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PBCFR SOG's Flashcards

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0
Q

What defines level 2 QAS criteria?

A

Buildings that have complex systems such as HVAC or fire suppresion systems… (airport terminals and Hospitals)

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1
Q

What comprises level 1 QAS criteria

A

Strip malls w/ anchor stores greater than 10,000sqft
Buildings 3 stories or higher
Any self storage facility

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2
Q

Where are level 2 QAS information found on site?

A

In the fire control room or security office that is staffed 24/7.

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3
Q

Who determines additional QAS’s outside the criteria?

A

Battalion chief level by appropriate battalion chief

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4
Q

Time utilized to conduct a QAS shall be documented in ARI under what code?

A

FF-022

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5
Q

Changes to a QAS are done in what progams?

A

Existing QAS in fire zone and the EZ-QAS

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6
Q

Alterations or re-draws to a QAS should be done if what things change on reinspection?

A 
Floor plan 
Occupancy
Storage
Fire suppression systems
H20 supply
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7
Q

What are the drawing requirements within fire zone for a QAS?

A 
Length and width of the building
Distance between the 2 closest hydrants
At least 1 street
North arrow must be at the top of the page on the R side with the arrow pointing to the top or to the R.
Text box to contain number of floors.
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8
Q

What are the tabs in EZ-QAS?

A 
Access hazards
Construction
Fire protection
H20 supply
Contact info
Survey info
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9
Q

Who determines the schedule for QAS’s?

A

Battalion chief

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10
Q

Once the QAS is completed who gets a completed and printed copy?

A

District chief

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11
Q

Who may delete QAS numbers and assignments?

A

District chief

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12
Q

Where are the QAS’s located?

A

DC’s vehicle
District captains vehicle
1st due apparatus

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13
Q

Officer responsible for a single company ?

A

Tactical officer

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14
Q

Single resource at the rank of district captain or higher?

A

Command officer

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15
Q

What does the command sequence consist of?

A 
Incident priorities
Situation evaluation
Strategies and tactics
Development of IAP
Evaluation of IAP
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16
Q

What are the incident priorities ?

A

LIPE

Life safety
Incident stabilization
Proprerty conservation
Evidence preservation

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17
Q

What is the situation evaluation acronym?

A

COAL WAS WEALTH

Construction
Occupancy
Apparatus and personnel
Life safety 
Water supply
Appliances
Street conditions
Weather 
Exposers

Time of day
Hazards

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18
Q

Situation evaluation is based on what factor?

A

Critical incident factors

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19
Q

Strategy is defined as?

A

What needs to be done-

RECEOVS
Rescue
Extinguishment
Confinement
Exposures
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
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20
Q

Which mode of operation is assumed on initial incidents?

A

Offensive mode of operation

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21
Q

What needs to be in effect / announced when transiitioning in modes of operation?

A

Emergency traffic and remains until

Completed PAR’S and personnel are out of the building

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22
Q

Offensive attack is defined as?

A

Active dynamic problem that requires immediate action

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23
Q

Defensive attack is defined as?

A

Advanced stage of fire w insufficient resources and no life safety factors exist.

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24
Q

Investigating is defined as?

A

No clear viable indications.

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25
Q

The who, what, when, where define what?

A

Tactical sequence

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26
Q

Who is responsible for a formal written IAP on large incidents?

A

Planning sections chief.

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27
Q

What drives the IAP?

A

Strategic decisions and overall operational approach.

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28
Q

IAP is defined as?

A

Tactical assignments and work plan required to achieve the strategic objective and solve the problem.

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29
Q

How often is a size up and evacuation of the IAP conducted ?

A

At least every 10 minutes

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30
Q

What requires activation of the ICS?

A

When the involvement of 2 or ore companies are needed

Hazmat incidents

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31
Q

What is the numerical requirement for hazmat incidents ?

A

NFPA 472 OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120

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32
Q

Who establishes command initially ?

A

The 1st arriving UNIT.

