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Old Officer study material > SPLOPS COMBINED > Flashcards

SPLOPS COMBINED Flashcards

0
Q

Can ABC kits be used for other chemicals than chlorine?

A

yes.

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1
Q

Pneumatic plugs for drums range in size from ?

A

4 inches to 3 feet.

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2
Q

what are the general confinement techniques for a solid?

A

Site control.

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3
Q

What are offensive operations decisions that need to be made?

A 
what stresses caused the breech?
Identity of the product
Defensive actions already taken
Offensive ops risk vs. benifit
what hazards result in taking offensive ops
Can offensive ops work
Can offensive ops be done safely 
Can offensive ops mitigate the situation.
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4
Q

what are the most basic control measures for tank cars?

A

if open- close it - clockwise
if loose- tighten it- clockwise
if missing- replace it

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5
Q

What are the considerations for overpacking a container?

A

Must be 85 gallons
Compatible with material or chemical hazard
must write chemical name on container
must write salvage drum on container
must be able to withstand pressure and not over pressurize container

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6
Q

If a relief valve on a non-cyrogenic tank is operating what should you do?

A

find out the reason it is operating, if the product is causing a hazard then defensive measures should be taken.

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7
Q

Are leaks from pressure relief valves considered a breach?

A

NO.

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8
Q

What should be done first before overpacking a drum?

A

stop the leak first.

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9
Q

how much does a nearly full 35 gal drum weigh?

A

approx 600lbs

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10
Q

What are the terms when discussing damage to a container?

A 
Cracks- narrow splits or breaks
scores- indentation
gouges-removal of container material
dents- deformities
burns
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11
Q

What must be done to any container before attempting to control a leak?

A

stabilize the container.

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12
Q

What are mitigation methods for 55 gal drums?

A

Overpacking
bandages
plugging/ patching
sealants

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13
Q

Flaring is used when?

A

disposal of flammable materials

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14
Q

What is the advantage of a vacuum truck

A

does not have to develop a higher pressure than the damaged container.

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15
Q

AFFF foam for non-polar substances like gasoline/ oils work by?

A

reduces surface are and decreases heat production

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16
Q

Define containment?

A

KEEP IN CONTAINER

actions taken to keep material in “container”

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17
Q

Best methods for practicing on pressure vessels?

A

First practice without protective clothing
second add gloves
Third, use all together.

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18
Q

Cargo tank mitigation includes what?

A

replacing bolts, gaskets or caps.

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19
Q

what are the general confinement techniques for a liquid?

A 
absorption/ adsorption
damming/diking
diversion
dispersion
retention.
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20
Q

What are the general techniques for containment?

A 
Auxiliary closure devices
bandages
neutralization
overpacking
patching
plugging
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21
Q

What is the anatomy of a drum?

A

circular opening at the top- BUNG
First rim at the top- CHIME
rims or rings below the 1st- ROLL RINGS

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22
Q

What are considered auxiliary tools?

A

bung wrenches
non- sparking tools
drum leveler/ up righting
dolly/ carts

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23
Q

What are the general control techniques for a gas or vapor?

A

Suppression
dispersion
confinement.

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24
Q

What type of call makes up most Hazardous materials calls?

A

Non- bulk container.

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25
Q

when and why do hazardous materials releases occur?

A 
improperly secured valves
bad gaskets
overfilling
unsecured  fittings
venting from relief valves
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26
Q

Venting is used for what material?

A

non-flammable gases

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27
Q

What are considered general hazards?

A 
physical
environmental
container hazards
container stability
Container integrity
Energy releases.
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28
Q

Cargo control tank mitigation from piping or valves should be?

A

closing valves upstream of the leak.

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29
Q

What is the pressure in the piping generally for a cargo tank?

A

75 psi

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30
Q

Cargo tank removal methods include?

A

flaring
transferring
venting
venting/burning

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31
Q

define confinement

A

actions to keep material in an area?

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32
Q

Regardless of flammability hazards, what should be controlled?

A

All ignition sources.

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33
Q

What are auxiliary control devices or measures?

A

Dome clamps
engineered shut off valves
A B C chlorine kits
sealants

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34
Q

what should be done if unsure of a container’s status?

