now. find the trip discance on the inferior index of the graph. From this distance, draw a scraighc vercical line to che wind reference line. From the reference line, follow the wind curve (downward if it is a tailwind and upward if it is a headwind) to the scraighc horizontal line drawn previously. From the intersection point, draw a straight vertical line up to the top of che graph.

The fuel required will be determined with the intersection point between the straight vertical line drawn earlier and the first curve representing the flight pressure altitude. From this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line to the right to the landing weight reference line. On the inferior index of the landing weight, draw a straight vertical line upward beginning at the estimated landing weight. From che previous intersection point, draw a line chat follows the weight curve to che straight vertical line that you just drew. Now. from this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line up to the right index. Here, you can read the fuel required in these conditions.

The trip time will be determined with the intersection point berween the scraighc vercical line drawn in che pre/ious step and the second curve standing for the flight pressure altitude. From this intersection point, draw a straight honzoncal line from the left to the temperacure reference line. On the inferior index of the temperature, draw a scraighc vertical line upward beginning at the temperature outlined. From the intersection point of the previous step, draw a line that follows the temperature cun/e to che straight vertical line chat you just drew. Nov/, from this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line to che left index. Here, you can read che trip time in these conditions.

Question 56

when shuttling in a holding pattern at 12.500 feet, the length of a leg should be_____ and is based on the_____

Answer 56

1 minute; inbound leg.

AIM, RAC 10.6
AIM, RAC 10.9

Question 57

Refer to image 3 in the Appendix.

you are planning to land at an airport where CRFi is 0.3 and winds are 280ºM. what is the maximum wind speed you could accept if you want to land on Runway 24?

Answer 57

15 knots.

in this question, you have to determine the maximum wind speed for a CRFI of 0.3.

you have to draw a straight vertical line from the CFRI indicated, then identify the intersection point between this line and the line standing for then the angle between the runway and che wind direction (40°). This intersection point show you the maximum wind speed to determine: 15 knots.

you can also determine che crosswind and headwind components: 10 and 12 knots.

AIM. AIR 1.6.7: Refer to example in the AIM:

This chart provides information for calculating headwind and crosswind components. The vertical lines indicate che recommended maximum crosswind component for reported CRFi.

Example:

CYOW CRFI 07/25 -4C . 30 1201191200

Tower wind H0s20kt

The wind is 40° off che runway heading and produces a headwind component of I5 kc and a crosswind component of 13 kt. The recommended minimum CRFi for a 13-kt crosswind component is .35. A takeoff or landing with a CRFI of 0.3 could result in an uncontrollable drifting and yawing.

Question 58

Refer to image 4 in the Appendix.

According to the information below, determine the recommended landing distance with reverse thrust:

• Aircraft type: Turboprop
• Runway: 25 at CYOW
• Wind: Nil
• Landing field length on bare and dry runway: 4.000 feet
• Current CRFI: CYOW CRFI RWY 07/25 - 4C .30 1201191200

Answer 58

5.410 feet.

Explanation

The answer is the intersection between the given CRFI (0.30. on che top of the table) and the given Landing Field Length (4.000 feet) for a turboprop aircraft (70% factor, on the right of the table [refer to the paragraph 4 below]): 5.410 feet.

aim. air 1.6.7:1. The recommended landing distances in Table 2 are based on a 95 percent level of confidence. A 95 percent level of confidence means that in more than 19 landings out of 20. the stated distance in Table 2 will be conservative for properly executed landings with all systems serviceable on runway surfaces with the reported CRFI.

2 The recommended landing distances in Table 2 take into account the reduction in landing distances obtained with the use of discing and/or reverse thrust capability for a turboprop-powered aeroplane and with the use of reverse thrust for a turbojet-powered aeroplane. Table 2 is based on the landing distances recommended in Table 1 with additional calculations that give credit for discing and/or reverse thrust. Representative low values of discing and/or reverse thrust effect have been assumed, hence the data will be conservative for properly executed landings by some aeroplanes with highly effective discing and/or thrust reversing systems.