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33
Q

If multiple units arrive at the same time who establishes command ?

A

1 st arriving station officer.

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34
Q

What are the initial actions of the IC initially and what should be completed?

A

CAN and 360

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35
Q

What is required for command to be transferred or assumed

A

Person must be on scene
Face to face or radio
Given report of : Current situation
Plan
Mode of operation
Unit locations
Assignments
IC to notify dispatch that command has been assumed or transferred

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36
Q

For larger complex incidents or longer than. hrs what should be activated?

A

6hrs and incident management team or tactical command unit.

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37
Q

What defines “termination”

A

Where the incident has de- escalated to a point where all units have returned to service.

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38
Q

Radio transmissions should start with what.

A

ID of the receiver then the ID of the sender

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39
Q

If an interruption occurs who continues communication?

A

Original communication to tell other unit to “stand by” and continue message

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40
Q

How are building sides designated?

A

Alpha bravo Charlie delta

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41
Q

What is the fire ground simplex channel and what is the radius?

A

15a and approx 1 mile

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42
Q

Definition of a PAR?

A

Indicates the total number of people in and out of the hazard areas and have been accounted for.

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43
Q

“water on fire” means?

A

The seat of the fire has been located and water is being applied.

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44
Q

“fire under control” means?

A

The fire has been CONTROLLED and further EXTENSION ELIMINATED and EXPOSURES PROTECTED

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45
Q

“Fire out” means?

A

Overhaul is complete.

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46
Q

“extrication in progress” means?

A

Extrication has begun.

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47
Q

“Extrication complete” means?

A

That all pts have been removed - no more pt’s exists and no more extrication exists.

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48
Q

Who is responsible for noting pertinent changing conditions on scene?

A

Each firefighter thru the chain of command

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49
Q

When is a “Mayday” called?

A

For any lost, trapped or disoriented firefighter.

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50
Q

Mayday procedure?

A

Firefighter to declare mayday
IC to declare emergency traffic and PAR
Possible activation of the RIC
Mayday to be cleared 2x by dispatches

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51
Q

Emergency evacuation means?

A

Imminent danger on scene or in the area.

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52
Q

Emergency evacuation procedure.

A 
IC declares emergency evacuation
Emergency traffic in effect
Air horns 1-10 sec the silence for 10 sec for a total of 50sec.
Evacuation of area
PAR
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53
Q

What is PBCFR and PBSO code for help?

A

10-24

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54
Q

What does “on the air” mean?

A

Used by either or stations that only one unit is available.

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55
Q

Emergency response is defined as?

A

An immediate threat to life safety and or property

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56
Q

Non emergency response defend as?

A

No immediate threat to life safety and or property
Usually for second due units
Should remain on fire main

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57
Q

What response is for the quint and platform in and out of their zones?

A

In zone code 3

Out of zone code 1

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58
Q

How doe the canteen respond?

A

Code 1

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59
Q

Dry brush response is what?

A

1st engine and rescue code 3 all others code 1

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60
Q

What calls require code 3 responses?

A

Small LP leak w/o fire
Chemical emergency
Fuel spill leak
Car in canal w/ no report of victims

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61
Q

What calls require staging for law enforcement then code 1 then code 3?

A

Fights, assaults, domestics, shootings, stabbings, and 911 hang ups

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62
Q

What is level 1 staging?

A

Units are ready for immediate deployment

Multi company responses

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63
Q

Who reports directly to the incident on fire calls? Or which units report directly?

A

1st apparatus with a fire pump
1st rescue
District capt
DC

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64
Q

Where should 2nd due apparatus with a fire pump stage?

A

At a hydrant closest to the incident.

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65
Q

Level 2 staging is for what incidents?

A

Multiple alarms
MCI level 2. (11-20) victims
Hazmat incidents
Airport index level 3 alerts

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66
Q

Who is in charge at level 2 staging?

