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Old Officer study material > SPLOPS COMPLETE COMBINED > Flashcards

SPLOPS COMPLETE COMBINED Flashcards

0
Q

Organic peroxides are composed of what?

A

an oxidizer and compound that contains a fuel.

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1
Q

what is vapor density?

A

the ability of the vapor to rise or sink when compared to air

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2
Q

NFPA definition of Flammable liquid?

NFPA definition of combustable liquid?

A

liquids have flash points less than 100 degrees F

liquids have flash points between 100 and 200 degrees F

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3
Q

definition of vapor pressure

A

ability of material to evaporate.

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4
Q

DOT definition of flammable liquid?

A

liquid have a flash point less than 140 degrees F.

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5
Q

Definition of solubility?

A

ability of a substance to mix completely with another substance.

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6
Q

what are the common units of measurement for pressure?

A

760 mmhg
760 torr
1 atm
14.7psi

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7
Q

what are non-polar substances?

A

gasolines, oils, petroleum based products.

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8
Q

Home propane tank pressures are regulated at?

A

working pressure of 240psi
pressure relief @ 375psi
testing pressure @ 480psi.

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9
Q

the amount of time it takes for half the atoms in a sample to decay is what?

A

half- life.

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10
Q

How is vapor density measured (2 ways)?

A

in relation to air being 1 and MW of air being 29.

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11
Q

Radioactive particles cause damage by 2 ways:

A

disrupting cell division

forming H202 chemicals in the body.

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12
Q

Pyrophoric solids ignite at what temperature?

A

at or below 130 degrees F

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13
Q

Acidity is based on what factor?

A

amount of H ions in solution.

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14
Q

Definition of corrosivity?

A

solid, liquid, or gas that burns, irritates, or destructively attacks organic tissues.

Either acids or bases.

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15
Q

Properties of Beta particles

A

travel distance of approx 30ft.
moderate size particle
moderate energy emited.

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16
Q

OSHA radiation exposure limits are ?

A

3 rem/ quarter or 5 rem/ year.

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17
Q

Definition of viscosity?

A

ability of a liquid to be poured.

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18
Q

defintion of temperature

A

measure of heat energy.

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19
Q

Definition of flash point?

A

minimum temp of a LIQUID can ignite a flash in the vapor space of the liquid.

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20
Q

What does OC and CC mean with relation to flammable liquids?

A

open cup and closed cup testing.

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21
Q

Definition of contamination?

A

when a radioactive material becomes attached to something.

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22
Q

Radiation is measured in what units?

A

RAD- radiation absorbed dose

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23
Q

Definition of solute?

A

material in LESSER concentration in a mixture.

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24
Q

Expansion ratio for LNG- liquid natural gas?

A

600:1

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25
Q

Definition of “ignition temperature or Auto ignition temperature”?

A

Temperature at which a materials vapors start to burn without flame or other ignition source.

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26
Q

Which “TYPE” of organic peroxides are the most unstable and forbidden in transport?

A

Type A and are usually dissolved in a solvent to prevent the chemical reaction.

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27
Q

DOT definition of compressed gas?

A

pressure of 40psi at 70 degrees F.

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28
Q

Difference between gamma and x-rays origination?

A

Gamma originate in the nucleus and x-rays outside the the nucleus.

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29
Q

By doubling the distance in regards to radioactivity what happens?

A

the energy is decreased by 1/4.

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30
Q

oxidizers and corrosives make what class of chemical?

A

inorganic perioxides

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31
Q

definition of sublimation

A

the ability of a solid to change state directly to a gas.

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32
Q

Definition of LEL and UEL?

A

concentration of vapor from a liquid

or flammable gas in air.

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33
Q

Properties of alpha particles

A

shortest traveling distance at about 4”
largest of radioactive particles
lowest energy emmited.

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34
Q

Cyrogenics are defined at what temperature?

A

Boiling point - 130 degrees F

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35
Q

1% equals how many PPM?

A

10,000.

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36
Q

Expansion ratio of LPG- liquified petroleum gas?

A

250:1

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37
Q

Definition of Solvent?

A

material in GREATER concentration in a mixture

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38
Q

Emmited energy as a result of a change in the nucleus or its atoms is called?

A

Radioactivity.

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39
Q

What is the flash point of gasoline?

A

-45 degrees F

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40
Q

Definition of specific gravity?

A

the weight of a material with reference to water wether it will sink or float. Water being 1.0.

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41
Q

Properties of Neutrons

A

Travels the furthest and requires significant shielding
size is larger than beta but 1/4 the size of alpha.
found generally with atomic weapons.

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42
Q

what percentage of space must remain in the container of a compressed gas?

A

15%

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43
Q

the lower the flash point the ________ flammability of the liquid.

A

“Higher”

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44
Q

Easiest and most dangerous way for exposure from hazardous materials is?

A

through the respiratory system.

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45
Q

A good donning team will a backup team ready in how many minutes?

A

less than 1.

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46
Q

Describe level B protection?

A

NFPA 1992-highest level of respiratory protection
Protects against contacts with spills or splashes.
not- fully encapsulated –no permeation barrier/ just “Penetration”
not to be worn with dangerous gases or vapors
no thermal protection.

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47
Q

The first glove as the underglove should be which type?

A

nitrile - thin surgical type glove.

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48
Q

what is the minimum ratio to dress in protective clothing?

A

1:1

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49
Q

NFPA donning recommendations V/S?

A 
BP < 150/90
HR < 70% of max HR (220-age)
RR<24/min
Oral temp 97f - 99.5f
Core temp 98f-100.5f
No sick S/S  or new medication including OTC for 72hrs 
No ETOH in last 6hrs
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50
Q

where do instructions for donning and doffing clothing come from?

A

manufacturer.

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51
Q

Describe Level C protection?

A

NFPA 1993- Respiratory uses a APR (lower respiratory protection)
Allows for splash or leak protection from liquids that are KNOWN.
Does not constitute a health hazard if exposed.
Limited to support zone activities.

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52
Q

The best course of action when determining what to wear in a flammable environment is?

A

Change the atmosphere.

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53
Q

What issues are to be considered when wearing chemical protective clothing?

A

Buddy system
communications
working with tools
In- sight work.

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54
Q

Normalized break-through time is defined as?

A

0.1ug/cm2/min @80.6F.

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55
Q

What is the function of a butyl glove?

A

primarily to protect the ensemble glove not chemical resistance.

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56
Q

If a chemical does not appear on the clothing for resistance, what can be done?

A

consult a chemical compatibility and product properties chart.

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57
Q

level of protection for doffing persons out of CPC is determined by who?

A

safety officer and or group sector supervisor.

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58
Q

What is a major limitation of an “SAR”

A

hose length limited to 300ft.

Not approved in IDLH atmospheres unless equipped with an emergency escape SCBA.

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59
Q

Simple testing for level A garments consists of what?

A

visual inspection and gastight integrity.

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60
Q

What is a disadvantage of closed circuit SCBA?

A

inability to inflate a level A suit.

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61
Q

The OSHA law governing Respiratory equipment requires what type of notification to employees?

A

Written.

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62
Q

What is a “SAR”

A

supplied air respirator.

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63
Q

when did soft permeable lenses become allowed?

A

Feb 1998 OSHA.

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64
Q

Define Degradation?

A

Change in a material caused by contact with another agent.

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65
Q

Simple testing of Level B garments consists of what?

A

visual inspection only.

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66
Q

when should the mission briefing take place?

A

prior to members being suited up in CPC.

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67
Q

Define Actual break-through time?

A

When the detector first detects the chemical on the material being tested.

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68
Q

Limitations of level B suits

A

No permeation protection from gases or vapors
May still leak liquids
No thermal protection.

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69
Q

What is the last item removed of CPC?

A

Respiratory protection.

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70
Q

What are the visible signs of degradation?

A

charring, shrinking, softening, cracking, dissolving.

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71
Q

Describe Level A protective equipment….

A

Falls under NFPA 1991
provides highest level of respiratory and skin protection.
Should have flash protection.
Inner and outter gloves resistance of 60min
Pass 21 chemical tests for permeation.

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72
Q

How should entry and back-up persons dress in CPC?

A

at the same rate and same level of dress.

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73
Q

What is a major limitation of an “APR”

A

Cannot be used IDLH or 02 deficient atmospheres (<19.5% 02)
Only protects against specific chemicals.
Not Positive pressure.

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74
Q

Define Permeation?

A

Movement of chemical through a material on the molecular level.

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75
Q

What are the best methods to ensure heat related stress do not compromise hazardous entries from personnel?

A

Pre-donning physical and proper hydration.

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76
Q

Limitations of Level C suits?

A

Very use limited only for controlled situations.

No thermal protection.

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77
Q

OSHA standard for selection, use , testing , cleaning, maintenance…

A

1910.134 1998 edition.

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78
Q

Describe Level D protection?

A

Normal workplace protections and conditions.
No NFPA standard for Level D.
Use for in NON-EMERGENT situations.

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79
Q

Limitations of a Level A suit?

A

bulky
reduced mvt
communication is difficult.
physically stressful.

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80
Q

Define Penetration?

A

A “leak”. Movement of chemical through existing openings in a material or garment.

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81
Q

What needs to needs to be logged at a minimum for CPC?

A 
Date of purchase
manufacturer
vendor
serial #
markings
color
material
destruction date and disposal.
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82
Q

What is an “APR”

A

Air purifying respirator.