3. The recommended landing distances in CRFI Table 2 are based on standard pilot techniques for the minimum distance landings from 50 ft. including a stabilized approach at VRef using a glide slope of 3° to 50 ft or lower, a firm touchdown, minimum delay to nose lowering minimum delay time to deployment of ground lift dump devices and application of brakes and discing and/or reverse thrust, and sustained maximum antiskid braking until stopped, in Table 2 the air distance from the screen height of 50 ft to touchdown and che delay distance from touchdown to the application of full braking remain unchanged from Table 1. The effects of discing/reverse thrust were used only to reduce the stopping distance from the application of full braking to a complete stop.
4. Landing field length is the landing distance divided by 0.6 (turbojets) or 0.7 (turboprops), if the AFM expresses landing performance in terms of landing distance, ent

Question 59

You are descending from an altitude where the temperature was -20ºC to land at an airport where temperature is positive and close to the dew point, you can expect:

Answer 59

ice to form on wings.

AIM, AIR 2.12.2 (e)

Question 60

To de-ice an aircraft, it is possible to use fluids that reduce the freezing point (FPD). such as ethylene glycol or propylene glycol, which of the following is true regarding FDP fluids?

Answer 60

Type Ill fluids have properties that lie between Type i and Type ii fluids.

Explanation

aim. AIR 2.12.2: Type ill Fluids: Type ill is a chickened freezing point depressant fluid which has properties that lie between Types i and n. Therefore, it provides a longer holdover time than Type i. but less than Type ll. its shearing and flow-off characteristics are designed for aircraft chat have a shorter time to the rotation point. Tills should make it acceptable for some aircraft that have a vr of less than 100 KiAS.

Question 61

After applying freezing point depressant fluid, the pilot notice that all the ice is not melted. What should he/she do?

Answer 61

Apply more freezing point depressant fluids until the fluid penetrates to the aircraft surface.

AIM, AIR 2.12.2

Question 62

who is responsible for the pre-flight inspection, just before takeoff, aiming to ensure that no form of ice. frosc or snow is present on critical surfaces of an aircraft?

1 - An AME

2 - A crew member designated by the PIC in order to perform this inspection

3 - The pllot-in-command

4 - a person who has completed the contamination of critical surfaces training and designated by the user of the aircraft

5 - The manager of operations

6 - The de-icing crew

Answer 62

2, 3 and 4

CAR 602.11:(4)

Question 63

Volcanic ashes are reported in:

Analysis of satellite imagery and/or ash cloud trajectory forecasts.

PiREPsand SiGWETs.

NOTAMS.

All of the above.

Answer 63

All of the above.

AIM, AIR 2.6

Question 64

To avoid the tailplane stalling in icing conditions, you should avoid:

Answer 64

Exceed tailplane critical angle of attack by pushing abruptly on the control column.

AIM, AIR 2.12.3.4

Question 65

Refer to image 5 in the Appendix.

Consider a flight at FL300 (pressure altitude) in an aircraft that has a current gross weight of 80,000 pounds when it enters a turbulence area causing it to experience a load factor of 1 5g. The aircraft low-speed buffet boundary will _____ and its high-speed buffet boundary will_____.

Answer 65

increase; decrease.

Explanation

To answer this question, first determine the intersection point between the load factor expenenced by the aircraft and the gross weight on the left part of the graph.

Here, draw a straight vertical line from 1,5g to the curve standing for the aeroplane gross weight 80.000 pounds. From this intersection point, draw a straight horizontal line to the right, to the graph end. This straight line intersects the curve standing for the aeroplane pressure altitude (30.000 feet) at two different points: the low speed buffeting point and the high speed buffeting point with a load factor of 1.5g.

Then, do the same thing without any turbulence (i.Og). You can see that the low speed buffet boundary is lower and the high speed buffet boundary is higher than with the turbulences.

Each aeroplane has a low-speed buffet boundary and a high-speed buffet boundary, in both cases, the boundary is associated with the airflow separation from the wing.

