Summary Questions Flashcards

1
Q

at what vertebral level does the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm?

A

T10

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2
Q

what nerve innervates the constrictor muscles of the pharynx?

A

vagus

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3
Q

which muscle of mastication allows opening of the mouth?

A

lateral pterygoid

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4
Q

which structure allows communication between the greater and lesser sac?

A

omental foramen

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5
Q

which vein drains midgut organs?

A

splenic vein

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6
Q

what is found in calot’s triangle?

A

the cystic artery

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7
Q

what three things make up calot’s triangle?

A

liver
common hepatic duct
cystic duct

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8
Q

what are the layers of the GI tract wall?

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa and serosa

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9
Q

where is GALT located?

A

lamina propria

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10
Q

where is the submucous plexus located?

A

submucosa

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11
Q

where is the myenteric plexus located?

A

muscularis externa

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12
Q

what epithelium covers the oral cavity, oropharynx and tomgue?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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13
Q

what epithelium covers the nasal cavity and the nasopharynx?

A

respiratory epithelium

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14
Q

which papillae have no taste buds?

A

filiform

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15
Q

name the four tonsils

A

pharyngeal
palatine
lingual
tubal

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16
Q

what is the change in epithelium at the gastro-oesophageal junction?

A

stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium

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17
Q

what is the function of parietal cells?

A

secrete HCl

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18
Q

what is the function of chief cells?

A

secrete digestive enzymes

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19
Q

what is the function of stem cells?

A

make more cells

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20
Q

what is the function of enteroendocrine cells?

A

produce hormones to control secretions and motility

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21
Q

what is special about the muscularis externa of the stomach?

A

it has an extra layer

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22
Q

what are enterocytes?

A

absorptive cells

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23
Q

what are goblet cells?

A

cells that produce mucous

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24
Q

what are paneth cells?

A

cells that produce antibacterial products

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25
Q

what region of the small intestine has peyer’s patches?

A

jejunum

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26
Q

what region of the small intestine has brunner’s glands?

A

ileum

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27
Q

what are the two main cell types of the large intestine?

A

enterocytes and goblet cells

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28
Q

what are the taeniae coli?

A

three strips of outer longitudinal muscle

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29
Q

what is present in large amounts in the appendix?

A

lymphoid tissue

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30
Q

what is at the centre of a liver lobule?

A

central vein

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31
Q

what is found at the corners of a liver lobule?

A

portal triad

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32
Q

what are the main cells of the liver?

A

hepatocytes

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33
Q

what travels in the sinusoids?

A

blood

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34
Q

what are kupffer cells?

A

macrophages in the sinusoids

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35
Q

what type of cells can be found in the perisinusoidal space?

A

hepatic stellate cells

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36
Q

what is the opening at the hilum of the liver called?

A

porta hepatis

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37
Q

what cells produce bile?

A

hepatocytes

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38
Q

what is the function of bile?

A

emulsification of fats

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39
Q

what is the function of the gallbladder?

A

storage and modification of bile

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40
Q

what hormone stimulates contraction of the gallbladder?

A

cholecystokinin

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41
Q

what is the most common consequence of vomiting?

A

dehydration

42
Q

which biochemical abnormality can occur in mass vomiting?

A

hypokalaemia

43
Q

what is a mallory weiss tear?

A

damage to the oesophagus

44
Q

what type of antiemetic is commonly used for anti-nausea in chemotherapy petients?

A

5-HT3 antagonists

45
Q

what is the common antiemetic used for travel sickness?

A

muscarinic acetylcholine

46
Q

which antiemetic is used in conjunction with morphine ?

A

dopamine receptor antagonists

47
Q

deifne nuasea

A

unpleasant sensation felt in the throat and stomach

48
Q

define emesis

A

forceful expulsion of gastric/intestinal contents out the mouth

49
Q

define retching

A

rhythmic reverse peristalsis with no vomitus

50
Q

what stops to allow emesis?

A

intestinal slow wave activity

51
Q

what powers emesis?

A

retrograde contraction from the ileum to the stomach

52
Q

what muscles are contracted in vomiting?

A

diaphragm and abdominal muscles

53
Q

what cell produces HCl?

A

parietal

54
Q

what ion is bicarbonate pumped out of parietal cells in exchange for?