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83
Q

Penetration time criteria?

A

Garment must not show any leakage for 60min of continuous spray of water.

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84
Q

Most detection read-out is done ?

A

in real time

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85
Q

How should detector tubes be stored?

A

left in the their original box.

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86
Q

Transport packaging containing radioactive material is read how?

A

millirem/ hr @ 1 meter from the surface of the box.

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87
Q

Although detector tubes are calibrated to 1 material it may respond how?

A

to other materials that have similar structure and reactivity.

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88
Q

What is relative response?

A

when an instrument reading is higher or lower than the actual concentration of vapors or gases present.

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89
Q

Definition of precision?

A

grouping of separate readings around a calculated average.

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90
Q

alpha and beta radiation is read in what?

A

CPM- counts per minute

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91
Q

PID’s are designed to detect what?

A

organic vapors or gases in low PPM range.

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92
Q

What are the simplest kits in order to test for hazards?

A

Test papers and or kits.

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93
Q

What is the sampling procedure while using a sample line?

A

1 to 2 seconds per ft of hose.

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94
Q

Another name for radiation survey instruments commonly found in fire departments today is called what?

A

Ludlam meter.

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95
Q

What are the basic rules for detection devices? (7)

A
  1. prioritize monitoring- measure 02 levels first.
  2. select to appropriate instrument
  3. absence of evidence is evidence of absence.
  4. never assume only 1 hazard is present.
  5. use one instrument to confirm another
  6. interpret readings in more than 1 way
  7. establish action levels.- (unknowns have a 25% LEL.)
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96
Q

UL and FL markings mean what?

A

intrinsically safe for class 1 division 1 groups ABCD.

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97
Q

PID’s readouts in regards to IP are in what measure?

A

PPM.

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98
Q

What is gas chromatography mode?

A

the sample can be identified by seperating it into GC columns and the chemicals retention time.

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99
Q

FID’s measure reading are in what?

A

PPM

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100
Q

The aspiration pump for detector tubes must be calibrated how often?

A

on a quarterly basis.

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101
Q

oxygen enriched atmospheres are what %?

A

greater than 23.5%

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102
Q

what gas or vapor must be present in order for the FID to work?

A

oxygen.

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103
Q

What is survey mode with a FID?

A

translates organic vapors into concentration of PPM.

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104
Q

Primary disadvantage of a dosimeter is?

A

gives measurements of radiation that ALREADY has been received.

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105
Q

How is ionization potential (IP) expressed?

A

Electron volts.

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106
Q

CGI’s with IR capability can read what?

A

CO2 and CH3 levels in concentrations above 5,000PPM.

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107
Q

The time it takes the instrument to obtain the sample and produce readings is called what?

A

Response time.

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108
Q

Detector tubes detect what?

A

only if a chemical is present

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109
Q

Advantage of FID vs PID?

A

FID’s are not restricted by IP because it burns the actual material allowing higher PPM and allow identification of the gas or vapor.

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110
Q

what 2 modes do FID’s work in?

A

Survey and gas chromatography.

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111
Q

PID’s determine what?

A

if there are high or low concentrations of s chemical present.

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112
Q

Gamma radiation is measured in what?

A

mR/hr or uR/hr - roentgens.

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113
Q

Definition of accuracy?

A

average of all measurements fall within an acceptable predetermined interval from the true value.

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114
Q

PID readings of 5 PPM or more of an unknown gas or vapor mean what?

A

Indicate need for protective clothing and breathing apparatus.

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115
Q

An appropriately set CGI low level alarm is set at what percent of the cal gas?

A

10%

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116
Q

what is the most important initial check on an instrument?

A

the battery check

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117
Q

ambient air for calibrating and 02 sensor should be what %?

A

20.9%

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118
Q

A negative response for a detection tube may be more informative than a positive one why?

A

Since in can exclude number of potential chemical contaminants.

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119
Q

What is retention time?

A

the amount of time a substance remains within the column of the GC .

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120
Q

In order to use the FID’s GCs function what has to be known?

A

A general idea what gases or vapors may be present.

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121
Q

Explosion proof labels mean?

A

reactions are contained within enclosures.

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122
Q

Monitoring equipment helps you determine what 3 things?

A

appropriate PPE
safe areas and evacuation zones
control tactics

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123
Q

Definition of ionization potential?

A

the energy required to move the OUTTER MOST electron from the atom or nucleus.

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124
Q

what are the three different scales for a CGI?

A

PPM
% LEL
% gas

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125
Q

What gas is required for proper functioning of a CGI since it requires combustion of the vapor or gas its detecting?

A

Oxygen

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126
Q

what are the general confinement techniques for a liquid?

A 
absorption/ adsorption
damming/diking
diversion
dispersion
retention.
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127
Q

What are the general techniques for containment?

A 
Auxiliary closure devices
bandages
neutralization
overpacking
patching
plugging
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128
Q

What are offensive operations decisions that need to be made?

A 
what stresses caused the breech?
Identity of the product
Defensive actions already taken
Offensive ops risk vs. benifit
what hazards result in taking offensive ops
Can offensive ops work
Can offensive ops be done safely 
Can offensive ops mitigate the situation.
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129
Q

What is the pressure in the piping generally for a cargo tank?

A

75 psi

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130
Q

What are considered auxiliary tools?

A

bung wrenches
non- sparking tools
drum leveler/ up righting
dolly/ carts

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131
Q

What must be done to any container before attempting to control a leak?

A

stabilize the container.

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132
Q

Define containment?

A

KEEP IN CONTAINER

actions taken to keep material in “container”

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133
Q

what are the general confinement techniques for a solid?

A

Site control.

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134
Q

What are considered general hazards?

A 
physical
environmental
container hazards
container stability
Container integrity
Energy releases.
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135
Q

What are the considerations for overpacking a container?

A

Must be 85 gallons
Compatible with material or chemical hazard
must write chemical name on container
must write salvage drum on container
must be able to withstand pressure and not over pressurize container

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136
Q

What type of call makes up most Hazardous materials calls?

A

Non- bulk container.

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137
Q

What are auxiliary control devices or measures?

A

Dome clamps
engineered shut off valves
A B C chlorine kits
sealants

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138
Q

Cargo tank mitigation includes what?

A

replacing bolts, gaskets or caps.

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139
Q

If a relief valve on a non-cyrogenic tank is operating what should you do?

A

find out the reason it is operating, if the product is causing a hazard then defensive measures should be taken.

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140
Q

when and why do hazardous materials releases occur?

A 
improperly secured valves
bad gaskets
overfilling
unsecured  fittings
venting from relief valves
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141
Q

Flaring is used when?

A

disposal of flammable materials

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142
Q

Pneumatic plugs for drums range in size from ?

A

4 inches to 3 feet.

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143
Q

What should be done first before overpacking a drum?

A

stop the leak first.

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144
Q

AFFF foam for non-polar substances like gasoline/ oils work by?

A

reduces surface are and decreases heat production

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145
Q

define confinement

A

actions to keep material in an area?

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146
Q

Cargo control tank mitigation from piping or valves should be?

A

closing valves upstream of the leak.

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147
Q

What are the general control techniques for a gas or vapor?

A

Suppression
dispersion
confinement.

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148
Q

What are the terms when discussing damage to a container?

A 
Cracks- narrow splits or breaks
scores- indentation
gouges-removal of container material
dents- deformities
burns
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149
Q

Can ABC kits be used for other chemicals than chlorine?

A

yes.

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150
Q

what are the most basic control measures for tank cars?

A

if open- close it - clockwise
if loose- tighten it- clockwise
if missing- replace it

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151
Q

Best methods for practicing on pressure vessels?

A

First practice without protective clothing
second add gloves
Third, use all together.

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152
Q

how much does a nearly full 35 gal drum weigh?

A

approx 600lbs

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153
Q

Cargo tank removal methods include?

A

flaring
transferring
venting
venting/burning

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154
Q

what should be done if unsure of a container’s status?

A

take defensive measures and get expert help.

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155
Q

What are mitigation methods for 55 gal drums?

A

Overpacking
bandages
plugging/ patching
sealants

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156
Q

Venting is used for what material?

A

non-flammable gases

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157
Q

What is the advantage of a vacuum truck

A

does not have to develop a higher pressure than the damaged container.

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158
Q

Are leaks from pressure relief valves considered a breach?

A

NO.

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159
Q

What is the anatomy of a drum?

A

circular opening at the top- BUNG
First rim at the top- CHIME
rims or rings below the 1st- ROLL RINGS

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160
Q

Regardless of flammability hazards, what should be controlled?

A

All ignition sources.

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161
Q

How are chemical exposures documented?

A

Hazmat form V-IID filled and given to Dist. Capt.
Supervisor incident report filled out with chemical exposures included
Tracking number
Casualty page
Notifications and forms sent to exposure control officer.

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162
Q

Who completes the 3 page billing report?

A

SPLOPS captain.

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163
Q

FOUO stands for?

A

“For official use Only”

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164
Q

Hazmat incident reporting will be in line with which policies?

A

VI-2 as well as Web EOC.

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165
Q

What are detection resources made up of?

A

physical, canine, and technical

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166
Q

Mitigation with regards to DRU trailers is defined by what activities?

A

Jurisdictional hazard analysis
Pre - planning (collection points)
Training- (public and private sectors).

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167
Q

Dive training certifications have when with an audit when?