A

Staging area manager as appointed by the IC or Operations section chief

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67
Q

Who is the staging area manager and what can they do?

A

Usually a single person resource or a single person from a multi unit company
Can request units from dispatch to meet the IC’s par levels or requirements

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68
Q

Staging at a Hi-rise fire is where?

A

1-2 floors below the fire floor.

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69
Q

Definition of “Base”?

A

Staging of resources prior to entering the incident and is usually several blocks away from incident.

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70
Q

Safety officers fall under what NFPA number?

A

NFPA 1500

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71
Q

What is the form that the ISO must use on scene?

A

Tactical safety check sheet

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72
Q

Where does the ISO fall in the ICS structure?

A

Command staff

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73
Q

Where does the documentation go in ARI for the ISO?

A

Under the units narrative page

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74
Q

When can the ISO be released ?

A

Not until released by the IC or the designee

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75
Q

Can the ISO be re-assigned?

A

Yes to meet incident priorities and cannot hold multiple positions.

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76
Q

What is the term used for multiple safety officers?

A

Assistant safety officers

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77
Q

Who do assistant safety officers reports to?

A

ISO

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78
Q

When is an ISO needed?

A

On incidents that become so large or complex it threatens responder safety
Hazmat incidents
Wildland fires that have 4 or more units working
IDLH
Hi hazard training

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79
Q

What needs to be established safety wise on hazmat incidents?

A

Hazmat assistant safety officer

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80
Q

Who can fill the role of hazmat Assistant safety officer?

A

A person trained to the level of at least technician.

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81
Q

What form must be filled out of hazmat calls and by whom?

A

ICS 208 HM and by the ISO.

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82
Q

Health and safety officer responsibility ?

A

Monitor and direct overall safety program or the dept

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83
Q

What can the health and safety officer investigate ?

A

Incidents involving career and volunteer firefighters in which ALS care was rendered, becoming non-ambulatory or fatality

MVC where all above apply and involving civilians

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84
Q

If a crew member suffers an SCBA problem beyond a low air alarm or temp alarm ?

A

Entire crew must exit

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85
Q

Contact crew integrity by?

A

Voice, touch, sight, and line signals

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86
Q

Mayday procedures ?

A 
Request mayday 
IC to declare emergency traffic
LUNAR
Location- last known location
Unit- assigned to
Name- ff, lt.
Air supply- remaining
Resources -what is needed
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87
Q

Existing hose is being replaced by?

A

Red/ white and yellow/ white

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88
Q

If unable to get of the structure what should you do?

A

Lay horizontal in doorway or hallway
Shine flashlight to ceiling
Pass device
make tapping noises

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89
Q

Who does command need to notify upon RIC activation ?

A

trauma hawk

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90
Q

Who is responsible for updating the shift and station assignments - what in particular ?

A

Company officer- UIP’s PAT’s and computer

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91
Q

What is considered full bunker gear?

A 
Bunker pants and coat
Suspenders
Gloves
Boots
Helmet
SCBA mask
Nomes hood
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92
Q

What manufacturer of bunker gear do we use?

A

Cairns

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93
Q

When handling hose what is the minimum PPE?

A

Helmet, gloves, eye protection

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94
Q

What must be worn in the roadway minimum PPE?

A

ANSI approved traffic vest

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95
Q

When can an SCBA be removed in an IDLH?

A

When overhaul, ventilation and atmospheric monitoring is complete

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96
Q

What 3 things have to be completed before an SCBA can be removed in an IDLH ?

A

Overhaul , ventilation, atmospheric monitoring

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97
Q

What information is on a PAT?

A

Name and rank

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98
Q

How is a D/O PAT placed on the accountably board when at the pump panel?

A

Upside down and at the bottom of the UIP

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99
Q

What does it mean when a D/O PAT is upside down and at the bottom of the UIP?

A

driver is at the pump panel

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100
Q

What is level 1 accountability ?

A

Start of the day and PAT’s on the unit UIP’s

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101
Q

What is level 2 accountability or when does it need to be in place?

