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IMS > Topic 13 Muscles + Nerves > Flashcards

Topic 13 Muscles + Nerves Flashcards

1
Q

Multipolar neurone (2)

A

Single long axon

Many dendrites

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2
Q

Unipolar neurone

A

Sensory ganglia

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3
Q

Bipolar neurone

A

Retina

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4
Q

White matter Structure

A

Axons Carry information to/fro brain

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5
Q

Grey matter role

A

cell bodies in sensory / motor nuclei

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6
Q

what stain is used for myelin

A

Weigert

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7
Q

White matter stains what colour and why

A

Dark - a lot of myelin

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8
Q

Grey matter stains what colour and why

A

Light - a lot of cell bodies

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9
Q

Ganglia contains what (2)

A

Ganglion cells + satellite cells

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10
Q

Sensory ganglia are what type of neurones

A

Afferent neurones

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11
Q

Autonomic ganglia are what type of neurones

A

efferent neurones

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12
Q

The epineurium covers what

A

whole nerve

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13
Q

A perineurium covers what

A

Fasicle

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14
Q

Endoneurium covers what

A

Individual nerve axons

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15
Q

A fasicle is what

A

bundle of nerve fibres

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16
Q

Epdendymal // oligodendrocytes // microglia // astrocytes // schwann cells / satellite cells

are all ranges of what

A

Neuroglia

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17
Q

function of neuroglia (3)

A

Regulate neurone metabolism

Regulate BBB

Destroy pathogens

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18
Q

Metabolic exchange between neurons + blood

Support framework

Restricts substance across BB barrier

Promotes Neurone growth

A

Astrocytes

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19
Q

Immune defence

Phagocytic

A

Microglia

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20
Q

Lines ventricles + central spinal canal

Produces CSF

Cilia on luminal side

A

Ependyma

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21
Q

Myelinate axons

Common in white matter

A

Oligodendrocytes

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22
Q

Two main types of peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

Satellite

Schwann

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23
Q

What cell type phagocytes dying nerve cells

A

Schwann

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24
Q

Myelination is done by what cell in the PNS

A

Schwann

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25
Q

Myelination is done by what cell in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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26
Q

Demyelinating myelinoclastic diseases are caused by what

A

Toxins // infection // chemicals

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27
Q

Demyelinating leukodystrophic is caused by what

A

Myelin abnormal

Genetics

Idiopathic

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28
Q

Somatic nervous system role

A

Innervates + controls voluntary + striated muscles

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29
Q

sympathetic postganglionic transmitter

A

Noradrenaline

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30
Q

Proprioception nerve class

A

Alpha (largest / fastest)

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31
Q

Touch/pressure nerve class

A

Beta

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32
Q

Motor - muscle spindles nerve class

A

Gamma

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33
Q

Pain / Cold / Touch nerve class

A

Delta (smallest / slowest)

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34
Q

Deep dermis / tendons / joints / genitalia

Vibration / deep pressure

Fast adapting

A

Pacinian Corpuscles

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35
Q

Oral mucosa / lips / genitalia / finger trips

Touch / vibration / light pressure

Rapid adapting

A

Meissners / Krauses Bulbs

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36
Q

Deep dermis / ligaments / joint capsules

Stretch / deep pressure

Very slow adapting

A

Ruffini Organs

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37
Q

Resting potential

A

-65mV

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38
Q

Nernst Equation

A

Determines equilibrium for any ion

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39
Q

Phase 1 AP

A

Na channel open

Na enter

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40
Q

Phase 2 AP

A

Threshold reached (-40mV)

voltage gated open

Na+ spike

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41
Q

Phase 3 AP

A

Na close (30mV)

K+ voltage open

K+ flow out of cell

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42
Q

Phase 4

A

Na+ channel close (-80mV)

Hyperpolarisation

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43
Q

In the absolute refractory period, what can not be elicted

A

AP

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44
Q

What type of receptor in the muscle is stimulated when passively stretched

A

Muscle Spindle

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45
Q

When is the Muscle Spindle switched off

A

Muscle contraction

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46
Q

what receptor responds to excessive tension

A

Golgi Tendon Organ

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47
Q

What does the golgi tendon organ do

A

causes relaxation of muscle

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48
Q

Role of ionotropic receptors

A

Depolarise post synaptic cells

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49
Q

Glutamate + acetylcholine causes influx of what

What does this lead to in a postsynaptic cell

A

Influx of Na

EPSP (excitatory post-synaptic potential)