A

take defensive measures and get expert help.

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35
Q

definition of sublimation

A

the ability of a solid to change state directly to a gas.

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36
Q

defintion of temperature

A

measure of heat energy.

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37
Q

Cyrogenics are defined at what temperature?

A

Boiling point - 130 degrees F

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38
Q

Definition of flash point?

A

minimum temp of a LIQUID can ignite a flash in the vapor space of the liquid.

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39
Q

NFPA definition of Flammable liquid?

NFPA definition of combustable liquid?

A

liquids have flash points less than 100 degrees F

liquids have flash points between 100 and 200 degrees F

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40
Q

Definition of viscosity?

A

ability of a liquid to be poured.

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41
Q

What does OC and CC mean with relation to flammable liquids?

A

open cup and closed cup testing.

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42
Q

By doubling the distance in regards to radioactivity what happens?

A

the energy is decreased by 1/4.

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43
Q

Expansion ratio of LPG- liquified petroleum gas?

A

250:1

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44
Q

1% equals how many PPM?

A

10,000.

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45
Q

Definition of LEL and UEL?

A

concentration of vapor from a liquid

or flammable gas in air.

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46
Q

what are the common units of measurement for pressure?

A

760 mmhg
760 torr
1 atm
14.7psi

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47
Q

definition of vapor pressure

A

ability of material to evaporate.

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48
Q

Definition of specific gravity?

A

the weight of a material with reference to water wether it will sink or float. Water being 1.0.

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49
Q

Which “TYPE” of organic peroxides are the most unstable and forbidden in transport?

A

Type A and are usually dissolved in a solvent to prevent the chemical reaction.

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50
Q

DOT definition of flammable liquid?

A

liquid have a flash point less than 140 degrees F.

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51
Q

Definition of corrosivity?

A

solid, liquid, or gas that burns, irritates, or destructively attacks organic tissues.

Either acids or bases.

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52
Q

What is the flash point of gasoline?

A

-45 degrees F

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53
Q

Emmited energy as a result of a change in the nucleus or its atoms is called?

A

Radioactivity.

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54
Q

Radiation is measured in what units?

A

RAD- radiation absorbed dose

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55
Q

Definition of solubility?

A

ability of a substance to mix completely with another substance.

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56
Q

oxidizers and corrosives make what class of chemical?

A

inorganic perioxides

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57
Q

the lower the flash point the ________ flammability of the liquid.

A

“Higher”

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58
Q

Organic peroxides are composed of what?

A

an oxidizer and compound that contains a fuel.

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59
Q

Definition of “ignition temperature or Auto ignition temperature”?

A

Temperature at which a materials vapors start to burn without flame or other ignition source.

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60
Q

Acidity is based on what factor?

A

amount of H ions in solution.

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61
Q

Definition of contamination?

A

when a radioactive material becomes attached to something.

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62
Q

DOT definition of compressed gas?

A

pressure of 40psi at 70 degrees F.

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63
Q

what are non-polar substances?

A

gasolines, oils, petroleum based products.

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64
Q

Expansion ratio for LNG- liquid natural gas?

A

600:1

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65
Q

what is vapor density?

A

the ability of the vapor to rise or sink when compared to air

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66
Q

Pyrophoric solids ignite at what temperature?

A

at or below 130 degrees F

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67
Q

Properties of Beta particles

A

travel distance of approx 30ft.
moderate size particle
moderate energy emited.

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68
Q

Definition of Solvent?

A

material in GREATER concentration in a mixture

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69
Q

OSHA radiation exposure limits are ?

A

3 rem/ quarter or 5 rem/ year.

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70
Q

Home propane tank pressures are regulated at?

A

working pressure of 240psi
pressure relief @ 375psi
testing pressure @ 480psi.

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71
Q

Properties of alpha particles

A

shortest traveling distance at about 4”
largest of radioactive particles
lowest energy emmited.

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72
Q

what percentage of space must remain in the container of a compressed gas?

A

15%

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73
Q

Properties of Neutrons

A

Travels the furthest and requires significant shielding
size is larger than beta but 1/4 the size of alpha.
found generally with atomic weapons.

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74
Q

the amount of time it takes for half the atoms in a sample to decay is what?