A

When multiple units are operating in a hazardous area simultaneously

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102
Q

Where are UIP’s placed on the command board with level 2 accountability?

A

Left side for working units and right side for support.

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103
Q

When is level 3 accountability established?

A

Hi-rise incidents
Below grade incidents
Hazmat incidents
Complex incidents that require use of an SCBA

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104
Q

Who is in charge to track accountability on a hazmat incident?

A

Site access control leader

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105
Q

At a Hi-rise incident who tracks accountability ?

A

Lobby control leader

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106
Q

What is given when requesting a PAR

A

Unit
Assignment
Location

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107
Q

What are the PAT colors?

A 
White- chief officers/ command officers
Red- company officers / tactical officers
Blue- paramedics/ ff
Yellow- firefighter
Black - D/O
Brown- volunteer
Green - EOD swat
108
Q

What colors are the UIP’s

A 
White- command staff
Red- engines
Blue- rescues
Black- quints/ platforms
Black - tenders
Green - brush
109
Q

What colors are the helmet shields?

A

White- chief officer
Red- officers
Black - D/O
Orange- probationary

110
Q

What is needed to start interior fire fighting

A

At least 4 persons

111
Q

What 2 things define an IDLH?

A

O2 <19% or >23%

Any fire beyond the incipient stage

112
Q

When can the 2 in 2 out rule be violated ?

A

When immediate life threading situation exists and or to prevent loss of life based on findings or suspicion.

113
Q

When should RIC be assigned and consist of?

A

Established as soon as possible
With a minimum of 2 persons w/ full PPE, tools, outside the IDLH
Should be an entire engine crew

114
Q

Duties of RIC?

A

Provide emergency assistance to FF operating in IDLH in case of a lost or trapped FF.

Perform a 360 and survey hazards, structural stability and egress

115
Q

When should RIC be deployed?

A

Risk benefit indicates
Lost tapped or injured FF
Low air alarm or pass device w no or undetermined PAR
FF separated for crew and no radio contact

IC to have dedicated rescue

116
Q

RIC is trained to what standard?

A

State and federal guidelines

117
Q

Who is RIC on a Hi-rise that results in a second alarm or greater?

A

Special ops

118
Q

If the special ops group is reassigned from RIC in a hi-rise or second alarm or greater who assumes this assignment?

A

A second special ops group

119
Q

What is contained in a lock/out tag out kit?

A

6 padlocks w 2 keys
6 do not operate tags
2 multi lock hasps

120
Q

What is the procedure for lock out tag out on residential incidents.?

A

Breaker to off
Place do not operate tag
Place in obvious place
Explanation to owner as to problem

LP gas leak
- same as above
Valve to off
Tag w completed info
May be removed for gas company to apply their tag.
121
Q

What is the commercial application for lock out/ tag out?

A

Same as residential but cannot be removed until directed by the IC

LP leak

Same as residential but cannot be removed until directed by the IC

122
Q

When can a lockout/tag out tag not be placed or removed without IC direction?

A

Sprinkler control valves

Elevators with building maintenance or elevator company OS.

123
Q

What information should be placed on the elevator tag?

A

Unit, station #, dispatch number, person in charge

124
Q

Where are TIC’s assigned?

A

Every 1st out engine/quint or rescue pumper along with inside the district capt and DC vehicle

125
Q

Who can be consulted as to these of a TIC in and IDLH?

A

Safety officer can be consulted as to the use in non intrinsically safe environments

126
Q

Who is responsible for the TIC?

A

Officer is to check each day

127
Q

Definition of primary search ?

A

Indications of a salvage life AND the structure is still tenable

No primary searches with a fully involved structure and must respond to command

Fire development determines primary search

128
Q

Which areas should be searched first?

A

Reported victim location

Most severely threatened

Largest area

Remained of fire area

Exposed areas

129
Q

What is the benchmark for primary search complete.

