Topic 8 - Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Vasopressin is released from where

A

Posterior Pituitary lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Common myeloid + lymphoid progenitor
multipotential haemopoietic stem cell
megakaryocyte

can be found where?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

serum =

A

Plasma - clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plasma =

A

Serum + clotting factors + clotting inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of antigen is Rhesus

A

Ion channel antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of Rhesus expression is common?

A

Rh+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for rhesus

A

Anti-Rh Y globin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PC / PS / AT inhibitor deficiences leads to what?

A

Hypercoagulability = thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Burkitts lymphoma is translocation of what

what chromosome numbers?

A

c-MYC with IgH

8 –> 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HTLV-1 is found in what cancer?

A

Leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Leukaemia has what accumulation?

A

WBC caused by BM failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma is characterised by what type of cells?

What are their structures?
What do they originate from?

A

Reed Sternberg Cells

Bilobed/multinucleated

Originates from B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bleeding peptic ulcer + normocytic anaemia can results in what sort of erythrocyte loss? What can this lead to?

A

Chronic Erythrocyte loss

Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

EPO causes the transition of what?

A

CFU –> BFU-E = RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What cell releases EPO

A

Interstitial fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 4 things that stimulates Erythropoiesis

A

Androgens
Thyroxine
Growth hormone
Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Thpo stimulates what formation

A

CFU = Megakaryocytes = platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IDA can lead to what sort of anaemia?

A

Microcytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anisocytosis =

Pokiliocytosis +

A

variation in size

variation in shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Megaloblastic anaemia is a result from what?

What does it lead to

A

Deficiency in B12 / folate

Macrocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Life span of Haemolytic anaemia RBC

A

20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Immune induced HA (3)

A

Haemolytic syndrome of newborn

Autoantibodies

complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mutation in sickle cell is caused by what mutation?

A

Hb b globin mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is produced in sickle cell?

how does this distort RBC

A

glu –> Valine

Polymerisation of Hb = distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Defects in a/b chains lead to what?

A

Thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What sort of anaemia is present with Thalassaemia

A

microcytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Primary response of haemostatic strategies include what (3)

A

Platelets // Endothelial // Fibriniogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Secondary response of haemostatic strategies include what (3)

A

circulating enzymes // Platelet // fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

life span of platelets

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What sort of granule types are present in platelets

A

Dense

alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name the adhesion changing shape of platelet order

A

Disc shape
Rolling ball
Hemisphere shape
spreading platelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which shape leads to reversible adhesion?

A

Firm - Hemisphere shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which shape leads to irreverisble adhesion?

A

Spreading platelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dense granules contain what (4)

A

ADP / ATP / Serotonin / Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Alpha graunles contain what (4)

A

Platelet Factor 4 (hep.antago)

PAI-1 (plasminogen activator inhibitor)

Platelet GF

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the role of dense granules

A

Promotes aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the role of alpha granules

A

Help coagulation + wound healing

38
Q

name 4 stimuli for platelet adhesion + aggregation

A

ADP

Adrenaline

Thromboxane A2

Fibrinogen

39
Q

name 4 negative simuli agonists against platelet activation etc.

A

Adenosine

NO

PECAM-1

Prostacyclin-1

40
Q

a2b1 receptor is involved with adhesion of platlets found on what?

A

collagen

41
Q

Gp1b-IX-V is found on what factor?

A

Von Willebrand Factor

42
Q

GpV1 is responsible for what?

Where is it found

A

Platelet activation

Collagen

43
Q

PAR1 / 4 is found on what?

What is it involved with?

A

Thrombin

Platelet activation

44
Q

P2y1 // P2y12 is found on what?

What is it involved with?

A

ADP

Platelet activation

45
Q

Platelet aggregation involves the receptor GPIIb/IIIa

where is it found on ?

A

Fibrinogen

46
Q

Tissue factor can be found on what type of cells? (2)

What sort of protein is it?

A

Transmembrane protein

Perivascular cells - Fibroblasts /SM

47
Q

The intrinsic pathway can be initiated by what sort of things? (4)

A

Negative charged items

Glass / collagen / polyphosphates / missfolded proteins

48
Q

The extrinsic pathway is activated by what?

A

Tissue factor exposed to blood

49
Q

What 3 complexes are vit K complexes?

