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Old Officer study material > SPLOPS SOG's > Flashcards

SPLOPS SOG's Flashcards

0
Q

What are the minimum requirements for RIC?

A

2 trained persons
appropriate gear
tools
portable radios

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1
Q

When should RIC be assigned?

A

as soon as possible in an IDLH is being operated in.

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2
Q

What should RIC consist of?

A

An entire engine crew.

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3
Q

What is the sole mission of RIC?

A

to provide emergency assistance to FF in the event of being lost trapped or missing.

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4
Q

RIC’s survey to identify what ?

A

potential hazards
structural stability
means of egress

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5
Q

When should RIC be depolyed?

A

Lost, injured or trapped
Low air alarm or PASS device activation with inability to get a PAR
FF lost radio contact with crew and is separated.

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6
Q

When does SPLOPS act as a dedicated RIC?

A

on commercial and hi-rise structure fires that are 2nd alarm or greater.

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7
Q

what must be done if SPLOPS is re-assigned from RIC on a commercial or hi rise fire that results in a 2nd alarm of greater?

A

The second SPOLPS team is called.

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8
Q

Gas monitors should be used on fire scenes to monitor what?

A

02 deficiency
02 enrichment
CO
Flammability

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10
Q

Who authorizes removal of SCBA to facilitate additional operations?

A

IC

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11
Q

Atomspheric monitoring must continue in a structure during what activities?

A

PPV and overhaul.

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12
Q

If an 02 or CO alarms are reported what is required prior to removal of SCBA?

A

additional ventilation.

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13
Q

Batteries for replacement in monitors maybe of what type? 4 kinds

A

Duracell MN1400
Panasonic AM-2PI
Energizer EN93, E93, X93
Rayovac 814.

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14
Q

What are the type CO monitors on medical bags?

A

PAC 3500

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15
Q

What is the sensor life of the PAC 3500?

A

2-3 years

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16
Q

When does the PAC 3500 have to be bump tested?

A

periodically and after a CO activation alert.

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17
Q

With regards to Hazmat response operational persons are responsible for and are expected to take what actions?

A

Defensive control measures.

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18
Q

What type of control measures amy be considered by operational personnel?

A

spill control.

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19
Q

What is RIPN?

A

Recognition and isolation
protection
notification

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20
Q

What are the indications for recognition and identification?

A 
Occupancy and location
container type and shape
physical markings and shape
Markings and colors
UN numbers, placards, or labels
shipping papers
MSDS
QAS
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21
Q

Persons not requiring decontamination should be directed to move where?

A

crosswind, uphill, snd upwind away from the hazard in feet/ miles .

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22
Q

Who is the first to take command on hazmat incidents?

A

1st arriving unit.

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23
Q

When does SPLOPS get requested in a hazmat incident?

A

If the IC determines incident is beyond the capabilities of FRO.

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24
Q

On scene actions of a hazmat incident will continue the current course until when?

A

The IC changes the IAP.

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25
Q

All maintenance and care of vinyl/ buytl suits will be in accordance with who?

A

Trell Chem.

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26
Q

Level A frequency of testing and inspections are?

A 
Semi- Annually
Before each use
After each use
After repairs
After cleaning.
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27
Q

What should CPC zippers be lubricated with?

A

Paraffin

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28
Q

What is the Gastight/ pressure test of Level A suits?

A

Fill suit to 27mBar for 2min
open pressure valve and reduce pressure to 20mBar
Leave suit alone for 5min- should hold pressure above 18mBar.
If pressure falls below 18mBar, spray suit with water to check for leaks.

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29
Q

What is the shelf life for Level A suits, gloves and boots?

A

Manufacturer has NOT established a shelf life.

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30
Q

Suit compatibility should be check against how many different sources?

A

3.

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31
Q

Level B and C CPC are to be inspected and tested how often?

A

Semi-Annually
Upon receipt
Before use
after use.

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32
Q

Boots and Gloves associated with CPC should be tested and inspected how ofter?

A 
Semi- annually
Upon receipt
Before use
After use
After cleaning
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33
Q

What is a priority in Decontamination?

A

Identifying the product.

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34
Q

Definition of Decontamination?

A

To make safe by eliminating or reducing poisonous or otherwise harmful substances such as noxious chemicals or radioactive materials.

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35
Q

What are the 3 principals of decontamination?

A

Decon as soon as possible
Decon only what is necessary
Decon as far forward as possible.