The low-speed buffet boundary depends on the angle of attack: buffet will appear when approaching the stall.

The high-speed buffet boundary is imposed by the shock wave that appears on the upper surface of a wing moving at a certain speed: it depends on the angle of attack and on the true airspeed of the aircraft.

By observing a buffet onset boundary graph, you can see that the speed of the high-speed boundary decreases when the aircraft’s weight increases, when its load factor increases, when its bank angle increases or when its flight altitude increases.

Question 66

The maximum range of an aircraft operating with a piston engine that runs a fixed pitch propeller is greater at high altitude than at low altitude because:

Answer 66

Engine runs more efficiently.

Explanation

Flight Training Manual, Exercise 10 ‘Right for Range and Endurance:

Engine Efficiency: At low altitude, the engine power output is controlled with the venturi in the carburetor partially closed by the throttle valve to avoid exceeding the recommended power settings. Restricting the flow of the fuel/air mixture to the engine in this manner causes it to run less efficiently than when the throttle valve is fully open.

Question 67

Ground effect is strongest on an aircraft with ____ wings and a _____ wingspan.

Answer 67

Lower; large.

Explanation

Ground effect occurs near the ground, whereas induced drag, resulting from wing lift, is limited, usually, the light aircraft wing span is approximately 35 feet. From takeoff to approximately 4 feet, the induced drag is approximately 48% lower than the induced drag at a cruising altitude. At 18 feet the drag is only reduced by 8%. The ground effect totally disappears and the induced drag is total when the aircraft reaches an altitude equal to the wing span.

Low-wing aircraft, whose wings are closer to the ground than high-wing aircraft will be more affected by ground effect.

Question 68

A shock wave that forms on the upper surface of a wing causes:

1	- a temperature increase
2	- a density decrease
3	- A pressure increase
4	- a lift decrease
5	- a drag decrease
6	- Buffets on the elevator
7	- a violent and dangerous stall

Answer 68

1,3,4 and 6

Explanation

when looking at the subsonic movement of a wing through the air. you can see chat the air splits in two parts (one going on the upper surface of the wing, and the ocher going on the lower surface) before it reaches the wing’s leading edge, we use to say that the wing has announced its arrival to the gas particles: this “communication” is made at the speed of sound.

as the wing accelerates to che speed of sound, the distance between the wing”s leading edge and the air split gets smaller until the distance is zero because the wing has reached che local speed of sound. At this moment, the gas particles are not “notified • of the wing’s arrival: the air split is made directly during the impact of the wing with the air. This collision causes an increase of the air temperature, pressure and density, a shock wave is created on the wing’s leading edge (the leading edge has reached its critical Mach number). The shock wave spreads on the beginning of the wing’s upper surface, where the airflow is moving at a speed greater or equal than the local speed of sound. Behind the shock wave, on the remaining wing upper surface, the airflow speed is below the local speed of sound and the air becomes turbulent. This turbulence spreads rearward, on the upper surface of the wing and on the horizontal stabilizer, causing buffets on che ailerons and on the elevator.

Question 69

The shock wave associated with high-speed flights will first appear near the ____ of a sweepback wing, causing a_____ movement of the aeroplane.

Answer 69

Root pitch-down.

Explanation
On a sweepback wing, the first part on which the shock wave associated with high-speed flights will appear is the part near the wing root. The centre of pressure will then move rearward, causing the aeroplane nose to pitch down.

Question 70

The wing tip stall can be controlled by:

Answer 70

Washout Krueger flap, leading edge flap.

Explanation

When an aeroplane is made, the wings are twisted so that the angle of incidence at the wing tip is lower than the angle at the wing root. This is called wash-out (or wash-in) and enables wings to stall more abruptly because the wing near the root stalls before the wing op. Ailerons, being wing op. stay efficient while a part of the wing is already stalled.

When leading edge flaps are dropped, the wing camber increases. The wing then has a higher lift coefficient at big angles of attack and weaker airspeed. Krueger flaps do essentially the same job.