A

half- life.

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75
Q

Radioactive particles cause damage by 2 ways:

A

disrupting cell division

forming H202 chemicals in the body.

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76
Q

Definition of solute?

A

material in LESSER concentration in a mixture.

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77
Q

How is vapor density measured (2 ways)?

A

in relation to air being 1 and MW of air being 29.

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78
Q

Difference between gamma and x-rays origination?

A

Gamma originate in the nucleus and x-rays outside the the nucleus.

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79
Q

Explosion proof labels mean?

A

reactions are contained within enclosures.

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80
Q

What is gas chromatography mode?

A

the sample can be identified by seperating it into GC columns and the chemicals retention time.

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81
Q

Gamma radiation is measured in what?

A

mR/hr or uR/hr - roentgens.

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82
Q

What are the basic rules for detection devices? (7)

A
  1. prioritize monitoring- measure 02 levels first.
  2. select to appropriate instrument
  3. absence of evidence is evidence of absence.
  4. never assume only 1 hazard is present.
  5. use one instrument to confirm another
  6. interpret readings in more than 1 way
  7. establish action levels.- (unknowns have a 25% LEL.)
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83
Q

What gas is required for proper functioning of a CGI since it requires combustion of the vapor or gas its detecting?

A

Oxygen

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84
Q

Primary disadvantage of a dosimeter is?

A

gives measurements of radiation that ALREADY has been received.

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85
Q

Although detector tubes are calibrated to 1 material it may respond how?

A

to other materials that have similar structure and reactivity.

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86
Q

Monitoring equipment helps you determine what 3 things?

A

appropriate PPE
safe areas and evacuation zones
control tactics

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87
Q

PID’s determine what?

A

if there are high or low concentrations of s chemical present.

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88
Q

The aspiration pump for detector tubes must be calibrated how often?

A

on a quarterly basis.

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89
Q

what gas or vapor must be present in order for the FID to work?

A

oxygen.

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90
Q

What are the simplest kits in order to test for hazards?

A

Test papers and or kits.

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91
Q

Definition of accuracy?

A

average of all measurements fall within an acceptable predetermined interval from the true value.

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92
Q

Most detection read-out is done ?

A

in real time

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93
Q

Definition of ionization potential?

A

the energy required to move the OUTTER MOST electron from the atom or nucleus.

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94
Q

UL and FL markings mean what?

A

intrinsically safe for class 1 division 1 groups ABCD.

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95
Q

Definition of precision?

A

grouping of separate readings around a calculated average.

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96
Q

what is the most important initial check on an instrument?

A

the battery check

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97
Q

How should detector tubes be stored?

A

left in the their original box.

98
Q

In order to use the FID’s GCs function what has to be known?

A

A general idea what gases or vapors may be present.

99
Q

What is the sampling procedure while using a sample line?

A

1 to 2 seconds per ft of hose.

100
Q

alpha and beta radiation is read in what?

A

CPM- counts per minute

101
Q

Another name for radiation survey instruments commonly found in fire departments today is called what?

A

Ludlam meter.

102
Q

PID’s readouts in regards to IP are in what measure?

A

PPM.

103
Q

What is relative response?

A

when an instrument reading is higher or lower than the actual concentration of vapors or gases present.

104
Q

CGI’s with IR capability can read what?

A

CO2 and CH3 levels in concentrations above 5,000PPM.

105
Q

what are the three different scales for a CGI?

A

PPM
% LEL
% gas

106
Q

FID’s measure reading are in what?

A

PPM

107
Q

An appropriately set CGI low level alarm is set at what percent of the cal gas?

A

10%

108
Q

PID readings of 5 PPM or more of an unknown gas or vapor mean what?

A

Indicate need for protective clothing and breathing apparatus.

109
Q

How is ionization potential (IP) expressed?

A

Electron volts.

110
Q

A negative response for a detection tube may be more informative than a positive one why?

A

Since in can exclude number of potential chemical contaminants.

111
Q

Advantage of FID vs PID?

A

FID’s are not restricted by IP because it burns the actual material allowing higher PPM and allow identification of the gas or vapor.

112
Q

Transport packaging containing radioactive material is read how?