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36
Q

What are the most important reasons to decontaminate victims?

A

Reduce contamination

Reduce secondary exposures

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37
Q

Emergency/gross decontamination is for who?

A

those who cannot wait for the establishment of technical / secondary decontamination.

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38
Q

Technical/ secondary decontamination is what?

A

comprehensive series of wash/ rinse stations in the WARM ZONE known as the contamination corridor.

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39
Q

Hazmat victims become patient’s when?

A

After decontamination.

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40
Q

What may be used as make-shift decon sites?

A

Pools, fountains, fire sprinkler protection systems

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41
Q

What factors should be taken for determining highest priority for ambulatory?

A 
Closest to point of release
Those reporting exposure
Those with evidence of contamination
Those with serious medical s/s
Those with conventional injuries.
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42
Q

What is often the fastest method to decon large groups of people?

A

Using an Emergency decontamination corridor system (EDCS)

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43
Q

Defintion of confined space?

A

areas which are not intended for continual employee occupancy, have limited means of egress, and have the potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment.

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43
Q

Defintion of confined space?

A

areas which are not intended for continual employee occupancy, have limited means of egress, and have the potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment.

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44
Q

The objective of size up in a confined space incident is?

A

identify the nature and severity of the immediate problem and gather sufficient information so as to formulate a valid plan of action.

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45
Q

First arriving units to a confined space shall complete what tasks?

A 
Establish command
locate job foreman / witnesses
determine location and number of victims
type of space
hazards w/ space
blueprints/ drawings
mechanisms of injury
Rescue vs recovery
Entry points/ exit points
ZMS
decontamination
confined space permit
atmospheric monitoring
ventilation
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46
Q

Ventilation equipment for confined space is rated at what?

A

1000cfm

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47
Q

What happens in the event of an air line failure

A

The entire team will immediately leave the space making sure the rescuer with problem is assisted.

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48
Q

Entry teams into confined space will wear what protective equipment?

A

Operations nomex jumpsuit and hood.
elbow and knee protectors
gloves and helmet.

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49
Q

When should harnesses be worn in confined spaces?

A

Class II or III for 8ft vertical shafts or greater.

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50
Q

Atomspheric monitoring in confined spaces will be tested for?

A

02 deficiency
02 enrichment
toxicity
flammability.

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51
Q

Alarms for confined space entry are set at what levels?

A 
02 deficient - <19.5
02 enrichment >23.5
LEL> 10%
CO 35ppm
H2S 10PPM
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52
Q

Atmospheric monitoring during confined space incidents will be taken how often?

A

every 5 min with mode of operation being announced.

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53
Q

Ventilation methods for confined space is dependent on what factors?

A

Vapor density or MW of product.

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54
Q

When can you use negative pressure ventilation in confined space?

A

only if there is only 1 entry point.

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55
Q

What is the maximum time an confined space entry team stay to work?

A

30 min.

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56
Q

What devices can be used for victim removal?

A

LSB half back, 2:1 haul system and a sked/sled board.

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57
Q

What system is preferred over manual hauling with regards to confined space?

A

4:1

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58
Q

Upon termination of a confined space operation what are the things, mechanically that need to happen?

A

Contractor to seal all openings

1 last atmospheric reading taken and recorded.

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59
Q

During high/low angle rescue, the SPLOPS officer shall assume whay role?

A

Hazard branch group leader.

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60
Q

What are the different positions associated with high/low angle rescue?

A 
Team Safety
Team Leader
Rappel rescue personnel
Rigging personnel
Backup team
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61
Q

When shall a “Lead “person be assigned in regards to Rope rescue?

A

Anytime there is more than 1 person assigned to the function.

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62
Q

What NFPA standard addresses approved hardware and software with regard to rope operations?

A

NFPA 1983

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63
Q

Once new technical rope rescue equipment is receive, who should it be forwarded to?

A

SPLOPS captain or Rope Rescue and confined space resource manager.

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64
Q

Resource manager will label each piece of new equipment how?

A

Station number and date of service.

65
Q

With what type of marker will be used to mark new equipment?

A

permanent non-phenol non-toxic marker.

66
Q

All cutting of rope and webbing will be done how?

A

With a hot knife ONLY.

67
Q

Software inspections for rope rescue consists of what?

A

visual and tactile inspections

68
Q

Buckles used in rope rescue that is part of software should be inspected specifically for what?

A

Burs.