A

All clea

130
Q

When victims are found what must be reported?

A

Location found

of victims

Egress means

131
Q

Secondary search occurs when?

A

After primary search And when conditions permit

Should be done by a different crew

132
Q

First company officer to operate hose lines off of what with regards to fire attack operations.

A

Tank water

133
Q

What is the exception to using tank water initially in fire attack operations.

A

When sufficient resources on initial response and water supply is close enough for a reliable water supply

134
Q

Second due engine function with fire attack operations?

A

Water supply

135
Q

Limitations of flow without water supply?

A

Can NOT flow more than 200 gpm

136
Q

DO to advise CO or IC when?

A

At 50% tank water

At 25% tank water and to evacuate

137
Q

Prior to laying lines DO must?

A

Check water supply is secure and functional

138
Q

DO is responsible to notify or advise who and about what ?

A

Location And type of water supply to be communicated to IC

139
Q

The IC can coordinate with who to boost pressure or maintain hydrant pressures?

A

FOO

140
Q

In an area with no hydrants what position should be established?

A

Water supply officer.

141
Q

When is an offensive attack defined and considered ?

A

After primary search and when fire is still I controllable stage with no evidence of structural collapse or failure.

142
Q

Most residential fires 1-2 rooms can be contained with?

A

1 3/4 flowing MINIMUM 100gpm

143
Q

Beyond the room of origin how can it be controlled?

A

2 1/2 with MINIMUM 200 gpm

144
Q

What has the greatest impact on outcome on the incident with fire attack?

A

The initial attack

145
Q

Before additional lines can be put in place what has to happen ?

A

Initial attack line must be I place and flowing water

146
Q

Definition of “static hose pack”

A

For stretches that exceed the limitations of pre connects and allow for rapid FF carry and deployment

147
Q

PBCFR carries 2 static hose packs- what are they?

A

100 ft 1 3/4 coil pack

200 ft 2 1/2 horseshoe pack

148
Q

What class and percent foam is used on all fires?

A

.25% class A foam

149
Q

Placement of hose considerations should be?

A

Protecting FF during primary search

Protecting victims and occupant access

Confine or extinguish fire

Protecting exposures

150
Q

Back up lines must be?

A

Same size and length

151
Q

Support operations of offensive attacks include?

A

Forceable entry, overhaul, and salvage.

152
Q

Defensive attack operations are aimed at what?

A

Protecting exposures

153
Q

When can elevated streams be used?

A

When the building or portion of building is a loss and no FF operations are taking place inside

154
Q

Collapse zone is defined how?

A

1 1/2 times the building height.

Established on all defensive operations

155
Q

On defensive attacks no interior operations can be considered until what?

A

Truss and roof conditions have been evaluated.

156
Q

What should be used to control energized electrical equipment such as a power pole?

A

Fog pattern amped at the base of the pole to protect exposures and surrounding area.

157
Q

Lock out of downed power lines generally occurs when?

A

After 3 attempts to re- energize

158
Q

Power lines become hot or rest by what methods?

A

Manual switch is operated

Automatic reclosing

Induction- near another line

Back feeding

159
Q

“reel memory” is what

A

A power line that curls or rolls back on itself

160
Q

An exclusionary zone is defines as?

A

The distance equal to 1 span between power poles

161
Q

What actions to be take on below ground transformers?

A

Let burn and protect exposures.

162
Q

What actions to take on above ground transformers?

A

Allow to burn until utility company can extinguish with dry chem or Ariel device

163
Q

How are substation fires handled?

A

Consult utility company

164
Q

How are electrical vault fires handled?

A

Allow to burn, protect exposures, and consider decontamination

165
Q

Situational awareness is defined as

A

Process to identify, comprehend, analyze, and react to a critical situation.

166
Q

Situational awareness includes what?

A

Closest exit, air consumption, fire conditions, and scene safety.

167
Q

What is the objective of air management?