A

chlorine

55
Q

what do secretagogues do?

A

cause secretion

56
Q

persistence of which structure causes Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

vitelline duct

57
Q

what part of the small intestine is meckel’s diverticulum found in?

A

the ileum

58
Q

what age and sex does meckel’s diverticulum typically present in?

A

males two years old

59
Q

what complication of meckel’s diverticulum causes rectal bleeding?

A

ulceration, perforation and haemorrhage

60
Q

what complication of meckel’s diverticulum causes appendicitis-like symptoms?

A

diverticulitis

61
Q

what is the treatment for meckel’s diverticulum?

A

surgical removal

62
Q

what is atresia?

A

congenital absence or abnormal closure of a body cavity

63
Q

name three types of atresia associated with the GI tract

A

oesophageal
intestinal
biliary

64
Q

what type of atresia is a cause of jaundice in babies?

A

biliary

65
Q

what is meconium ileus?

A

intestinal obstruction caused by meconium that is difficult to pass because it is too sticky

66
Q

what condition is associated with meconium ileus?

A

cystic fibrosis

67
Q

what is diverticulosis?

A

presence of diverticula

68
Q

what is diverticular disease?

A

diverticula which are symptomatic

69
Q

what is diverticulitis?

A

inflammation of a diverticulum

70
Q

where are diverticula most common?

A

sigmoid colon

71
Q

how do you investigate diverticular disease?

A

colonoscopy

barium enema

72
Q

how do you investigate diverticulitis?

A

raised inflammatory markers

CT

73
Q

what four complications can arise from diverticulitis?

A

perforation
haemorrhage
fistula
stricture

74
Q

what is a colonic polyp?

A

abnormal growth of tissue projecting from the colonic mucosa

75
Q

what is the most important type of polyp to not miss?

A

adenoma

76
Q

what can adenomas become?

A

adenocarcinoma

77
Q

what inherited conditions can predispose to the development of polyps?

A

FAP
lynch syndrome
peutz-jeghers syndrome

78
Q

what mutation is present in FAP?

A

APC gene

79
Q

how is screening for polyps carried out?

A

colonoscopy

80
Q

how are polyps treated?

A

polypectomy

prophylactic surgery for those with inherited conditions

81
Q

what is a hernia?

A

the protrusion of an organ or tissue out of the body cavity it is supposed to be in

82
Q

what two things lead to the formation of a hernia?

A

structural weakness and increased pressure

83
Q

what is an incarcerated hernia?

A

when the contents of a hernia are stick inside it by adhesions

84
Q

what is an obstructed hernia?

A

when a hernia causes bowel obstruction and contents are unable to pass

85
Q

what is a strangulated hernia?

A

when the vascular supply to hernia contents is compromised and ischaemic occurs

86
Q

weakness in what area allows abdominal contents to pass through it in a direct inguinal hernia?

A

hasselbach’s triangle

87
Q

which type of inguinal hernia doesn’t reappear after reduction?

A

indirect

88
Q

what can hiatus hernia present with?

A

reflux

89
Q

where is an epigastric hernia located?

A

between the xiphoid and the umbilicus

90
Q

what type of hernia can present post hernia?

A

incisional hernia

91
Q

are femoral hernias more common in males or fameles?

A

females

92
Q

are inguinal hernias more common in males or females?

A

males

93
Q

what are haemorrhoids?

A

enlarged vascular cushions in the wall of the anus and rectum due to increased pressure

94
Q

what can haemorrhoids present with?

A

painless red bleeding PR

perianal itch

95
Q

what condition causes rectal varices?

A

portal hypertension

96
Q

Anti- mitochondrial antibody is associated with which condition?

A

primary biliary cholangitis

97
Q

which drug is used to treat primary biliary cholangitis?

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

98
Q

what disease is charcot’s triad significant in?

A

ascending cholangitis

99
Q

Acalculous cholecystitis commonly affects which group of patients?

A

very ill, hospitalised patients

100
Q

A patient has come in with jaundice. On US the bile duct has a beaded appearance and a biopsy shows ‘onion skin’ lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

101
Q

What makes up Courvoisier’s sign?

A

Palpable, non-tender gallbladder and painless jaundice

102
Q

what does Courvoisier’s sign suggest?

A

biliary tree obstruction, most likely caused by cancer at the head of the pancreas