69
Q

What qualifies “software” for retirement and what has to be done?

A

Damage or degradation - taken OOS and referred to resource mgr.
Shock loading- OOS- destroyed.

70
Q

What are the retirement qualifications for “Hardware” in rope rescue?

A

drop of 3 feet to hard surface- OOS- educated decision
drop of 6 feet to hard surface- OOS- resource mgr.
drop of 3 feet to soft surface- inspection
Shock loaded - OOS and to BC9 for destruction under supervision.

71
Q

Rope Rescue Hardware should be cleaned how?

A

Soap and water solution and throughly dried.
Lubricated with graphite or light machine oil.
File off metal burs.

72
Q

How should new rope be labeled?

A

rope end sealant
Rope ID
length
diameter

73
Q

Each label affixed to rope will have the following information?

A

Rope #
length
A and B designations

74
Q

What happens to rope that is damaged and taken OOS?

A

Cut into small pieces for knot tying and sent to the recruit academy.

75
Q

How is rope cleaned?

A

use water and lifeline cleaner.

76
Q

Retirement of Life Safety rope is qualified when?

A 
5 years shelf life
shock loading
inspection failure
chemical exposure
mantle fraying and fuzz
77
Q

What day is the weekly rope check off performed?

A

Wednesday.

78
Q

When new rope rescue equipment is received, how is familiarization completed?

A

by a didactic lecture and hands on session.

79
Q

In addition to the didactic lecture and hand on session, where is information available from?

A

Fire station terminal and email update.

80
Q

Which worksheet is used during structural collapse?

A

Collapse incident checklist.

81
Q

Who performs a “secondary” size up on collapse incidents?

A

Special Ops officer.

82
Q

Who gets appointed to structural collapse incident and by who?

A

Incident safety officer and appointed be the IC.

83
Q

Determining the level of PPE during a collapse incident is by what hazards?

A 
Fire 
Explosions
overhead objects falling
hazardous atmospheres
high level of airborne particles
bio hazards
climate
confined spaces
hazardous materials
84
Q

What is the “bare Minimum” PPE for HOT zone ops in a collapse incident?

A

Helmet
eye protection
gloves.

85
Q

How does one work as far as the path of travel in a collapse incident?

A

From safe area to hazard area.

86
Q

Who are the only persons’ allowed to enter the HOT zone in a collapse incident and how can contact be maintained?

A 
Portable radio
tag lines
line of sight
voice 
Or some other means
87
Q

Definition of bomb threat per SOG?

A

Notification of a threat to place, detonate, manufacture, etc an explosive device.

88
Q

When does SPLOPS get called for EOD and WMD assists with PBSO?

A

When there is a confirmed incident or device.

89
Q

Response to EOD/WMD calls are what code?

A

code 1 unless requested by PBSO

90
Q

When may radio or phone equipment be used upon arrival or on staging?

A

NO usage unless given “ALL CLEAR” by EOD personnel on scene.

91
Q

What worksheet/ paperwork to be used prior to commencing operations on EOD/WMD calls?

A

EOD tactical worksheet and EOD site safety plan.

92
Q

Who carries out fire or explosion operations during EOD / WMD incidents?

A

On scene Engine and rescue companies other than SPLOPS.

93
Q

What is the primary role of SPLOPS during EOD/WMD incidents?

A

assist the EOD team.

94
Q

During WMD incidents when can a hazmat tech handle a device?

A

Only when it has been “Rendered Safe” and during a “WMD “ incident.

95
Q

First arriving units to EOD/ WMD incidents shall?

A

Go arrival a safe distance from the scene.
Establish command
Designate staging areas and make assignments
notify dispatch for units radio silence.

96
Q

Upon arrival of EOD / WMD incidents units shall?

A

Make contact with PBSO or other agency
Establish initial zones and perimeters
locate a water supply.

97
Q

Who typically directs the SPLOPS team during EOD/ WMD incidents?

A

Hazard group branch supervisor.

98
Q

SPLOPS team PRIOR TO ARRIVAL at EOD/ WMD scene will?

A

confirm response mode w/ dispatch

go arrival from a safe distance and request staging and routing info.

99
Q

UPON ARRIVAL for SPLOPS team will?

A

meet with IC
make assignments
Ensure the Engine and Rescue crews are not seperated.

100
Q

What are the Primary functions during EOD/WMD incidents? (different from Primary role.)