Question 71

In standard conditions, when descending at a constant CAS. the Mach number _____and the local speed of sound _____

Answer 71

Decreases; increases.

Explanation

in the following formula, you can see that TAS. Mach number and temperature depend on each other: TAS = 39 x M % T

For example, if the temperature decreases (this is what happens during a climb in the ISA), the tas decreases too. Or if the temperature decreases but the Mach number increases, the TAS may keep the same value. Easy methods to know which speeds decrease or increase based on the current conditions are:

• During a climb with a decreasing temperature: (-ECTM-)

With: E = EAS; C = CAS; T = TAS: M = Mach

if one speed is consistent, the left speed(s) are decreasing and the right speed(s) are increasing.

• During a climb with an increasing temperature (in case of inversion): (-ECMT-)
• During a climb with a constant temperature (in case of isothermal layer): in this case. Mach ant tas will do the same.
• During a descent, you just have to reverse and -: (-ECTM-)

in the following formula, you can see that the local speed of sound (LSS) and the temperature depend on each other: lss = 39 x ^ t For exemple. if the temperature decreases (it is what happens during a climb in IAS), che LSS decreases too.

Question 72

What is the approximate angle of bank for a race one turn at 80 mph?

Answer 72

13º

Explanation

in a standard race of turn (or rate 1 turn), shown by the turn and slip indicator or by a turn coordinator, the aircraft turns 360® in 2 minutes, i.e..: - 3® per second, or;

• 30° each 10 seconds, or;

-180® in a minute.

you can calculate a rate 1 turn bank at a given airspeed with che following formulas:

Airspeed in knots: Bank = v x 10% + 7 Airspeed in miles per hour: Bank = v x 10% + 5

Here, the bank is: 80 x 10% + 5 = 13º

Question 73

During a high-altitude flight, one of your passengers shows symptoms similar to both those of hypoxia and hyperventilation, as you are unable to determine which, what should you do?

Answer 73

Treat the passenger for hypoxia first.

AIM, AIR 3.2.3

Question 74

Rain on the windshield will cause the illusion of being:

Answer 74

Objects may seem lower and closer than they really are, therefore giving the impression to the pilot that he/she is Higher and closer to the runway.

AIM, AIR 2.5

Question 75

Which of the following may lead to jet lag?

Disrupting the circadian rhythm.

Remaining seated for long periods.

Taking meals at unaccustomed times.

All of the above.

Answer 75

All of the above.

TP 12864E CHAPTER 4

Question 76

Which of the following is true regarding carbon monoxide?

Answer 76

it is colourless, odourless and tasteless.

AIM, AIR 3.2.2

Question 77

During a training flight with a student, an instructor temporarily disables an alarm by pulling the circuit breaker, what is the risk associated with this action?

Answer 77

The pilot forgets to reset the alarm: the alarm will not warn the pilot in case of real emergency.

TP12864E CHAPTER 3

Question 78

Whac will likely be the result of a pilot’s seat that is adjusted to a height that is too low?

Answer 78

An undershoot during the visual approach.

TP 12864E Chapter 1: Case History: The Moosonee flight

Question 79

in the cockpit, a good teamwork of crew members is indicated by that fact that:

All crew members are involved in the decision-making process.

Crev/ members help one another in times of operational stress.

The captain is secure in the knowledge of that aircraft’s charge and maintains firm but respectful control.

All of the above.

Answer 79

All of the above.

Explanation
TP 12864E - Human Factors For Aviation - Advanced Handbook => Chapter 5: Crew Resource Management (CRM) - Teamwork:

Question 80

The acronym CFIT is used to designate:

Answer 80

A crash of an aeroplane without loss of control of the pilots.

Explanation

A TAWS (Terrain Awareness and warning System) is an acronym from the Faa. it combines all the systems aimed at preventing cfit (Controlled Flight into Terrain) accidents. The GPWS (Ground Proximity warning System) and the EGPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity warning System) are included in the TAWS.