Drugs in Liver Disease Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three degrees of liver disease?

A

A, B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does grade A liver disease mean?

A

disease is well compensated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does grade B liver disease mean?

A

there is significant functional compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does grade C liver disease mean?

A

disease is decompensated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a common end stage issue of liver disease?

A

cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what happens to the liver in cirrhosis?

A

the liver becomes small, fibrous and unable to repair itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what sign does high portal pressure cause?

A

ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name three causes of cirrhosis

A

reduced liver blood flow
reduced metabolic function
reduced plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what effect does albumin have on RAAS?

A

low albumin suggests low plasma volume, so renin is released activating RAAS, causing aldosterone levels to rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is secondary aldosteronism?

A

aldosterone levels becoming high in liver disease because it is not well metabolised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name two hormones that become abundant in liver disease

A

endothelin

oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what happens to the kidneys in liver disease?

A

sodium retention is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens if an NSAID is given in liver failure?

A

there is a rapid decrease of renal PGE synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is PGE?

A

prostaglandin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does decreasing renal PGE synthesis cause?

A

worsened renal impairment and increased sodium retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the NICE recommended first choice for an analgesic in liver disease?

A

NSAID or a COX-2 inhibitor

17
Q

what should be co-prescribed with analgesics in liver disease?

A

a proton pump inhibitor

18
Q

why should opiates be used carefully or not at all?

A

they are sedative and if the liver cannot metabolise them they cause confusion and respiratory depression

19
Q

what is the leading cause of acute liver failure?

A

paracetamol

20
Q

what two things make paracetamol toxic?

A

reduced glutathione stores

increased P4502E1 levels

21
Q

who has increased P4503E1 levels?

A

alcoholics

22
Q

what rule is used to determine if liver failure is severe?

A

Hy’s rule

23
Q

what does Hy’s rule mean?

A

is ALT/AST 5x the upper limit +

is bilirubin over 3mg

24
Q

which gender more commonly gets drug induced liver injury?

A

women

25
Q

what type of drug is beneficial for patients with liver disease?

A

statins

26
Q

why do you not want to remove fluid too quickly when there is oedema/ascites in liver disease?

A

it can damage the kidneys

27
Q

what is the best diuretic to use in liver disease?

A

spironolactone

28
Q

what sedative drugs should be given to people with liver disease if needed and how?

A

phase II metabolised benzodiazepines in small doses

29
Q

name two benzodiazepines

A

lorazepam

oraxepam

30
Q

what type of antibiotics are nephrotoxic but can be used if in liver disease if done so safely?

A

aminoglycosides

31
Q

why are quinolones risky in liver disease?

A

they can cause seizures, which people with liver disease are already more prone to