A

January through August and Audit in September.

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168
Q

In order to bid into SPLOPS person must have completed ?

A

Dept approved Hazardous materials technician course.

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169
Q

what ordinance does hazmat incidents apply

A

98-13

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170
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring employees receive training in dive rescue?

A

Training and safety division.

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171
Q

Phase 3 - s/r of void spaces includes?

A

search of structures likely to contain survivors

detection resources include physical, canine, or technical.

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172
Q

IF other agencies have safeguarded information, how should it be handled?

A

Follow the guidelines from the sending organization, if no direction then follow PBCFR policy.

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173
Q

Topics and sources for Sensitive information come from?

A 
Intellegence analysis reports
Fire service intelligence enterprise
open source reporting
Florida virtual fusion center
DHS reports
Intelligence briefings
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174
Q

Who is responsible to review completed task books?

A

DC and BC of SPLOPS

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175
Q

Since a security clearance is not needed, what is sensitive information based on?

A

Need to know basis.

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176
Q

Task book completions for the crew is signed by who?

Who signs off Captains of SPLOPS?

A

SPLOPS captain for crew

DC for SPLOPS capt.

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177
Q

What happens to the 3 copies of the billing report?

A

Pink goes to originator

White and yellow go to DC of SPLOPS

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178
Q

Hard copies of sensitive information may be destroyed how?

A

shredding
pulping
pulverizing

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179
Q

Who itemizes the hazmat billing form?

A

DC of SPLOPS

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180
Q

Who determines which entities or individuals receive information?

A

The originator.

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181
Q

Assistance in SAR reporting can be gained by contacting who?

A

BC of Special operations

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182
Q

Incident reporting with suspicious activity reports (SAR) are notified in which order.

A

DC
FOO
PBC regional fusion center

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183
Q

How are sensitive materials marked at a minimum?

A

FOUO on the bottom of each page.

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184
Q

Hazardous materials technicians must meet or exceed minimum levels of what?

A

skill
knowledge
functional levels

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185
Q

FOUO material is marked by which agency?

A

DHS- dept of homeland security.

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186
Q

The sharing of sensitive information may be shared with which other agencies?

A

Federal, state, tribal, private, local, LEO.

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187
Q

Which exposure does not qualify of an HIV test?

A

Airborne.

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188
Q

When should the annexes be reviewed with subordinates and crew?

A

On an annual basis in the month of JULY.

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189
Q

What are the 5 phases of search and rescue?

A

phase 1- recon-
phase 2- rapid and hasty
phase 3- s/r of voids
phase 4- debris removal and human remains dectection
phase 5- general debris removal with human remains detection

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190
Q

What are the facilities that would require evacuation assistance?

A 
hospitals
nursing homes
evacuation shelters
fire stations/ police stations
critical infrastructure facilities
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191
Q

On scene mgt of the DRU trailers for decontamination is the responsibility of who?

A

Dist. Captains

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192
Q

Storage of FOUO material can be placed in?

A

Filing cabinet
desk drawer
overhead storage compartment

all the above with locking capabilities.

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193
Q

Who determines dismenination of material?

A

Fire chief or designee.

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194
Q

Once the emergency needs of the community have met what are the priorities for returning to operation?

A 
demobilization
decontamination
Employee notification
documentation
PIA
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195
Q

Responses are governed which documents?

A

Current edition of PBC regional HRMRT guidelines and PBCFR SOG 2401

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196
Q

Phase 4- debris removal and search for human remains includes?

A

systematic search of every room in a structure.

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197
Q

Audits of Hazmat completions and competency are done when?

Are signed off when?

A

November and signed in December.

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198
Q

What are the 2 search modes for USAR?

A

detection mode- determine if victims are present

location mode- pinpoint location for rescue

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199
Q

Electronic storage of sensitive material may be destroyed how?

A

overwriting

degaussing

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200
Q

The hazardous material technician refresher program is completed how often?

A

annual basis.

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201
Q

The CEMP containes annexes for what type emergencies?

A

Hurricane
wild land fire
homeland security

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202
Q

DRU trailers carry enough supplies for the treatment of how many victims?

A

100- 50 per trailer.

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203
Q

Handling of sensitive information is based on what type of system?

A

tier system

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204
Q

When should a hazmat unit be contacted with regard to exposure?

A

where the potential exists for undue chemical exposures.

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205
Q

“Significant exposures” are defined as?

A

Needle sticks, instruments, sharps
Mucous membranes
skin
airborne contact.

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206
Q

In order to be complaint the 29 CFR.1910 what instruction must be completed.

A

Didactic and compentency

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207
Q

When will the DRU trailers be available for support- during which kinds of incidents?

A

Nuclear
biological
hazmat/ chemical incidents
terrorism

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208
Q

Outside persons are considered with regards to sensitive information?

A

spouse, friends, relatives

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209
Q

Which PBCFR section is responsible for all invoicing and cash receipts for hazmat incidents?

A

Fiscal.

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210
Q

Phase 1 recon includes?

A

determining scope and magnitude of affected area

can be accomplished by air, water craft, vehicle, or walking

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211
Q

Dive refresher program consists of?

A

Task book with required competencies
dive logs
annual proficiency.

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212
Q

Who is responsible for employees receiving training to hazardous materials response?

A

Training and safety division.

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213
Q

Dive recurrency training authority falls under who?

A

Fire Administrator

NFPA 1670

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214
Q

FOUO information may be sent how?

A

department email, no personnel emails

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215
Q

Departmental information products are broken into what categories?

A

First responder safety “ALERT” - RED, TIME SENSITIVE
First responder safety “BULLETIN” - GREEN- REGULAR CYCLES
Weekly “REPORTS” - BLUE- NON- TIME SENSITIVE.
Briefing “EXECUTIVE”- GOLD-

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216
Q

Sensitive information guidelines protect what?

A

persons’ privacy
welfare
or the conduct of federal programs essential to national interest.

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217
Q

Low coverage and high coverage searches are what? and under which phase are they conducted?

A

Low coverage- systematic search of every room and void space
High coverage- complete de-layering and removal of collapse debris

Both conducted in both Phase 4 and 5.

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218
Q

When the CEMP become activated?

A

when the incident constitutes a “Severe emergency situation”.

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219
Q

Phase 2 - hasty and rapid search includes?

A

those in need of immediate evac from harm.

may be accomplished with recon.

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220
Q

Hazmat annual certifications and competency requirements are when?

A

January thru October

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221
Q

What is the purpose of the CEMP- comprehensive emergency management plan?

A

to have an organized way to respond to “potentially catastrophic emergencies”.

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222
Q

The specific subjects and hours a hazmat tech must complete is determined by who?

A

Training and safety each year.

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223
Q

PBCFR operates under what command system for USAR operations?

A

NIMS

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224
Q

What documents get attached to a hazmat report?

A

208 HM- site safety plan
PIA
billing materials form for incidents over 4 hrs.

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225
Q

Notification of Decontaminated patients going to a facility should be told what information?

A 
Number of patients
type and amt of contamination
medical conditions
time of arrival
migratory times of other victims coming on their own.
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226
Q

Exclusion zone GUIDELINES for establishment ?

A

toxicity based on reading greater than published TLV/TWA or PEL
Any flammability reading from a CGI
O2 deficient <19.5% or enriched >23.5%
radioactivity w/ readings above backround

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227
Q

When the decision NOT to execute and order what happens?

A

must be documented in writing by the hazmat group supervisor referencing the SOG or safety guidelines.

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228
Q

What staffing is needed prior to teams making entry?

A

Dedicated rescue w/ paramedics for entry.

If entry is into an IDLH then Toxmedics are required

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229
Q

is a level 3 response

A

Severe incident

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230
Q

Medical exams are conducted when?

A 
at least q 12 months
prior to assignment and exit from a team
as deemed necessary by a physician
upon s/s of an exposure.
cases of suspected exposure  above a PEL.
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231
Q

What is the minimum level of CPC when monitoring initially?

A

Level B

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232
Q

what is a level 1 response?

A 
dealing w/ known substances
no deaths or injures
limited area less than 300ft
less than 25 gallons
evacuation not more than 4 hrs
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233
Q

Radiation action levels?

A

2 x background requires high and low range dosimetry.

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234
Q

Who gets notified when situation is IDLH and involving extremely hazardous substances?

A 
Need for Toxmedic
(4) FRO for decon ops
palm beach county dept emergency mgt. PBCDEM
county warning point CWP
state warning point SWP
Florida division of emergency mgt
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235
Q

How is zone 4 notified for a hazmat response?

A

Through Boca Raton communications center by direct telephone line and Boca will contact Delray beach communications center.

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236
Q

How are operational periods organized?

A

initial- 4hrs
greater than 1 entry- may request add’l team
greater than 4 entries - requires IC notification
extended ops defined as: (2) 4hr ops periods or greater than 4 entries

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237
Q

How often does post entry eval occur?

A

immediately after exiting and 10min.

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238
Q

When can RHMRT supervisor transfer responsibilities to another group supervisor?

A

with the concurrence of the IC.

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239
Q

What is the curriculum that a hazmat group supervisor must complete?

A

Florida state emergency response commissions guideline for public sector hazardous materials training.

Hazardous materials incident commander and OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120 (q)(6)

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240
Q

Under termination, a PIA will be conducted under what requirements?

A

response of more than 1 RHMRT and completed as soon as possible after the incident.