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50
Q

What can a EPSP do

A

Initiate AP

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51
Q

GABA / Glycine causes an influx of what

What does this lead to

A

Influx of Cl

Leads to IPSP inhibiting AP

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52
Q

feather like shape muscle group

A

Pennate

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53
Q

Fusiform muscles are what shaped

A

Spindle shaped

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54
Q

circular muscle groups surround what

A

Body opening / orifice

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55
Q

 Striated
 Multinucleated
 Voluntary
 Attached to skeleton

A

Skeletal Muscle

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56
Q

 Striated
 Single nucleus
 Involuntary
 Branched

A

Cardiac Muscle

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57
Q

 Non striated
 Single nucleus
 Involuntary

A

Smooth Muscle

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58
Q

Myosin contains what structure

A

2 heavy + 2 light

59
Q

Ca binds to what region of Troponin

A

TnC region

60
Q

what happens when Ca binds to TnC on Troponin

A

Moves tropomyosin

exposes Binding site on Actin

61
Q

Myosin head with ADP + PI bind to what

A

Exposed actin filament

62
Q

Myosin head bends after being exposed to actin filament leading to what (2)

A

Pulls actin filament

ADP + Pi released

63
Q

In the cross bridge theory what initiates the power stroke

A

Inorganic phosphate

64
Q

Concentric contractions leads to what in a muscle

A

Muscle shortening

65
Q

Eccentric contraction leads to what in muscles

A

Muscle Lengthening

66
Q

Motor unit consists of what (2)

A

Motor neuron

Muscle fibres

67
Q

what reflects the time for excitation-contraction coupling

A

Latent Period

68
Q

When does the contraction phase end

What happens to Cytosolic Ca

A

Ends when muscle tension peaks

Ca increasing

69
Q

When tension levels plateau and Ca rise to peak levels what is this called

A

Tetanus

70
Q

inherent delay at the NMJ is what

A

0.5-1ms

71
Q

what subunits present on Nicotinic receptor (NAcH)

A

2a (what AcH binds)
1b
1d
1g

72
Q

1 quantum is how many AcH in 1 vesicle

A

5000 AcH

73
Q

MEPP -

What are they

A

Minature End Plate Potentials

Additive

74
Q

Co-enzyme A is responsible for making what

A

Acetyl CoA from Acetate

75
Q

how does AcH get into vesicles (what gradient)

A

H+ gradient (H leaves)

76
Q

Synapsin is found on what

what does it anchor to

A

Vesicles

Actin filaments

77
Q

V-snare is found on what

what does it bind to on the membrane

A

Vesicle

T snare

78
Q

Tubocurarine is what

A

Non Depolarising competitive nAChR antagonist

79
Q

how does Tubocurarine work

A

competes with AcH for nicotinic receptor

80
Q

what does the effect of Tubocurarine lead to

A

Muscle paralysis

81
Q

Succinylcholine is what

A

Depolarising nAChR agonist

82
Q

Succinylcholine leads to what

A

Flaccid Paralysis

83
Q

if Succinylcholine is administered with halothane what does this lead to

A

Malignant hyperthermia

84
Q

Neostigmine // edrophonium are what

A

Cholinesterases inhibitors

85
Q

Neostigmine is used for

A

Treating myasthenia gravis

86
Q

Edrophonium is used for what

A

diagnosing myasthenia gravis

87
Q

what is given as an antidote to nerve gas agents

A

Atropine

88
Q

puffer fish / newts / toads have what toxin

A

Tetrodotoxin

89
Q

Tubocurarine is a toxin found in what

what does it bind to

A

Arrow poison

binds to nAcH receptor

90
Q

Inhibition of Ca channels + autoimmune condition present in 60yr older is what syndrome

what synaptic disorder is it

A

Lambert Eaton Syndrome

Presynaptic disorder

91
Q

Lambert Eaton Syndrome is associated with what

A

Small cell lung cancer

92
Q 
o	Fatigue 
o	Weakness in limb muscle groups 
o	Abnormal reflexes 
o	Dry mouth
	Xerostomia 
	Insufficient saliva production 
o	Doesn’t usually affect respiratory /facial / eye muscles 
o	Hyperhidrosis 
o	Areflexia
A