A

millirem/ hr @ 1 meter from the surface of the box.

113
Q

oxygen enriched atmospheres are what %?

A

greater than 23.5%

114
Q

ambient air for calibrating and 02 sensor should be what %?

A

20.9%

115
Q

Detector tubes detect what?

A

only if a chemical is present

116
Q

what 2 modes do FID’s work in?

A

Survey and gas chromatography.

117
Q

PID’s are designed to detect what?

A

organic vapors or gases in low PPM range.

118
Q

What is survey mode with a FID?

A

translates organic vapors into concentration of PPM.

119
Q

The time it takes the instrument to obtain the sample and produce readings is called what?

A

Response time.

120
Q

What is retention time?

A

the amount of time a substance remains within the column of the GC .

121
Q

Define Permeation?

A

Movement of chemical through a material on the molecular level.

122
Q

Limitations of level B suits

A

No permeation protection from gases or vapors
May still leak liquids
No thermal protection.

123
Q

when did soft permeable lenses become allowed?

A

Feb 1998 OSHA.

124
Q

What needs to needs to be logged at a minimum for CPC?

A 
Date of purchase
manufacturer
vendor
serial #
markings
color
material
destruction date and disposal.
125
Q

when should the mission briefing take place?

A

prior to members being suited up in CPC.

126
Q

What is a major limitation of an “SAR”

A

hose length limited to 300ft.

Not approved in IDLH atmospheres unless equipped with an emergency escape SCBA.

127
Q

what is the minimum ratio to dress in protective clothing?

A

1:1

128
Q

where do instructions for donning and doffing clothing come from?

A

manufacturer.

129
Q

Define Degradation?

A

Change in a material caused by contact with another agent.

130
Q

The first glove as the underglove should be which type?

A

nitrile - thin surgical type glove.

131
Q

What are the best methods to ensure heat related stress do not compromise hazardous entries from personnel?

A

Pre-donning physical and proper hydration.

132
Q

What is a major limitation of an “APR”

A

Cannot be used IDLH or 02 deficient atmospheres (<19.5% 02)
Only protects against specific chemicals.
Not Positive pressure.

133
Q

What is an “APR”

A

Air purifying respirator.

134
Q

What is a disadvantage of closed circuit SCBA?

A

inability to inflate a level A suit.

135
Q

Limitations of Level C suits?

A

Very use limited only for controlled situations.

No thermal protection.

136
Q

NFPA donning recommendations V/S?

A 
BP < 150/90
HR < 70% of max HR (220-age)
RR<24/min
Oral temp 97f - 99.5f
Core temp 98f-100.5f
No sick S/S  or new medication including OTC for 72hrs 
No ETOH in last 6hrs
137
Q

Describe level B protection?

A

NFPA 1992-highest level of respiratory protection
Protects against contacts with spills or splashes.
not- fully encapsulated –no permeation barrier/ just “Penetration”
not to be worn with dangerous gases or vapors
no thermal protection.

138
Q

Limitations of a Level A suit?

A

bulky
reduced mvt
communication is difficult.
physically stressful.

139
Q

Describe Level A protective equipment….

A

Falls under NFPA 1991
provides highest level of respiratory and skin protection.
Should have flash protection.
Inner and outter gloves resistance of 60min
Pass 21 chemical tests for permeation.

140
Q

Penetration time criteria?

A

Garment must not show any leakage for 60min of continuous spray of water.

141
Q

What issues are to be considered when wearing chemical protective clothing?

A

Buddy system
communications
working with tools
In- sight work.

142
Q

Describe Level C protection?

A

NFPA 1993- Respiratory uses a APR (lower respiratory protection)
Allows for splash or leak protection from liquids that are KNOWN.
Does not constitute a health hazard if exposed.
Limited to support zone activities.

143
Q

What are the visible signs of degradation?

A

charring, shrinking, softening, cracking, dissolving.

144
Q

Define Actual break-through time?

A

When the detector first detects the chemical on the material being tested.

145
Q

If a chemical does not appear on the clothing for resistance, what can be done?

A

consult a chemical compatibility and product properties chart.

146
Q

Normalized break-through time is defined as?