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241
Q

Supplied air lines have a maximum length of?

A

300ft from the air source

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242
Q

what is the rest time for max amt of time in level A CPC?

A

60 min.

243
Q

RHMRT site safety plan document #

A

ICS 208HM

244
Q

Purpose of establishing control zones?

A

designate areas of specific function
limit levels of contamination
provide areas of safety for first responders and public

245
Q

When should the RHMRT be released post incident?

A

after stabilization or elimination of the situation.

246
Q

Support Zone- COLD zone critera

A

stages command and control functions
functional area for decontaminated victims
area for staging, media and non-essential personnel.

247
Q

The adequate supply of medication required to be maintained in the Tox box is what?

A

Enough medication to treat 4- 100kg pt’s per Florida regional common EMS protocols.

248
Q

When does rehab begin for entry and decon personnel?

A

immediately upon exit from the decon corridor.

249
Q

What is the minimum distance that allows for a a safe retreat?

A

330ft

250
Q

Monitoring for unknown products will include?

A 
radioactivity  Radioactivity- 100mR/hr
pH  PH - <4 or >12
Combustibility oxygen levels <12.5    LEL>10% of LEL
H2S
CO
organic vapor
colormetric tubes
chemical WMD
biological agents
251
Q

Level A CPC gives what protection

A

highest skin, respiratory , and eye protection

1991 NFPA standard.

252
Q

who has the authority to terminate any strategy or tactic considered unsafe ?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

253
Q

The best positioning of vehicles with variable winds is?

A

uphill.

254
Q

On level II incidents hazmat materials are contained or secured to what extent?

A

only to the extent that there is no longer an immediate threat to life, property, or environment outside the emergency site.

255
Q

What factors determine the Exclusion or HOT zone

A

the area most affected by the release
TLV
will be marked by physical boundaries
Refuge are near reduction corridor.

256
Q

Before returning to service the ________must be completely rehabilitated.

A

entry team.

257
Q

Refuge area is defined as what?

A

area designated for contaminated persons within the exclusionary/ initial isolation zone .

258
Q

Monitoring protocols and procedures fall under what compliance standards?

A

OSHA 1910.120, 40 part 311

NFPA 471

259
Q

IF no contractor or responsible party is available then what?

A

Department of environmental protection may be utilized.

Last resort- may contract for disposal at the expense of the AHJ.

260
Q

Purpose of emergency response plan?

A

provide RHMRT with county wide organization to mitigate an emergency involving Hazardous materials.

261
Q

The county Emergency response plan will be reviewed how often?

A

AT LEAST annually.

262
Q

When do hazmat victims become patients?

A

after decontamination.

263
Q

Who establishes command on an incident?

A

the first arriving fire rescue unit or senior official having authority.

264
Q

what is the time limit of work in level A CPC?

A

20 min at temps above 70F

265
Q

How is contamination prevented according to the RHMRT?

A 
minimize contact w/ substances
protecting instruments 
using remote sampling techniques
disposable CPC
protecting and wearing SCBA
266
Q

ERG is good for directions up to what time frame?

A

30min.

267
Q

is a level 3 incident

A

Severe incident
injuries or deaths may have already occurred
large area, impacting essential services
large amt of hazardous substance or LIMITED VERY hazardous sub.

268
Q

A the termination of an incident what must be provided to every responder?

A

Names of substances
symptoms of exposure
specific action to be taken for decontamination.

269
Q

How often are medical records reviewed?

A

q 4 yrs

270
Q

Hazmat control guidelines include:

A 
plugging and packing of containers
product transfer
overpack drums
flairing of gases
direction of defensive operations
diking, confinement and redirection of materials
Neutralizaton
venting guidelines
vapor dispersion or suppression.
271
Q

Entry monitoring is monitoring for what initially?

A

IDLH and PEL

272
Q

Technical resource assistance includes what resources?

A

agencies and resources listed on RHMRT resource list
chemtrec/ national response center
industry technical representatives and hotlines
manufacturer and product institutes
governmental or environmental resources.

273
Q

How is the seven (7) person team made up?

A 
2-entry
2-backup
1-decon leader
1-hazmat group supervisor
1-hazmat safety officer
274
Q

Private contractors for clean-up shall meet what standard and use PPE deemed necessary by who?

A

29 CFR OSHA 1910.120 Incident commander, safety officers or hazmat group supervisor.

275
Q

How often does Level A CPC get tested?

A

Annually.

276
Q

electrolyte solutions are ?

A

50/50 .

277
Q

RHMRT have how long to respond once requested?

A

5 minutes

278
Q

Control zones are determined by what factors?

A 
chemical properties
physical properties
physical state
Size and condition of container
Amt of product leaking
natural barriers
weather
recognized standards from resources.
279
Q

Operational persons will operate in what mode during hazmat incidents

A

Defensive mode.

280
Q

Max amt of time in level A CPCina 24 hour period?

A

2 cycles of work.

281
Q

How are hazardous materials identified with regard to train cars?

A

the word “DANGEROUS” is marked beneath the car.

282
Q

When does a person become assigned to research of a chemical?

A

When the level of response is II, III, IV.

283
Q

Palm Beach county Hazmat ordinance?

A

98-13

284
Q

What is Level B CPC protection for?

A

protection from liquid splash and particulate exposure.

285
Q

The ICS structure for a hazmat incident is based on what?

A

the incident needs.

286
Q

If a contractor resists working with proper PPE then?

A

compliance should be coordinated through entity contracted, if no compliance then activity for contractor to be terminated until in compliance or another contractor is procured.

287
Q

what is the role of RHMRT?

A

confinement and containment, then incident priorities.

288
Q

If hazmat victims are in immediate life threatening situations that require medical attention what should be done?

A

emergency gross decon.

289
Q

What does Level C CPC provide for protection?

A

solid and liquid splash with known atmospheres and no IDLH

NFPA 1993

290
Q

Overall success of an incident depends on what?

A

initial operations set up by first arriving agency.

291
Q

What are the pre-entry V/S parameters?

A 
BP < 160/100
HR< 120
RR <24
Oral temp >100F (DOT is 97-99.5)
recent medical hx
new medications
open skin conditions or severe sunburn
chemical sensitivity
Upon concurrence of paramedic and assistant Safety officer.
292
Q

What are the shipping papers call for a train?

A

waybills are shipping for products- the CONSIST gives order of cars.

293
Q

Parameters for CGI action levels?

A

known product >50% LEL
Unknown >25% LEL
confined space >10% LEL

<10-16% most CGI’s will not operate properly
< 19.5% O2- wear SCBA while monitoring
23.5% for fire potential of confined space
25% fire potential consult specialist

294
Q

With regards to Decontamination what is the primary objective?

A

Prevention

295
Q

Medical exam to include what? in addition to regular physical?

A 
Complete h/p
occupational hx.
heavy metals screening
RBC cholinesterase
stress test.
296
Q

Individual response units will acknowledge what information on PBCF tactical channel fire main?

A

Enroute to call and request a channel for assignment.
arrival at incident
commencing EXTENDED operations - (if after 4 hours)
Completed assignment and available.

297
Q

Minimum number of technicians to start offensive ops?

A

7- seven

298
Q

Who assumes command in the absence of a formal command structure or IC?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

299
Q

What are the post incident guidelines?

A

debriefing
cost recovery
PIA
after action reports

300
Q

12 activities of the hazmat group supervisor

A
  1. briefing
  2. control zones
  3. public protection actions
  4. weather
  5. environment monitoring
  6. site safety plan
  7. safety meetings
  8. develop IAP
  9. safe SOP’s followed
  10. PPE
  11. notifications made
  12. 214 forms
301
Q

What steps are to be taken prior entry in exclusion zone?

A 
Tactical plan completed
site safety plan ICSHM-208
Pre entry briefing
back up team ready
PPE verified
Decon established.
302
Q

Constant monitoring after entry will continue till?

A

till v/s are returned to pre-v/s status. 3.0% of total body weight is an issue.

303
Q

What is an INITIAL strategy that can be used in DEFENSIVE mode?

A

Spill control.

304
Q

First response agency technicians can be utilized in what positions only?

A

Any positions except Entry team members or Hazmat group supervsor.

305
Q

Technical details may be provided to the IC/PIO if selected by who?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

306
Q

What is the number of resources that should be used for researching a chemical?

A

at least 2 preferably 3.

307
Q

Who or which agency is responsible for which zones?

A

1- PBC
2-WPB
3-PBC
4-Boca/delray

308
Q

Research of a product will consist of the what items?

A 
physical properties
PPE
Decon
first aid
antidotes
incompatability
309
Q

What is a level 4 incident?

A 
classified as major or severe
release of chemical over extended area.
Will spread to a larger area.
HIGHLY TOXIC, VERY REACTIVE UNSTABLE flammable/explosive.
Affects large area and several hours
310
Q

The heat stress index is defined as?

A

above 90F .

311
Q

How often do supervisors and coordinators meet to implement changes to response plan, SOG’s, equipment, and training?

A

Quarterly

312
Q

What is the order for grounding and bonding vehicles?

A

compromised truck to ground.
Recovery truck to ground.
Compromised truck to recovery truck.
Ohms reading should be 0 or as close as possible.

313
Q

For toxic materials, poisons, and pesticides how to handle during fire conditions?

A

Considering protecting exposures and allowing to burn.

314
Q

With explosive SPILLS and a SLURRY is present what actions?