A

Work under the IC
Establish Hot, warm and cold zones- HOT 500ft away.
Pre-dress medical surveillance of EOD members
Assist EOD entry in dressing
Plan ingress and egress of personnel and evacuation of injured team members
RIT for retrieval of hot zone personnel. (Usually SPLOPS ENGINE)

101
Q

Definition of “Credible Threat”

A

A threat that is present according to the threat matrix criteria.

102
Q

What is the threat matrix made up on?

A 
"Level of Concern"  4 levels:
NO credible threat/ NO material
NO credible threat/ YES material
YES credible threat/ NO material
YES credible threat/ YES material
103
Q

Standby distance for a suspicious package is at least?

A

500ft away.

104
Q

Wo gets notified if an incident involves a post office, facility, personnel, or equipment?

A

the postal inspector.

105
Q

What size can weaponized anthrax be?

A

1 micron in size.

106
Q

In order to visualize a “particle” its size must be about ?

A

40 microns.

107
Q

If the presence of material is implied in a threat the call should be treated as what kind of threat and why?

A

Credible- just because you can’t see the material doesn’t mean its not there. It may not be visable.

108
Q

Who gets contacted for a “YES Credible Threat/ YES material present?

A

Health dept and FBI.

109
Q

Persons evacuated from an area with a credible threat and material present go where?

A

in a controlled fashion to a “Safe refuge area”

110
Q

If a public safety sample is to be collected which SOG is to be followed?

A

2413

111
Q

What are the Turn back values and what does this mean for field analysis of unknown materials?

A 
Rad 100mR/hr
pH >4 or <12
02 levels <12.5 
LEL >10% of LEL
Values dictate a decision to be made about continuing the entry at the current risk level ONLY.
112
Q

What is the order of Monitoring for an unknown substance?

A

Radiation -
pH
02
LEL

113
Q

For unknown liquids what level dress and how should pH be measured?

A

Level A and B and pH wetted strip

114
Q

How should unknown solids be dressed for?

A

Usually level B.

115
Q

Who has jurisdiction at WMD/ biological incidents?

A

Law Enforcement and LE may alter collection procedures.

116
Q

Where there is a credible threat and samples are taken who has to be one of the entrants on the sample team?

A

A PBSO detective or Environmental crimes

If NO ONE is available then qualified SPLOPS personnel may collect sample.

117
Q

How are times for collected public safety samples obtained and on what form are they logged?

A

Times for collection by dispatch and on form 2413-1 (Florida Dept of health bureau of laboratories Domestic security environmental sample submission form- Biological.

118
Q

How are Public safety samples collected, using what technique?

A

Aseptic.

119
Q

How should large items which do not fit in a sample container be collected?

A

Swabbed.

120
Q

Small items are collected for public safety samples?

A

triple packaged and labeled for transport.

121
Q

water related incidents refer to which areas of water?

A 
ponds
lakes
canals
pools
the ocean 
any other potential of body of water.
122
Q

How are operational capabilities defined?

A

Level I- basic level- mask fins snorkel, BCD
Level II- intermediate level- full SCUBA comprised of arial stationed
personnel with dive rescue scuba cert and current dive log.
Level III- advanced level II- full SCUBA and dry suit capability -
SPLOPS dive team

123
Q

With regards to Dive level II capabilities how is that determined for the shift?

A

Aerials and quints will communicate at the beginning of each shift with the dispatch supervisor

124
Q

What is the minimum number of persons needed to start a dive operation?

A

May be started with 3, but preferred 4.

125
Q

What is considered the difference between rescue and recovery mode?

A

less than 60 min is rescue and after is recovery usually turned over to law enforcement.

126
Q

When do level II and Level III dive teams respond code 3?

A

when level I divers are already in the water - unless they exit or operation is terminated.
OR
if a level II dive team is responding code 3 then SPLOPS will too.

127
Q

First arriving units on a water related incident should do what?

A

obtain victim information to include, age, #, clothing colors, swimming ability, last seen point and time

establish Hot zone

Request a seperate ALS transport unit to act as “MEDICAL GRP”

Mode of operation

water rescue tactical worksheet

entry/ exit points established

Level III accountability and accountability officer established

Decon reduction corridor

128
Q

What are the bench marks for water incidents?

A 
Divers entering or exiting water
victim located
victim extricated
mode of operation
termination of dive operations
dive times, total mission time, and time since call receipt.
129
Q

What are the search patterns for water incidents and when used?