A

0.1ug/cm2/min @80.6F.

147
Q

Define Penetration?

A

A “leak”. Movement of chemical through existing openings in a material or garment.

148
Q

The best course of action when determining what to wear in a flammable environment is?

A

Change the atmosphere.

149
Q

Describe Level D protection?

A

Normal workplace protections and conditions.
No NFPA standard for Level D.
Use for in NON-EMERGENT situations.

150
Q

Easiest and most dangerous way for exposure from hazardous materials is?

A

through the respiratory system.

151
Q

Simple testing for level A garments consists of what?

A

visual inspection and gastight integrity.

152
Q

The OSHA law governing Respiratory equipment requires what type of notification to employees?

A

Written.

153
Q

OSHA standard for selection, use , testing , cleaning, maintenance…

A

1910.134 1998 edition.

154
Q

A good donning team will a backup team ready in how many minutes?

A

less than 1.

155
Q

level of protection for doffing persons out of CPC is determined by who?

A

safety officer and or group sector supervisor.

156
Q

How should entry and back-up persons dress in CPC?

A

at the same rate and same level of dress.

157
Q

Simple testing of Level B garments consists of what?

A

visual inspection only.

158
Q

What is the function of a butyl glove?

A

primarily to protect the ensemble glove not chemical resistance.

159
Q

What is the last item removed of CPC?

A

Respiratory protection.

160
Q

What is a “SAR”

A

supplied air respirator.

161
Q

What steps are to be taken prior entry in exclusion zone?

A 
Tactical plan completed
site safety plan ICSHM-208
Pre entry briefing
back up team ready
PPE verified
Decon established.
162
Q

What is an INITIAL strategy that can be used in DEFENSIVE mode?

A

Spill control.

163
Q

12 activities of the hazmat group supervisor

A
  1. briefing
  2. control zones
  3. public protection actions
  4. weather
  5. environment monitoring
  6. site safety plan
  7. safety meetings
  8. develop IAP
  9. safe SOP’s followed
  10. PPE
  11. notifications made
  12. 214 forms
164
Q

Entry monitoring is monitoring for what initially?

A

IDLH and PEL

165
Q

When the decision NOT to execute and order what happens?

A

must be documented in writing by the hazmat group supervisor referencing the SOG or safety guidelines.

166
Q

who has the authority to terminate any strategy or tactic considered unsafe ?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

167
Q

Notification of Decontaminated patients going to a facility should be told what information?

A 
Number of patients
type and amt of contamination
medical conditions
time of arrival
migratory times of other victims coming on their own.
168
Q

IF no contractor or responsible party is available then what?

A

Department of environmental protection may be utilized.

Last resort- may contract for disposal at the expense of the AHJ.

169
Q

When does rehab begin for entry and decon personnel?

A

immediately upon exit from the decon corridor.

170
Q

What does Level C CPC provide for protection?

A

solid and liquid splash with known atmospheres and no IDLH

NFPA 1993

171
Q

RHMRT have how long to respond once requested?

A

5 minutes

172
Q

Max amt of time in level A CPCina 24 hour period?

A

2 cycles of work.

173
Q

RHMRT site safety plan document #

A

ICS 208HM

174
Q

Minimum number of technicians to start offensive ops?

A

7- seven

175
Q

What is the curriculum that a hazmat group supervisor must complete?

A

Florida state emergency response commissions guideline for public sector hazardous materials training.

Hazardous materials incident commander and OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120 (q)(6)

176
Q

What factors determine the Exclusion or HOT zone

A

the area most affected by the release
TLV
will be marked by physical boundaries
Refuge are near reduction corridor.

177
Q

With regards to Decontamination what is the primary objective?

A

Prevention

178
Q

what is the rest time for max amt of time in level A CPC?

A

60 min.

179
Q

How is contamination prevented according to the RHMRT?

A 
minimize contact w/ substances
protecting instruments 
using remote sampling techniques
disposable CPC
protecting and wearing SCBA
180
Q

How are hazardous materials identified with regard to train cars?

A

the word “DANGEROUS” is marked beneath the car.

181
Q

How are operational periods organized?