A

Dam and dike

contact shipper / manufacturer

315
Q

Who is the lead agency for tar ball incidents?

A

USCG - national response center

316
Q

How are USCG and responsible party samples labeled?

A

USCG- “A”

RP- “B”

317
Q

For incidents involving corrosives what are the first steps?

A 
Identify material and possible reactivities
isolate non- essential people
establish control zones
CPC
up wind 
avoid smoke, vapors etc.
ventilate 
additional resources
report spills to state watch office and NRC.  request call back from DEP.
318
Q

Actions to take for Explosives- TIRE or VEHICLE FIRE

A

Use water and plenty of it- FLOOD IT.

Refer to ATF’s vehicle bomb explosion hazard and evacuation distance table.

319
Q

In flaring of LPG the exclusion zone must include which area?

A

areas of radiant heat exposures.

320
Q

How to reduce pressure in cylinders?

A

Reduce temperature.

321
Q

Who gets contacted for abandoned cylinders?

A

State watch office and request call back fro DEP.

322
Q

Actions to initially take for radiological incidents?

A

While ENROUTE- contact state watch office and request call back from dept of health bureau of radiation control.

Establish hot zone or exclusion zone at 1-2mR/hr.

323
Q

What are the radiation levels - maximum exposure for personnel for life saving actvities?

A

25rem.

324
Q

What is the order for removal of grounding and bonding?

A

remove recovery to compromised vehicle first

remove grounding rods last.

325
Q

Clean up for spilled biomedical waste ?

A

pour 10% bleach solution onto waste and keep contained.

place absorbent on top to make a dry solid.

326
Q

What are the additional requirements for drums that are abandoned or not marked?

A

no container should be left on scene unless it has been deemed safe by DEP guidelines..
If drum or container was leaking, ground samples taken..
Notify state watch office and request call back from DEP.

327
Q

Cryogenic emergencies stabilization?

A

LOX- liquid oxygen can ignite petroleum based products.

Contact manufacturer

328
Q

When are glove changes required for tar ball sampling?

A

between collections of each sample including the reference sample.

329
Q

What are examples of shock sensitive chemicals?

A

crystalized picric
nitrocellulose film
ethers

330
Q

Use of universal precautions is usually adequate unless the material is DOT placarded with ?

A

6.2 or labeled infectious substance.

331
Q

What are the levels of radiation for packages?

A

Radioactive I- none to 0.5mR/hr
Radioactive II- 1mR/hr
Radioactive III- 10mR/hr

Vehicle sole use LSA- 200mR/hr.

332
Q

what type of jar is required for sampling tar balls?

A

4oz. /250ml pre cleaned sampling jars.

333
Q

With Explosive incidents involving a SPILL of DRY POWDER, CRYSTAL or PELLETS?

A

Dike and contain product
cover product with physical material not reactive
contact shipper / manufacturer

334
Q

For a leaking biomedical/ biological transportation container - actions to take are?

A

cover with a sheet or porous material
pour bleach over sheet and keep damp
dam and dike areas to contain run-off
wait for disposal instructions

335
Q

For incidents involving Explosive - spill or leak from overturned vehicle?

A

isolate 2500ft in all directions for SPILLS
identify cargo
minor spills- flammable liquids remove immediately
Large spills- flammable liquids dike and cover w/ foam.
Ground and bond vehicles

336
Q

Define biological waste?

A

SOLID waste that causes or may cause disease or infection, not limited to biomedical waste

337
Q

Hazmat tanker rollover - LEAKING.- actions?

A

harness retrieval system for entering spills
dam and dike
hose lines in place prior to entry
stabilize tanker truck
introduce water into tanker for leaks at the bottom.

338
Q

what is the purpose of the Florida hazmat FOG?

A

to provide guidance for hazmat events that do not regularly occur with in a community.

339
Q

For drums and abandoned containers NOT leaking actions?

A

Consider all unmarked drums abandoned and containing hazardous materials until determined otherwise.
Note vapors, stresses or dead vegetation/ wildlife
establish decon before and entries.

340
Q

Actions for hazmat tanker incidents including rollovers-? in general

A 
proper positioning of vehicles
control zones
escape routes
do not upright low pressure tankers will product still inside
ground and bond
CPC
341
Q

Handling of corrosives that involve a spill or leak?

A 
extinguish all sources of ignition.  May react to form H2 gas.
Avoid getting water into container
prevent run-off
close valves, plug leaks
cover powder spills with tarps or sheets
Consider FOAM.
342
Q

What has to be included on the Chain of custody form for tar balls?

A

all information of sheet
latitude and longitude
USCG and Responsible party samples get separate chain of custody forms.

343
Q

How to mitigate compressed gas emergency?

A

identify product
avoid spills
NO WATER on pools of liquified gases

344
Q

Hazmat tanker rollovers with no leaks- what actions?

A 
determine amt of product
no uprighting of trucks until product off loaded
secure ignition sources
ground and bond before batteries removed
stop traffic 1000ft in all directions
foam
shut off valves, hatch covers
do not separate cab from trailer
determine best method to off load product.
345
Q

What needs to be monitored during off loading of flammable liquids?

A

02 and LEL

346
Q

Most abandoned cylinders contain which 2 gases?

A

oxygen and acetylene

347
Q

What is the decon procedure for biomedical waste?

A

use freshly mixed 10% or stronger bleach/ water solution unless advised by the CDC.

348
Q

What are the first steps for “Explosive” incidents?

A 
Identify product
eliminate non-essential personnel
Control zones
eliminate ignition sources
CPC
Radio silence 
Consult - Naval bomb unit
                state fire marshall
                Army EOD.
For clandestine labs-  DEA
349
Q

What are examples of Dry powder, crystal or pellet explosives?

A 
black powder
gun powder
smokeless powder
mercury fulmiate
lead azide
PETN
ammonium nitrate
Tetry, di, or tri nitro compounds.
350
Q

Sample locations for tar ball collecting is based on what factors?

A

area impacted shoreline
number of tar balls
size of tar balls
select sample that is representative of impacted area.

351
Q

For drums and abandoned containers - LEAKING actions?

A

raise any leaking hole above liquid in container
patch, plug to stop leak
place drum in recovery drum- bag the leaking one.
properly mark recovery drum for transport and disposal.
(must be 85 gal, chemical name written, salvage drum must be written , must withstand pressure.
transferring of product.

352
Q

What are the 3 basic objectives with flaring of LPG?

A

reduce pressure
dispose of vapors
transfer material

353
Q

If a large amt of biomedical or biological waste is involved with a spill,
who may assist with making arrangements for clean-up?

A

Dept of environmental protection

354
Q

Define biomedical waste?

A

any solid or liquid waste which poses a threat of infection to humans. Does not include human remains.

355
Q

What are the first 2 actions regarding gas cylinders?

A

Eliminate ignition sources

shut off gas supplies remotely

356
Q

For Toxic materials, poisons and pesticides what is the distance to deny entry for unknowns?

A

330ft.

357
Q

Emergencies involving transportation containers of biomedical or biological waste is handled how?

A

The same as all other incidents but with the contacting of the “state watch office” and “dept of health “ if persons were in contact with product.

358
Q

Actions to take for Explosives - CARGO FIRE?

A

stop traffic and isolate for 1600m- (1mile) and LET BURN.

Do not move vehicle or cargo if exposed to heat.

359
Q

When are offensive operations indicated?

A

considered for room and content fires where SAVABLE lives may exist and structural integrity is intact.

360
Q

What was the IMS requirements compatible with on the national side?

A

Presidential directive 5.

361
Q

What is the definition of salvage?

A

tactical operations of protecting property from further damage.

362
Q

What is one of the factors in prioritizing exposures?

A

amt of radiant heat being produced and distributed.

363
Q

What is the major risk factor on a CBRNE incident?

A

Secondary contamination.

364
Q

What is defined or when is “investigating” mode applicable?

A

When the incident nature is unclear or no visible indicators are present.

365
Q

Secondary search should be completed when?

A

after initial fire control, ventilation, and interior visibility have improved.
during overhaul.

366
Q

What falls under after action review?

A

informal debriefing AAR- tailboard review

Informal battalion

367
Q

What is the minimum isolation distance per the ERG on guide 111?

A

50-100m or 160-330ft in all directions.

368
Q

When does the ICS formally need to be activated?

A

Upon incident involving 2 or more companies.

369
Q

For larger fires beyond the area of origin what hose lines can be used?

A

2 1/2 flowing a minimum of 200gpm.

370
Q

When does level 2 staging become activated?

A

By the IC or operations.

requires a staging area manager.

371
Q

Define Division?

A

A geographical area.

372
Q

A “May day” may be used by FF to report their status as what and in what situations?

A

Lost, trapped, injured and or needing rescue.

Rapid hostile fire events
lost trapped or disoriented 
collapse
low air alarm 
SCBA failure.
373
Q

The personnel accountability system falls under who if activated?

A

Planning sections chief and assigned to resource status unit.

374
Q

What items fall under debriefing?

A

right to know

site safety plan review

375
Q

What is level 1 accountability?

A

Immediately reporting for duty.

376
Q

What are the incident priorities?

A

Life safety
incident stabilization
property conservation
evidence preservation.

377
Q

To transfer command the “command process” must be complete and includes what?

A 
briefing
current situation
unit placements
assignments
review of the Tactical WS.
378
Q

Confinement is defined as?