A

To monitor and manage consumption with functions to exit IDLH without activation of a low air alarm

168
Q

Initial entry with SCBA is minimum PSI?

A

4050

169
Q

Air consumption is effected by?

A

Physical fitness, exertion, emotional stability , work being performed

170
Q

When must officer be notified at what % or PSI?

A

2250 or 50 %

171
Q

What is a low air alarm a true emergency ?

A

Because it indicates the consumption into the reserve air area.

172
Q

To conduct a large area search what is the minimum to start?

A

Minimum of 6 persons

TIC

Level 3 accountability

RIC at strategic locations

173
Q

Tools for large area search can include what?

A

Rope bag or 200 ft of dry fire hose.

174
Q

Response to fire alarms is how?

A

Code 1 with discretion to code 3 by company officer.

175
Q

When can a unit cancel on fire alarms?

A

Upon monitoring company notification of a false alarm AND proper code reset.

176
Q

What must units do when business or homeowner states that no emergency exsists with fire alarm

A

Still respond code 1 to verify

177
Q

When can a alarm be silenced?

A

After a through search off the building for fire conditions.

178
Q

How do crews respond to a water flow alarm?

A

Code 3

Check panel, locate risers, check for flow.

179
Q

If no knox key exsists for building who gets contacted ?

A

BOSS or bureau of safety services

180
Q

Who do crews contact for malfunctioning elevators?

A

The buildings elevator service company.

181
Q

What is the activity sequence for elevator operations?

A 
Determine location, 
establish contact with passengers, 
assess passengers,
 identify malfunctioning elevator, 
Secure power
182
Q

How do you ensure hoist way doors are closed?

A

Send FF to each floor and push each door toward the closed position

183
Q

Where is the main disconnect located for elevators and how many are there?

A

Within arms reach of the elevator machine room and there are usually 2 power switches.

184
Q

Phase 1 elevator operations is?

A

Fire service key to return car to main floor

185
Q

If the car is within 3 ft of a landing how handled?

A

Power off
Open hoist way
Switch to “stop”
Passengers out with ladder or step stool.

186
Q

Elevator car greater than 3 ft?

A

Consider SPLOPS
Power off to elevator and adjoining elevators
Ladder to top of car the. Ladder into car.
Switch to stop
Passengers out

187
Q

What do civilians need PPE for elevator ops?

A

Ladder belt, rescue knot, helmet and rope.

188
Q

When does elevator operations become a rescue?

A

When firefighters must enter and operate within the hoist way.

189
Q

Who responsible for personnel being seat belted in ?

A

DO

190
Q

On residential structure fires company officer ca slow units to code 1 and instruct the. To go where?

A

Level 1 staging.

191
Q

“Working fire “ is defined as?

A

Any fire requiring the use of 1 or more handlines for fire attack AND the use of all the initial responding engines and rescues .

192
Q

Incident management of residential structure fires consists of?

A

Establishing command
Directing incoming resources
Command sequence

193
Q

1st arriving engine assignment to residential structure fire?

A

Identify problem

Primary search

Interior firefighting off tank water

Secure water supply

194
Q

1st arriving rescue assignment on residential fires?

A

Incident priorities then other functions

195
Q

2nd arriving engine on residential fires?

A

Reverse lay

Water supply then support functions - fire attack or RIC

196
Q

3rd arriving engine on residential fire?

A

Fire attack or support functions

197
Q

Second arriving rescue?

A

medical unit and primary responsibility is EMS for civilians and FF

If no EMS then rehab.

If reassigned the third rescue needs to be dispatched

198
Q

Where does the second rescue report to and with what?

A

Command post with gear and stretcher

199
Q

1st arriving quint or platform assignment on residential fires?

A

Truck company functions and the secondary search after fire extinguishment

200
Q

First arriving chief officer assignment on residential?

A

Assumes command and incident objectives

201
Q

1st arriving district capt. Assignment on residential fires ?

A

360 and safety officer

202
Q

Second arriving chief officer assignment residential fires.?