A

initial- 4hrs
greater than 1 entry- may request add’l team
greater than 4 entries - requires IC notification
extended ops defined as: (2) 4hr ops periods or greater than 4 entries

182
Q

what is the time limit of work in level A CPC?

A

20 min at temps above 70F

183
Q

Medical exam to include what? in addition to regular physical?

A 
Complete h/p
occupational hx.
heavy metals screening
RBC cholinesterase
stress test.
184
Q

Refuge area is defined as what?

A

area designated for contaminated persons within the exclusionary/ initial isolation zone .

185
Q

If hazmat victims are in immediate life threatening situations that require medical attention what should be done?

A

emergency gross decon.

186
Q

ERG is good for directions up to what time frame?

A

30min.

187
Q

Exclusion zone GUIDELINES for establishment ?

A

toxicity based on reading greater than published TLV/TWA or PEL
Any flammability reading from a CGI
O2 deficient <19.5% or enriched >23.5%
radioactivity w/ readings above backround

188
Q

When do hazmat victims become patients?

A

after decontamination.

189
Q

How often are medical records reviewed?

A

q 4 yrs

190
Q

Control zones are determined by what factors?

A 
chemical properties
physical properties
physical state
Size and condition of container
Amt of product leaking
natural barriers
weather
recognized standards from resources.
191
Q

Monitoring protocols and procedures fall under what compliance standards?

A

OSHA 1910.120, 40 part 311

NFPA 471

192
Q

is a level 3 response

A

Severe incident

193
Q

The best positioning of vehicles with variable winds is?

A

uphill.

194
Q

Who establishes command on an incident?

A

the first arriving fire rescue unit or senior official having authority.

195
Q

Constant monitoring after entry will continue till?

A

till v/s are returned to pre-v/s status. 3.0% of total body weight is an issue.

196
Q

What is a level 4 incident?

A 
classified as major or severe
release of chemical over extended area.
Will spread to a larger area.
HIGHLY TOXIC, VERY REACTIVE UNSTABLE flammable/explosive.
Affects large area and several hours
197
Q

The adequate supply of medication required to be maintained in the Tox box is what?

A

Enough medication to treat 4- 100kg pt’s per Florida regional common EMS protocols.

198
Q

On level II incidents hazmat materials are contained or secured to what extent?

A

only to the extent that there is no longer an immediate threat to life, property, or environment outside the emergency site.

199
Q

Parameters for CGI action levels?

A

known product >50% LEL
Unknown >25% LEL
confined space >10% LEL

<10-16% most CGI’s will not operate properly
< 19.5% O2- wear SCBA while monitoring
23.5% for fire potential of confined space
25% fire potential consult specialist

200
Q

what is a level 1 response?

A 
dealing w/ known substances
no deaths or injures
limited area less than 300ft
less than 25 gallons
evacuation not more than 4 hrs
201
Q

Technical details may be provided to the IC/PIO if selected by who?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

202
Q

When can RHMRT supervisor transfer responsibilities to another group supervisor?

A

with the concurrence of the IC.

203
Q

How often do supervisors and coordinators meet to implement changes to response plan, SOG’s, equipment, and training?

A

Quarterly

204
Q

What is Level B CPC protection for?

A

protection from liquid splash and particulate exposure.

205
Q

Purpose of emergency response plan?

A

provide RHMRT with county wide organization to mitigate an emergency involving Hazardous materials.

206
Q

Private contractors for clean-up shall meet what standard and use PPE deemed necessary by who?

A

29 CFR OSHA 1910.120 Incident commander, safety officers or hazmat group supervisor.

207
Q

Who or which agency is responsible for which zones?

A

1- PBC
2-WPB
3-PBC
4-Boca/delray

208
Q

Supplied air lines have a maximum length of?

A

300ft from the air source

209
Q

Palm Beach county Hazmat ordinance?

A

98-13

210
Q

First response agency technicians can be utilized in what positions only?

A

Any positions except Entry team members or Hazmat group supervsor.

211
Q

Overall success of an incident depends on what?

A

initial operations set up by first arriving agency.

212
Q

What staffing is needed prior to teams making entry?

A

Dedicated rescue w/ paramedics for entry.

If entry is into an IDLH then Toxmedics are required

213
Q

what is the role of RHMRT?