A

stopping the progress of the fire.

379
Q

The person in charge of a group is ?

A

a group supervisor.

380
Q

In addition to directive 5 and NFPA 1561 where can one obtain more information and instructional assistance?

A

NIMS- Fema

Florida field operations guide October 2012

381
Q

Incident objectives are what?

A

statements of guidance necessary for the selection of appropriate strategies and tactical direction of resources.

382
Q

The command post should consist of what?

A

located outside the incident w/ 2 views
a green light
and mobile radio forward or rear mounted preferred.

383
Q

What are the 3 modes of operation:

A

Offensive
Defensive
Investigating.

384
Q

What are the 2 phases of overhaul?

A

pre-fire control phase- aggressively pulling ceiling to confine primary fire.

Post control phase- reduce the incidence of secondary fires.

385
Q

the decision to Shelter in place is based on what?

A

the hazard and risk analysis of the event.

386
Q

When can the 2 in 2 out rule be violated?

A

If a life a safety situation is known or suspected.

387
Q

What is best way to determine the operating perimeter initially?

A

Over-estimate the size.

388
Q

What is the RIC designation given to the members during a hazardous materials operation?

A

BACK UP “TEAM”

389
Q

Overhaul is defined by what parameters?

A

total extinguishment of all fires
checking for hidden fires or extension
made up of 2 phases.

390
Q

The person responsible for a division is ?

A

a division supervisor.

391
Q

What is the decision to evacuate from danger based on?

A

the fact that the public is at greater risk by remaining in or nearby the event area.

392
Q

Define “Group”

A

Functional areas within an operation. Composed of resources to perform particular functions.

393
Q

What is the command Sequence?

A 
Incident priorities
situation evaluation
Development of IAP
       - incident objectives
       - strategies and tactics
Evaluating the IAP
Demobiliztion
394
Q

The initial strategy should be determined when?

A

by the end of the 1st walk around and size up.

395
Q

What is the decision making for isolation based on?

A

potential of harm to life
potential harm to critical systems
potential harm to property.

396
Q

What types of incidents require an inner perimeter?

A 
suspicious areas
Chemical
biological
contaminated 
2ndary devices
radiological.
397
Q

Who establishes command?

A

the first arriving “OFFICER”.

398
Q

What components fall under After Action reviews?

A

Informal debriefing- tail board
Informal battalion- station or battalion review
Formal AAR- Hq.

399
Q

The IAP operational period is how long?

A

no longer than 24hrs. 12 hrs are common for large scale incidents.

400
Q

The range of tactics is determined by what?

A

The current strategy in effect.

401
Q

The IAP and supporting information for the plan may be in what forms?

A

oral or written.

402
Q

What term is used if the primary search yields no occupants found?

A

All clear.

403
Q

What is the difference between STRATEGY and TACTICS?

A

Strategy is a broad goal

Tactics involve details of actions

404
Q

What is the Fire flow formula?

A

LxW x % involved / 3. = B

For hi rise structures B x # of floors involved = C

405
Q

Extinguishment of a fire can be accomplished by what hose lines and GPMs?

A

contained to room of origin- 1”3/4 100gpm
outside room of origin - 2” 1/2 200gpm
defensive attacks - 2” 1/2” 200gpm

406
Q

Primary searches are based on what areas first?

A

most severely threatened
largest number of people
remained of fire area
exposed areas.

407
Q

If there are 2 incidents on the same street how classified?

A

Use the Hundred block numerical on the second incident.

408
Q

Who determines the operational period?

A

IC

409
Q

If victims are found on a primary search what needs to be reported?

A

location
# of victims
egress
completed search or not.

410
Q

What the communication model?

A

the radio message must be repeated in a brief and concise summary of the intent of the message.

411
Q

Why is ventilation used?

A

to reduce, re-direct, remove heat / smoke/ and fire gases.

412
Q

With regards to a hazardous materials operation, who ensures RIC?

A

Entry team leader

413
Q

What is the most dangerous time in an incident?

A

During the transition of an operation mode is in place.

414
Q

In general offensive fore attach hose lines are what?

A

1” 3/4 flowing a min of 100gpm

415
Q

the RIC sog is found under what number?

A

1520

416
Q

What are the acronyms for initial size up?

A 
BELOW
Building construction
Extent of fire
Life safety
Occupancy
Water supply

COAL WAS WEALTH
construction, occupancy, area, life safety, water supply, apparatus, street conditions, weather, exposures, location of fire, time of day, heights/hazards

WALLACE WAS HOT
water, area, life hazard, location, apparatus, construction, exposures, weather, auxilliary appliances, special matters, height, time

417
Q

When does level 1 staging occur?

A

automatically during the initial stages of an incident.

418
Q

When is level 3 accountability activated?

A

hazmat incidents
hi-rise fires
below grade rescue operations
large or complex incidents where SCBA are being used.

419
Q

What is maximized during property conservation?

A

salvage, overhaul, and mop-up operations

420
Q

What are the 4 components to Termination?

A

Debriefing
after action procedures
Reporting
Follow up

421
Q

Who is assigned to track personnel in a hazardous environment?

A

Site access control leader on the accountability board.

422
Q

The risk and hazard analysis for evacuation is based on what?

A

individuals or population affected.
resources needed to evacuate
resources needed to notify public
ability to identify safe passage and refuge areas.

423
Q

Who requests progress reports?

A

IC or Ops section chief.

424
Q

What are strategies defined as?

A

a broad term for what must be done.
RECEOVS
Rescue, exposures, confinement, extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation, salvage.

425
Q

What components fall under “reporting”

A

STEALTH Report

Set time, tone, execution, analyze, lessons learned, transfer lessons learned.

426
Q

What defines an exposure?

A

buildings near the fire building, attached to the building, near the fore but protected by fire walls or divisions.

Amt of radiant heat being produced

a building within 30 ft.

427
Q

What is the IAP?

A

contains objectives reflecting the overall incident strategy and specific tactics.

428
Q

If 2 or more staging areas are used how are they identified?

A

By function or location.

429
Q

What types of groups use the democratic approach?

A

specialized and high technical fire companies.

430
Q

What defines hygiene factors?

A

conditions that are external to the individual- pay and work conditions.

431
Q

what is the 5 step approach to making decisions?

A 
Clear your mind
list options
weigh outcomes
make a choice
evaluate decision.
432
Q

What are the 2 general rules for non-emergency activities?

A

Do not compromise the ability to respond to emergencies

Don not jeopardize the publics trust in the fire dept.

433
Q

What are the 5 overriding principals for motvation? pg 135

A 
Recognize individual difference
use goals
ensure goals are perceived and attainable
individualize rewards
check for system equality
434
Q

What is the most significant lesson with hygiene theory with respect to the fire department? pg 136

A

Employees that are dissatisfied with the external conditions or hygiene, will not be motivated to achieve maximum performance.

Once achieved, improving conditions further will not increase performance.

435
Q

What should be included in the radio report for initial responses?

A 
Identification of the company arriving at the scene
brief description of incident situation
obvious conditions
brief descriptions of actions to be taken
declaration of strategy
Safety concerns
command
request or release of resources.
436
Q

reinforcement theory has 4 types?

A

Positive- reward for good behavior
Negative- removing an undesirable consequence of good behavior
Extinction-ignoring bad behavior
Punishment- punishing bad behavior

437
Q

What defines reinforcement theory? pg 135.

A

behavior is a function of its consequence.

438
Q

Expectancy theory is based on what?Pg 136

A

people act in a manner that they believe will lead to an outcome they value

439
Q

Power is defined as?

A

the capacity of one party to influence another.

440
Q

Equity theory is based upon what? pg 136

A

employees evaluate the outcomes they receive for their inputs and compare them with the outcomes others receive for their inputs.

(why some are paid higher than others)

441
Q

When should fire officers briefly review an event?

A

while on scene or as soon as possible after returning to quarters.

442
Q

Laissez fair style is defined as?

A

Free rein and depends on FF good judgement. Used with more experienced FF and on routine calls.

443
Q

What are the different “Power Theories”?

A

Legitimate power-target believes agent has the right to make request.
Reward power- target complies to obtain rewards
Expert power- target complies b/c agent has special knowledge
Referent power- complies due to admiration of agent -seeks approval
Coercive power-target complies to avoid punishment.

444
Q

What are 2 situations that require an Autocratic decision?

A

orders to evacuate

FF mayday?

445
Q

Democratic styles are defined as?

A

consultative, and takes advantage of all ingenuity and resourcefulness of the group to meet an objective or goal.

446
Q

What is the best known motivational theory?

A

Reinforcement theory.

447
Q

Goal Setting theory is defined by?

A

relies on the competitiveness of people.

448
Q

Under Power theory, what other categories have been updated?

A

Personal Power- includes: expert and referent powers

Positional power- includes: legitimate, reward , coercive powers

449
Q

What is the most significant lesson in goal setting theory?

A

that a fire officer is to consider carefully which actions are needed to improve the organization and develop goals for the FF.

450
Q

Hertzberg’s Hygiene theory is based on which 2 factors?

A

Motivation and hygiene

451
Q

Autocratic approaches are defined as?

A

needed to maintain a high level of personal control of a group.

452
Q

What defines Motivational factors for Herzberg?

A

internally motivated factors- recognition, achievement, responsibility, and advancement.

453
Q

What is a goal of an effective fire officer?