A

Command staff or general staff/ aide

203
Q

1st arriving engine on commercial fires?

A

360
Identify
Determines strategy confinement, ventilation, shelter in place
Secure water supply

204
Q

First arriving rescue to commercial fire?

A

Incident priorities
Determine access and egress
Primary search or fire attack

205
Q

Second arriving engine on commercial fire?

A

Supply the fire protection system

Secure and water source

206
Q

Third arriving engine to commercial fire?

A

Support functions or truck functions

207
Q

Second arriving rescue commercial fires.?

A

Medical unit

208
Q

First arriving chief, district capt, and second arriving chief officer on commercial fires?

A

Same as residential fires.

209
Q

Arrival report for vehicle fires consists of?

A

Conditions actions and needs with command sequence

210
Q

What level accountability to be set for a vehicle fire?

A

Level 1 accountability

211
Q

Rescue job on vehicle fire?

A

EMS- the. Back to IC for reassignment

212
Q

Fire attack to consist of on vehicle fires ?

A

Upwind and approach from 45 degrees and from sides.

213
Q

What is the highest priority in car fires ?

A

RESCUE

214
Q

What is the minimum flow for care fires?

A

Minimum 100gpm with 1 3/4

215
Q

Overhaul on car fires consists of what?

A

Dc the battery by cutting both positive and negative

Search for victims

Investigator contact

216
Q

When must an investigator be contacted on car fires?

A

Any vehicle that was stolen

Where ALS care was needed and transported

Fatality

217
Q

Brush fire response includes what units?

A

Brush unit and engine to be a ask force.

218
Q

Arrival reports for brush fire includes?

A

Acreage involved , access routes, direction of spread, exposures, vegetation involved .

219
Q

Definition of a “ flanking attack”

A

Attacking the sides of a fire from an anchor point to the head.

220
Q

Definition of “direct attack”?

A

Attacking from the head of the fire which is the most dangerous.

221
Q

Definition of “indirect attack”?

A

Protecting exposures and allowing the fire to burn to a different location better suited for fire control

222
Q

What is the primary goal during indirect attacks with brush fires?

A

Exposure control

223
Q

Mop up is considered to be with brush fires?

A

Wetting down within a 50 ft area of the fire control line

224
Q

If water supply is short with brush fires where should the water go?

A

To the burning material

225
Q

What is the minimum PPE for brush fires?

A 
Fire boots
Bunker pants or brush gear
Gloves
Helmet 
Fire shelter
226
Q

What is the acronym for safety considerations on a brush fire?

A

LCES

Lookouts
Communications
Escape routes
Safety zones

227
Q

How often should crews be rehabbed during brush fires?

A

Every 30 minutes

228
Q

Considerations for apparatus placement on vehicle accidents?

A

Traffic flow
Fuel leaks and hazmat
Access to hose lines
Powerlines

229
Q

1st arriving engine on vehicle accidents?

A

Scene stabilization
Vehicle stabilization
Patient care
Extrication

230
Q

What vehicles must be chocked or blocked?

A

Vehicles on side , on a barrier, upside down

231
Q

What type of hose line when extrication is needed?

A

1 3/4

232
Q

Before moving vehicles rescue personnel should do what?

A

Use orange traffic paint to mark vehicles

233
Q

Who and how to notify if it necessary to leave scene on MVC?

A

Law enforcement through dispatch

234
Q

1st arriving rescue to MVC?

A

EMS

235
Q

1st arriving district captain on MVC?

A

360

Safety officer or establish medical group

236
Q

PBCFR is trained to what level for HAZMAT?

A

1st responder operations level

237
Q

Positions for hazmat calls physical locations staging ?

A

Position upwind and uphill

238
Q

Initial actions for HAZMAT incident ?

A 
Uphill upwind
Retreat if necessary 
Establish command
Level 3 accountability 
Defensive measures only
239
Q

What book MUST be used initially on HAMAT incidents ?