A

confinement and containment, then incident priorities.

214
Q

Monitoring for unknown products will include?

A 
radioactivity  Radioactivity- 100mR/hr
pH  PH - <4 or >12
Combustibility oxygen levels <12.5    LEL>10% of LEL
H2S
CO
organic vapor
colormetric tubes
chemical WMD
biological agents
215
Q

The ICS structure for a hazmat incident is based on what?

A

the incident needs.

216
Q

What is the minimum distance that allows for a a safe retreat?

A

330ft

217
Q

If a contractor resists working with proper PPE then?

A

compliance should be coordinated through entity contracted, if no compliance then activity for contractor to be terminated until in compliance or another contractor is procured.

218
Q

Research of a product will consist of the what items?

A 
physical properties
PPE
Decon
first aid
antidotes
incompatability
219
Q

What are the pre-entry V/S parameters?

A 
BP < 160/100
HR< 120
RR <24
Oral temp >100F (DOT is 97-99.5)
recent medical hx
new medications
open skin conditions or severe sunburn
chemical sensitivity
Upon concurrence of paramedic and assistant Safety officer.
220
Q

How is the seven (7) person team made up?

A 
2-entry
2-backup
1-decon leader
1-hazmat group supervisor
1-hazmat safety officer
221
Q

How is zone 4 notified for a hazmat response?

A

Through Boca Raton communications center by direct telephone line and Boca will contact Delray beach communications center.

222
Q

Level A CPC gives what protection

A

highest skin, respiratory , and eye protection

1991 NFPA standard.

223
Q

Who gets notified when situation is IDLH and involving extremely hazardous substances?

A 
Need for Toxmedic
(4) FRO for decon ops
palm beach county dept emergency mgt. PBCDEM
county warning point CWP
state warning point SWP
Florida division of emergency mgt
224
Q

The heat stress index is defined as?

A

above 90F .

225
Q

How often does Level A CPC get tested?

A

Annually.

226
Q

Radiation action levels?

A

2 x background requires high and low range dosimetry.

227
Q

When does a person become assigned to research of a chemical?

A

When the level of response is II, III, IV.

228
Q

is a level 3 incident

A

Severe incident
injuries or deaths may have already occurred
large area, impacting essential services
large amt of hazardous substance or LIMITED VERY hazardous sub.

229
Q

What is the number of resources that should be used for researching a chemical?

A

at least 2 preferably 3.

230
Q

Individual response units will acknowledge what information on PBCF tactical channel fire main?

A

Enroute to call and request a channel for assignment.
arrival at incident
commencing EXTENDED operations - (if after 4 hours)
Completed assignment and available.

231
Q

Medical exams are conducted when?

A 
at least q 12 months
prior to assignment and exit from a team
as deemed necessary by a physician
upon s/s of an exposure.
cases of suspected exposure  above a PEL.
232
Q

Operational persons will operate in what mode during hazmat incidents

A

Defensive mode.

233
Q

electrolyte solutions are ?

A

50/50 .

234
Q

The county Emergency response plan will be reviewed how often?

A

AT LEAST annually.

235
Q

Who assumes command in the absence of a formal command structure or IC?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

236
Q

Technical resource assistance includes what resources?

A

agencies and resources listed on RHMRT resource list
chemtrec/ national response center
industry technical representatives and hotlines
manufacturer and product institutes
governmental or environmental resources.

237
Q

What are the shipping papers call for a train?

A

waybills are shipping for products- the CONSIST gives order of cars.

238
Q

How often does post entry eval occur?

A

immediately after exiting and 10min.

239
Q

Purpose of establishing control zones?

A

designate areas of specific function
limit levels of contamination
provide areas of safety for first responders and public

240
Q

What is the minimum level of CPC when monitoring initially?

A

Level B

241
Q

Support Zone- COLD zone critera

A

stages command and control functions
functional area for decontaminated victims
area for staging, media and non-essential personnel.

242
Q

Hazmat control guidelines include:

A 
plugging and packing of containers
product transfer
overpack drums
flairing of gases
direction of defensive operations
diking, confinement and redirection of materials
Neutralizaton
venting guidelines
vapor dispersion or suppression.

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