A

to push decision making to the lowest level possible.

454
Q

What are the two situations in which autocratic styles should be used?

A

high-risk, emergency actvities- ie. primary search and structure fires
when immediate corrective supervisory action is needed.

455
Q

The key to goal setting theory is ? pg 136

A

the officer to set specific goals that will increase performance.

456
Q

What are the 3 things needed to be addressed for Expectancy theory”
Pg 136

A

Employee’s belief that his or her effort will achieve the goal

Belief that meeting the above goal will lead to the reward

the desire for the reward or rewards are a value to the employee.

457
Q

The company officer is responsible for what 3 things in regards to the crew?

A

Safety and actions and performance.

458
Q

What defines leadership?

A

the process by which a person influences others to understand and agree about what needs to be done and how to do it.

459
Q

What are the 4 basic topics mandated for any emergency service training program? pg 147

A

blood borne pathogens
hazwoper
SCBA fit testing
NIMS

460
Q

Define training?

A

Achieving proficiency through instruction.

461
Q

What are the 5 steps to developing a “specific training program”

A 
Assess needs
Establish objectives
Develop program
Deliver training
Evaluate impact.
462
Q

What is the 4 step method?

A

Method of choice for development of a work improvement plan or new device or procedure.

463
Q

What is the NFPA std for live fire training?

A

NFPA 1403.

464
Q

What qualities make an effective mentor? pg 146

A

a desire to help
current knowledge
effective coaching, facilitating, and networking

465
Q

what are the 3 indicators that training is needed?

A

near miss
fire ground problem
observed deficiency

466
Q

Define mentoring?

A

a more experienced person helps a less experienced person-

“protegee

467
Q

Define Coaching?

A

directing or instructing with aim of achieving or developing specific skills

468
Q

What is the final step in the preparation phase?

A

to check the physical environment.

469
Q

What is the of the lecture in the presentation phase? pg 145

A

To increase fire company efficiency.

470
Q

active learning recommends spending no more than ____min presenting a formal lecture or video. The student loses focus after ___to ____ minutes of passive learning. pg 147

A

10

15-20

471
Q

What are the 4 parts to the method.

A

Preparation
presentation
application
evaluation

472
Q

Difference between Training and Education?

A

Training- achieving proficiency through instruction.

Education- imparting knowledge or skill through instruction.

473
Q

What are the 4 psychomotor skill levels?

A

Initial- basic understanding
plateau- competency
latency- over-time understanding
Mastery- - confidence

474
Q

What are the 2 organizations that provide accreditation to fire service professionals ?

A

National board on Fire service professional Qualifications
and
International Fire Service Accreditation Congress.

475
Q

Define professional development?

A

Skills and knowledge attained for both personal development and career advancement.

476
Q

The document that lists almost 2000 task for FF is referenced as what?
Pg 154

A

The trade analysis of Fire Fighting.

477
Q

What is an effective tool to allow experienced FF to improve performance?

A

Whole skill training.

478
Q

What defines success in the application phase?

A

task is performed safely and without input from the supervisor.

479
Q

What is the NFPA std for Fire Fighter professional qualifications?

A

NFPA 1001.

480
Q

What is thew goal during the application phase?

A

correct demonstration of the task safely performed.

481
Q

Allows the officer to stay on topic and emphasize the important points to be addressed? pg 145

A

A lesson plan

482
Q

Accreditation is defined as? pg 153.

A

a collegial process based on self and peer assessment for public accountability and academic quality.

483
Q

Expected behaviors fall into to 3 categories? pg 148

A

Responding to calls
on scene activity
emergency procedures

484
Q

In the evaluation stage, how does one know that “training has occurred? pg 145

A

when an observable change in performance is noted when responding to a real situation where the task or skill is applied.

485
Q

A good lesson plan satisfies 4 criteria?

A

organizes the lesson
identifies key points
can be reused
allows others to teach the program.

486
Q

What are the stages in Thomas Gordon’s learning matrix? pg 146

A

unconscious incompetence- “not aware”
Conscious incompetence- attempting and aware of deficiency
Conscious competence- still needs to concentrate and think to perform
unconscious competence- “second nature”

487
Q

From 1997-2010 what percentages of deaths occurred during training?

A

77.8 %

488
Q

What are the 3 activities necessary to ensure a good working relationship with supervisor. pg 49

A

Keep supervisor informed
make appropriate decisions at your level.
Consult with supervisor before making any major disciplinary actions or policy changes.

489
Q

What is the most common reason local govt’s are found liable for harassment?

A

Failure to investigate.

490
Q

How many lawsuits are filed per year to the EEOC? Pg 53

A

400.

491
Q

What are the 3 recommendations in developing competencies in a company for officers? Pg 48

A

Develop a personal training library
Know the neighborhood
Use problem solving scenarios.

492
Q

Ethical behavior is? pg 51

A

decisions and behaviors consistent with :
the dept’s core values,
mission statement
value statements.

493
Q

Criteria for fire officer are?

A

3-5 years
NFPA FO III
Equiv to bachelors degree

494
Q

What is the transition from FF to officer? Pg 44

A

Probationary FF
Company commmader
Chief officer
Retirement

495
Q

Workplace diversity works under what federal laws? and what do they cover? Pg 51.

A

EEOC- equal employment opportunity commission
Title VII of the civil rights act of 1964
EEOC 1972- covers all public and private employees w/ 15 or more.

496
Q

Who is considered the father of fire based EMS? pg 46.

A

James O’ page

497
Q

Sexual harassment have the following conditions?

A
  1. Employee is made to feel that he or she has to endure such treatment to remain employed
  2. submits or rejects such when making employment decisions
  3. Performance is affected
  4. intimidating hostile, or offensive work environment.
498
Q

What are considered actionable items? pg 53

A

Behaviors that require an immediate corrective action by supervisor .
Unacceptable language requires an immediate response.

499
Q

What are the 3 distinct roles for a company officer? pg 46

A

Supervisor
Commander
trainer

500
Q

What is the definition of command presence? Pg 47

A

the ability of an officer to project an image of being in control of the situation.

501
Q

What is the company officer level directly responsible for?

A

Supervision
Performance
safety

502
Q

Where can someone start to file complaints?

A

Fire dept
Federal level
state level

503
Q

What is sexual harassment?

A

unwanted, unwelcome, uninvited, and unwelcome attention and intimacy in a non-reciprocal relationship.

504
Q

Integrity refers to ? pg 50.

A

a complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person’s moral and ethical actions

505
Q

The EEOC in 1999 included what guideline? pg 53

A

sexual harassment.

506
Q

What percentage of complaints are settled by a court decision ?

A

less than 3 %

507
Q

Quid pro quo is what?

A

Supervisor specifically promises work related benefits in return for sexual favors.

508
Q

What are the 4 basic tasks for a new fire officer ? pg 42

A

Beginning of shift report
notifications
decision making
problem solving

509
Q

What should a fire officer due when faced with an unpopular order?
pg 46.

A

express concerns and objections with his or her supervisor in private.

510
Q

Where should inappropriate behaviors with FF be discussed?

A

privately.

511
Q

What is the second common reason local govt’s are found liable with sexual harassment?

A

Blaming the person brining the action

512
Q

What is the flow chart for Progressive Negative Discipline?

A 
Progressive Neg Discipline
   Informal oral or written
   Formal written reprimand-   (begins paper trail and process)
   Suspension- (1-30 days)
   Termination
513
Q

Feedback on individual performance is most effective when? pg 165

A

delivered soon as possible after an incident or action.

514
Q 
Eval
   I
   I- Problems - NO- annual eval on time
            YES
                I
      work improvement plan 10 weeks prior or immediately
                I
      Special eval period
                I
      Self eval 6 weeks prior to annual
                I
       annual review
A

Is the review process as above.

515
Q

What is the definition of Termination?

A

the organization has determined that the employee is unsuitable for continued employment.

516
Q

What is one of the most effective strategies within the realm of positive discipline? pg 168

A

Empowerment.

517
Q

What is the format of discipline- Flow chart?

A 
Positive discipline
Negative discipline
    - informal oral, written, admonishment ( 1st level of neg discipline)
Progressive Negative discipline
    -informal written or oral  reprimand
    -Formal Written reprimand
    -Suspension
    -Termination
518
Q

What was the Court ruling and what did it represent in the disciplinary process? Pg 176

A

Loudermill hearing

Ruled that a pre-termination hearing is necessary and serves as a check against a possible mistaken decision.

519
Q

What are the 4 steps for an annual evaluation process?

A

Fill out standardized form
subordinate allowed to review
face to face feedback
establish goals

520
Q

What is the GOAL of EAP?

A

to provide counseling and rehabilitation services to get the employee back to full productive duty as soon as possible.

521
Q

Which NFPA std identifies officer II as the level to issue formal evaluations or discipline? pg 171

A

NFPA 1021

522
Q

What are some reasons an employee continue to be late for work?

A 
Child care issues
family crisis
ETOH
coming from a second job
 Psychological condition
523
Q

What is the purpose of EAP?

A

Help employees cope with underlying issues that might be affecting workplace performance.

524
Q

What is Leniency?

A

giving a positive evaluation to allow a more pleasant experience and avoids confrontation.

525
Q

What is the difference between a performance log and T- account?

A

Performance log- brief description of observations

T- account- lists assets and liabilities in columns.

526
Q

The evaluation process for probationary FF should be in 4 areas?