A

Semi-circular - with last seen point.
cut distance in half and invert cone
tender stays in one spot.
Parallel - no last seen point
mark start and finish lines L to R
tender walks with diver

130
Q

What are the line signals for water related incidents?

A

Tender to Diver- 1- are u OK
2- change direction
3- come to surface (3)
4- stay on the bottom (4)
Diver to tender- 1- I’m OK
2- give slack
3- found something
4- Help- deploy back-up diver

131
Q

SCUBA dive parameters are:

A

ocean dives limited to bottom times not requiring safety stops
avoid depths of >40ft
No entering of contaminated water
No entering of caves or pipes or other overhead environments
No level 1 divers may penetrate objects
If SCUBA diver penetrates object- back up must deploy to area.
No entry in water>3mph

132
Q

What are the Air supply benchmarks for water incidents?

A

1000psi- discontinue dive
800- surface immediately
Max time is 1 bottle

133
Q

If water incidents are from a boat, what equipment is needed?

A

Portable radio

GPS affixed to 1 point once dive site is located.

134
Q

Where are laminated search patterns found?

A

On and in all dive bags carried on emergency response units.

135
Q

When should a dive safety officer be assigned?

A

When available

136
Q

Dive tanks are inspected and tested how often and what tests?

A

VIP-once a year, Hydro- every 5 years

137
Q

Regulators for SCUBA are serviced how often?

A

every year.

138
Q

Dive equipment such as BC, Fins, gloves, wet suits, snorkles are inspected when?

A

cleaned and inspected after each dive.

139
Q

what does ALARA stand for?

A

as low as reasonably possible.

140
Q

What are the most likely sources of radiological material?

A

natural or legitimate sources.

141
Q

What is a “Personal radiation detector alarm”?

A

The presence of radiation at the present level.

142
Q

What personal radiation detection device are selected individuals using?

A

RAD eye G

143
Q

What is defined as a radioactive materials incident?

A

reports of lost or stolen radioactive materials, fires, explosions.

144
Q

What is a radiation control zone?

A

MINIMUM 500ft from the suspected source to provide initial distance between personnel and source.

145
Q

Which tier does PBCFR hazmat fall under with regards to radiological incidents?

A

Tier 2- have the ability to conduct basic isotope identification and reach back through DNDO- domestic nuclear detection office.

146
Q

Who should be contacted for reach back during a radiological incident?

A

DNDO- domestic nuclear detection office.

147
Q

What is an “innocent “ alarm?

A

Radiation detected due to proximity of an individual who has had or is receiving medical radiation treatment.

148
Q

What is an “identified “ alarm ?

A

Detection event that is both non-criminal and non- threatening. Such as licensed medical transporter, nuclear power plant, research facility.

149
Q

what is a “Hostile “ alarm ?

A

detection that is a result of a substance or device that appears to be suspicious, criminal, or an unidentifiable source.

150
Q

What is a “unverified” alarm?

A

Detection event that cannot be verified because the source was present and has moved cannot be located, or false alarm.

151
Q

What should the RCZ- or radiation control zone encompass as far as distance and readings?

A

Ensure that the exposure level does not exceed 2mR/hr at the 500ft mark. must be maintained until declared safe by Florida dept of health.

152
Q

What is the annual dose of radiation personnel may NOT exceed?

A

500mR

153
Q

What is the “investigation rate” alarm level for radiation?

A

100uR/hr

154
Q

What is the “public protection rate” alarm for radiation?

A

2mR/hr.

155
Q

What does one do if an “overload” alarm activates on a PRD?

A

Stop forward movement - move away the location or source until a valid reading of 2mR/hr .

156
Q

Tier 1 responses with regard to radiological incidents will be made through who?

A

PBSO EOD with agreement of on scene SPLOPS IC to the DNDO.

157
Q

Who gets notified of a “potentially Hostile” radiological alarm?

A 
Dispatch
PBC hazmat and PBSO EOD
appropriate supervisor
PBC warning point
other agencies
158
Q

Questions or problems concerning PRD’s should be reported to who?

A

Your supervisor.

159
Q

Who calibrates PRD’s ?

A

Bureau of radiation control and state dept of health.

160
Q

When and what types of call should PRD’s be used?

A 
Large public buildings
explosions
fires
automobile accidents involving trucking accidents
Construction accidents
incidents at research facilities
public protests or rallies.

Old Officer study material (30 decks)

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