A

ERG

240
Q

First responding unit should use defensive control measures to include?

A

RIPN

Recognition
Isolation-
Protection
Notification

241
Q

Recognition n hazmat incidents include?

A 
Quantity and type material
Occupancy and location
Container shape and size
Physical and chemical properties 
Marking and colors
UN numbers, placards or labels 
Shipping papers 
MSDS
QAS
242
Q

Isolation on hazmat call means?

A

Initial isolation zones per ERG

Area of safe refuge for contaminated persons

243
Q

Defensive actions for protection area want for Hazmat?

A 
Damming
Diking
Diverting
Vapor supression
Remote shut off valves
Fire supression and exposure protections 
Moving or relocating containers
244
Q

What position MUST be established on hazmat calls?

A

Assistant safety officer

245
Q

What is a rescue vs recovery in water incidents?

A

Rescue is considered less than 1 hr- recovery generally tot law enforcement

246
Q

How many people needed to start dive rescue operation?

A
  1. 3 Trained persons and 1 IC
247
Q

When can dive operations commence with less people?

A

Where firefighters find or suspect an immenent life threatening situation where immediate action may prevent the loss of life

248
Q

How does SPLOPS respond to dive incidents ?

A

Code 3 as long as level 1 divers in the water or until dive operation has terminated .

249
Q

What should be established on DIve calls with witnesses?

A

Last scene point and marked with a pelican float.

250
Q

What must be established for personnel working on scene with dive operations?

A 
Hot zones established
All personnel working within to have PFD
Level 3 accountability 
Medical group establish 
Declare mode of operation
251
Q

What form to be used in water incidents?

A

Water rescue accountability worksheet.

252
Q

What are the benchmarks for water related incidents ?

A 
Diver entry and exit
Victim located
Victim extricated
Change in mode of operation
Termination
253
Q

Dive signals what are they - Tender to Diver

A

2- change direction and take up slack
3- come to surface
4- stop and stay down surface unsafe

254
Q

What the one signals- Diver to Tender

A

2- give slack
3- found something
4- help deploy the backup diver

255
Q

Level 1 dive operations equipment consists of and what personnel?

A

Mask fins , snorkel
Primary diver
Back up diver
line tender

256
Q

Level 2 dive operations consist of ?

A

Diver in full scuba gear and dry suit
Back up diver
90% diver

257
Q

What patterns are to be used with dive operations and when?

A

Semi circular search when last scene point is established

Parallel search when no last scene point established.

258
Q

What are the mission parameters with dive operations?

A

Limited to inland waterways, lakes, pools, canals and oceans less than 40 ft
Bottom times for oceans limited to bottom time and decompression

259
Q

Air supply benchmarks with regards to water incidents are?

A

1000 psi- discontinue task and prepare for surfacing

800 psi- immediate surfacing in safe manner.

260
Q

How Dow you know to immediately surface during water operations

A

@800 psi red light in heads up display with activate.

261
Q

What is the maximum dive time for a single diver?

A

One full bottle by one hour rest.

262
Q

When can divers NOT enter the water?

A

When water is moving greater than 3mph.

263
Q

What is the minimum to establish a landing zone?

A

3 person engine company , quint or rescue pumper

Area of 120x 120

264
Q

What is the minimum PPE for LZ?

A

Helmet, eye And ear protection.

265
Q

Where should personnel stand for landing helicopter ?

A

Marsheller to the center of the LZ and rotor guards to the side until acknowledged by aircraft.
Once on final approach personnel to move to L front corner of the LZ

266
Q

Approaching helicopter should be at what degree?

A

30 degrees

267
Q

How long must the LZ be maintained for after departure?

A

For a minimum of 2 minutes

268
Q 
Acronyms:
LIPE
COAL WAS WEALTH
RECEOVS
LCES
RIPN
A

Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation, evidence preservation
Construction, occupancy, apparatus/ personnel, life safety, water supply,

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