A

7a + TF

9a + 8a

10a + 5a

50
Q

what factor is activated by thrombin?

What is it involved with

A

13a

stabilises fibrin network
increasing resistance to fibrinolysis

51
Q

DIC originates typically where?

A

Microvasculature

52
Q

Vitamin K is the precursor to what? (6)

A

Factor 2/7/9/10

Factors C + S

53
Q

What does vitamin K lead to

A

More effective binding of Ca2+ to phospholipid on platelet surface

54
Q

Warfarin inhibits what enzyme?

A

Epoxide reductase

55
Q

What type of AB bind to phospholipid sites on clotting factors?

A

Lupus Anticoagulants

56
Q

Thrombocytopenia involves what?

A

Loss / dysfunction of platelets

57
Q

name 4 causes of thrombocytopenia

A

Leukaemia

Blood loss

DIC

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

58
Q

Platelet - vessel interaction can be affected by what 2 syndromes?

A

Von WIllebrand syndrome

Bernard Soulier Syndrome

59
Q

Platelet - Platelet interaction can be affected by what 2 things?

A

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

Congenital Alibrinogenemia

60
Q

Platelet - Granule secretion /signal transduction can be affected by what syndrome

A

Wiskott - Aldrich Syndrome

61
Q

Haemophilia is what type of mutation?

A

X-linked recessive

62
Q

Haemohpilia leads to what?

A

Insufficient thrombin generation

63
Q

if Factor 8 is affected, what type of haemophillia is present?

A

Type A

64
Q

If factor 9 is affected, what type of haemophilia is present?

A

Type B

65
Q

With male / female ratio, who is affected?

A

Males affected

females are carriers

66
Q

What 2 symptoms arise from haemophilia

A

Joint bleeding - Hemarthrosis

Muscle haemorrhages

67
Q

What treatment is done for haemophillia?

A

Replace factor thats absent via plasma transfusion

68
Q

APTT =

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

69
Q

What affects clotting times?

A

Missing factors in coagulation pathway

70
Q

Arterial Thrombosis can lead to what in the leg?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

71
Q

Venous thrombosis can lead to what in the lungs?

A

Pulmonary embolism

72
Q

thrombosis is made of what 3 things in Virchow’s Triad

A

Stasis

Vessel wall injury

Hypercoagulability

73
Q

what is rich in an arterial thrombus?

A

Platelets

74
Q

What is rich in a venous thrombus?

A

RBC / Fibrin

75
Q

What is the difference between Mural Thrombi and Occlusive Thrombi

A

Occlusive blocks vessel = MI

Mural = Unstable angina

76
Q

NO + PGI2 role

A

Inhibits platelet activation

77
Q

In thrombosis, platelets bind to what (2)

What has reduced availability that leads to occlusive thrombi?

A

Collagen + Oxidised lipids

Reduced NO/PGI2

78
Q

TxA2 is released from what?

What does it derive from?

A

Platelets

Arachidonic acid

79
Q

Thrombin is generated on what?

A

Platelet surfaces

80
Q

Oxidised lipids promote what?

A

Secondary agonists

81
Q

Aspirin inhibits what (2)

A

COX-1

Thromboxane production

82
Q

Abciximab + Tirofiban bind to what receptors found on what?

A

Fibrinogen + vWF

83
Q

Clopidogrel + Ticagrelor + Prasugrel are anti P2Y which is a receptor for what?

A

ADP

84
Q

Fibrinolytics are what derivitives?

What do they activate?

A

Plasminogen activator

Dissolves blood clots by creating plasmin

85
Q

Factor V leiden mutation + deficiencies in coagulation inhibitors are risk factors for what?

A

Venous Thrombosis

86
Q

Circulatory stasis can be caused by what?

A

Loss of laminar flow around valve gaps

87
Q

Exposure of TF can be done via what dysfunction leading to venous thrombosis

A

Endothelial dysfunction

88
Q

Unfractionated Heparin + low molecular weight heparin are treatments for venous thrombosis. How do they work?

A

Helps anti-thrombin inhibit Thrombin + 10a

leads to no fibrin formation

89
Q

VKA reduce action of what?

A

Vitamin K

90
Q

Dabigatran is what sort of inhibitor

A

Direct Thrombin Inhibitor