Lambert eaton syndrome

93
Q

Electromyography + chest xray can be used for what diagnosis

A

Lambert Eaton Syndrome

94
Q

How does amifampridine work

what is it used in

A

blocks K+ channel

AP increased

More AcH released

Lambert Eaton Syndrome

95
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune condition against what

what sort of synaptic disorder is it

A

nAcH

Post synaptic disorder

96
Q

women at early age w/hyperplasia

men at older age w/cancer of thymus

what do these lead to

A

Myasthenia Gravis

97
Q

Neostigmine binds to cholinesterase how

A

covalent bond

98
Q

Is cardiac muscle smaller than skeletal

A

yes

100um x 15um

99
Q

how many nuceli does each cardiac cell contain

A

1-2 nuclei

100
Q

how much of a cardiac cell is mitochondria

A

30%

101
Q

how much of a skeletal cell is mitochondria

A

2%

102
Q

mechanical coupling in an intercalated disk is done by what

A

Desmosomes (macula adherens)

103
Q

Electrical coupling in an intercalated disk is done by what

A

gap junction

104
Q

Fascia adherens role

A

anchor site for actin

105
Q

Contractile cell dont do what

A

initiate their own AP

106
Q

what potential is found in auto-rhythmic cells

A

no resting membrane potential

107
Q

Wolff-Parkinsons-White Syndrome is a disorder of what?

What electrical pathway does it go down instead

A

Disorder of conduction system of heart

bundle of kent

108
Q

what does Wolff-Parkinsons-White lead to

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia

109
Q

Phase 0 of a ventricular AP

A

Na Channel Open

110
Q

Phase 1 of ventricular AP

A

Na Channel close

111
Q

Phase 2 of ventricular AP (2)

A

Ca channel open

Fast K+ close

112
Q

Phase 3 of ventricular AP (2)

A

Ca Channel close

Slow K+ open

113
Q

Phase 4 of ventricular AP

A

resting potential

114
Q

SA + AV node AP upstroke is dependent on what

A

Ca

115
Q

Ventricular upstroke is dependent on what

A

Na

116
Q

Class 1 antiarrhymic agents

A

Sodium channel blockers

117
Q

what do Class 1 antiarrhymic agents treat

A

Ventricular ectopies

118
Q

Class 2 antiarrhymic agents

A

Beta blockers

119
Q

Class 2 antiarrhymic agents do what

A

decrease sympathetic nervous system

120
Q

Class 3 antiarrhymic agents

A

Potassium channel blocker

121
Q

Class 3 antiarrhymic agents do what

A

prolong repolarization

122
Q

Class 4 antiarrhymic agents

A

calcium channel blockers

123
Q

Class 4 antiarrhymic agents do what

A

Reduce contractility of heart

124
Q

in Cardiac Excitation-Contraction Coupling, where does a AP arrive at?

What does this open

A

Arrives at T tubules

Opens L-type Ca channels

125
Q

digoxin inhibits what

what does this increase concentration of

A

inhibits Na/K ATPase

increases intracellular Ca

126
Q

AcH in the parasympathetic stimulates what nerve

A

Vagus nerve

127
Q

Frank starling law

A

resting length of cardiac muscle set below optimum

128
Q

in dilated cardiomyopathy, what happens to the heart

A

enlarges

129
Q

in dilated cardiomyopathy, what happens to the lungs + heart failure

A

Fluid build up in lungs

Left heart failure

130
Q

if theres a build up of fluid in tissues / organs / swelling of ankles what could this be caused by

A

Right heart failure

131
Q

Myocardial disarray can be caused by what

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

132
Q

causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Genetic mutation

133
Q

2 layers of SM

A

circular layer

Longitudinal layer

134
Q

What muscle has more actin than myosin

A

Smooth muscle

135
Q

What is not found in SM (3)

A

no sarcomeres

No striations

No T tubules

136
Q

Instead of T tubules in SM, what is found instead

A

Caveolae

137
Q

what does Ca bind to in SM

A

Calmodulin

138
Q

What does Calmodulin interact with

what does this phosphorylate

A

Myosin kinase

Myosin

139
Q

when Ca decreases in SM what happens

A

calmodulin complex dissociates and inactivates myosin kinase

140
Q

what is the most common unit in SM

when does it contract

A

Single unit

in response to stretch

141
Q

what unit of SM allows fine control but is slow and allows sustained contraction

what does it lack

A

multi-unit

lacks gap junctions

142
Q

benign growth in female reproductive tract

A

Leiomyoma (fibroids)

143
Q

Leiomyoma is common in what race

which women are also prone to this

A

afro-caribbean

women approaching menopause

144
Q

Symptoms of Leiomyoma

A

heavy uterine bleeding

IMS (25 decks)

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