A

Skill competency
job specific task
geographical area
performance of other tasks.

527
Q

The final resolution of a disciplinary action usually resides with who?

A

Civil service commission or City personnel director.

528
Q

What is the purpose of the Informal written reprimand? pg 169

A

Allows the employee to understand clearly that the disciplinary issue and have an opportunity to respond.

529
Q

actions by the first officer set the stage for probationary FF for how long? Pg 164

A

20-40yrs

530
Q

What is the ultimate goal of discipline? Pg 174

A

FF performance improvement.

531
Q

What is considered the lowest level of discipline in the progressive chain?

A

Formal written Reprimand.

532
Q

What defines Progressive discipline?

A

Starting out to correct a problem with positive discipline ad increasing the intensity if the individual fails to respond to the negative form.

533
Q

What is the starting point positive discipline?

A

Establish expectations for behavior and performance.

534
Q

What is the first level of Negative discipline?

A

oral, written or admonishment that DOES NOT become part of the employees official record.

535
Q

What are official records that are to be kept for an employees record?

A 
Hiring packet
tax withholding
personal actions
evaluation reports
grievances
formal discipline
536
Q

How is positive discipline reinforced?

A

by recognizing performance and rewarding excellent performance.

537
Q

What documentation starts the paper trail for progressive discipline?
pg 175

A

Formal written reprimand.

538
Q

What are the following review errors 6 of them? pg 174

A 
Personal bias- "skews"
Recency- :"last few weeks"
Central Tendency- "middle of the range"
Frame of reference- "personal ideals"
Halo and horn- "based on 1 aspect"
Contrast- "compares subordinates.
539
Q

For EAP to be Successful the fire officer must what?

A

Recognize stress in an employee with multiple signs indicated.

540
Q

Define Positive and Negative discipline?

A

Positive- help employee recognize problems and improve performance

Negative- punishment for unsatisfactory performance, behavior or failure to respond in a positive way.

541
Q

What are Gordon Dupont’s Dirty Dozen? pg 387

A 
lack of assertiveness
lack of awareness
lack of communication
lack of knowledge
lack of resources
lack of teamwork
complacency
distraction
fatigue
norms
pressure
stress
542
Q

Who is the best position to lead change within the fire dept? pg 395

A

Fire officer.

543
Q

Under Teamwork, what provides formal structure at task, tactical, and strategic levels?

A

The Incident Command system

544
Q

What is the difference between active and Latent conditions?

A

Active- people committed the acts

Latent- inevitable system issues

545
Q

What is one of the most common human factors that leads to a loss situational awareness? pg 393

A

the tendency to ignore, or disregard information that is out of context.

546
Q

CRM is an error based model that incorporates 3 items? pg 388

A

Avoidance
entrapment
mitigation

547
Q

Under teamwork True respect is based on 3 competencies?

A

personal
technical
social

548
Q

What are the Mental joggers?- personal? pg 395

A

what do i know that they need to know
what do they know that i need to know
what do we all need to know.

549
Q

What is the 1st indication of a communication error?

A

a discrepancy between what is going on and what should be occuring.

550
Q

The swiss cheese theory is based on what?

A

the presence of a hole in one defensive layer not creating a bad outcome but when all the holes align a bad or catastrophic outcome becomes more likkely.

551
Q

Dr James Reason’s evaluated what in the error making process?

A

Systems errors

552
Q

Define communication?

A

The successful transfer and understanding of a though from one person to another.

553
Q

What is CRM designed to do?

A

Train team members how to achieve maximum mission effectiveness in a time constrained environment under stress.

554
Q

CRM is what?

A

A behavioral approach to reducing human error in high risk consequence activities.

555
Q

Fire officers fall into 3 categories when multitasking? pg 391

A

Reluctant
overwhelmed
Effective assessors.

556
Q

What are the 6 areas of CRM?

A 
Communication
Teamwork
Task allocation
critical decision making
situational awareness
Debriefing
557
Q

CRM is based off of what incident?

A

1978 crash of a DC8 aircraft.

558
Q

Define Inquiry?

A

the process of questioning a situation that causes concern.

559
Q

Situational awareness is what type of factor?

A

Human factor element

560
Q

Define Advocacy?

A

a statement of opinion that recommends what the person believes is the proper course of action under a specific set of circumstances.

561
Q

_____ is normal, inevitable occurance.

A

Human error.

562
Q

Performance is enhanced through what?

A

training classes, live training, table top exercises, didactic presentations, mentoring, exchanging.

563
Q

Define situational awareness-

A

an “accurate” perception of what is going on around you and the basis of choosing courses of action now and in the future.

564
Q

If a change to policy or creating a new one where should one begin?

A

With the results of a Post incident debriefing.

565
Q

What are 5 steps to create a safety culture? pg 387

A

Provide honest sharing of safety info w/o reprisal from supervisors
adopt a nonpunitive policy towards errors
Take actions to reduce errors in the system
Train in avoidance and detection
Train in evaluating situations, error avoidance, managing safety process

566
Q

_________ __________ creates an environment that fosters open communication, promotes safety, and encourages subornates’ belief in the team.

A

Human Error.

567
Q

Gary klein used to cognitive models- what are they?

A

RPDM- recognized primed decision making (recognizes plan)

Naturalistic decision making (how decisions made in environment)

568
Q

Organizations that have embraced CRM have seen how much of a reduction in incidents, accidents, and injuries?

A

70-89%

569
Q

What document highlighted that pilots were so busy they failed to recognize when the situation was getting out of control? pg 392

A

The multi-tasking myth- Handling complexity in real world operations 2009.

570
Q

What are the 6 steps to maintain emergency scene situational awareness?

A 
Fight the fire
assess the problem (30-60sec)
gather information from all sources
choose the best option
monitor and alter the plan as necessary
be aware of loss of factors: ambiguity, distraction, fixation, overload, complacency, improper procedure, unresolvedness.
571
Q

What are the 2 keys in reducing errors from communication?

A

appropriate assertive behavior

developing a standard language

572
Q

Who developed CRM?

A

Nasa in 1979.

573
Q

What is a highly effective technique under teamwork? pg 389

A

Leading by example

574
Q

What is the key factor in communication?

A

To focus on what IS right rather than WHO is right.

575
Q

What are the differences between “Task Allocation and “Task overload?

A

Allocation is dividing responsibilities among individuals and teams

Overload is when the officer exceeds capacity to manage all simultaneous functions and responsibilities.

576
Q

What is Todd Bishop’s 5 step assertive process? pg 389

A 
Opening attention getter
stating the concern
stating the problem
stating a solution
obtaining agreement or buy in
577
Q

What is the most important room in the fire house?

A

Kitchen

578
Q

What are the 4 classifications of problems an officer may face? pg 225

A

In- house
internal department issues
External issues
High profile incidents

579
Q

Define Problem?

A

the difference between the current situation and the desired situation.

580
Q

For Taigman and Dean’s Conflict resolution model, where is the employee asked to describe the desired action? pg 234

A

At step 4- identify the complainants expectation for resolution.

581
Q

What is the first objective within the conflict resolution model?

A

understand the issue and why the individual is complaining

582
Q

What are the “general decision making process” steps pg 225.

A 
Define the problem
generate alternative solutions
select a solution
implement the solution
Evaluate the result.
583
Q

What are the 4 possible responses for finding to an investigative report ? pg 232

A

Take no further action
Recommend action requested by the complainant
Suggest an alternative solution
Refer issue to the office or person who can provide a remedy

584
Q

Define complaint?

A

an expression of grief, regret, pain, censure, resentment, a lamentation, an accusation or fault finding.

585
Q

Citizens’ complaints about codes should be sent where?

A

Fire marshall

586
Q

Citizens’ complaints about personnel should be sent where?

A

To the supervisor of the individual who is involved in the action.

587
Q

What is the purpose of the investigation? pg 232

A

to obtain additional information beyond the original complaint

588
Q

The official response to a problem begins when? pg 230

A

when the officer becomes aware that a problem exists.

589
Q

Define Mistake?

A

an error or fault resulting from bad judgment, deficient knowledge, or carelessness. Misconception or misunderstanding.

590
Q

What must the implementation plan include? pg 227

A

a schedule to ensure goals are met.

591
Q

What are the 2 goals with regards to paraphrasing and feedback?

A

officer has good understanding of the issue

complainant feels the fire officer really listened

592
Q

What is the best way to prevent major problems ?

A

deal successfully with minor issues before they reach the crisis stage.

593
Q

What are the steps for taigman and Dean’s conflict resolution model?
pg 233

A

Drain the emotional bubble
understand the complainants viewpoint
help the complainant feel understood
identify the complainants expectation for resolution.

594
Q

What are the steps for the “conflict resolution model?” pg 230

A

Listen and take detailed notes
active listening
paraphrase and feedback
do not explain or excuse

595
Q

What is the focus of “Customer Satisfaction” pg 235

A

Meeting the customers’ expectations

596
Q

What is the most challenging phase of the decision process?

A

implementation of the solution or phase

597
Q

What is the “product” of an investigation?

A

the report itself

598
Q

Citizens’ complaints are of 3 general types? pg 235

A

conduct of a FF
performance of service delivery
Fire Dept policy.

599
Q

The problem has not been solved until when? pg 227

A

the solution is implemented.

600
Q

Problems should be solved on what level? pg 225

A

at the lowest possible level within the organization.

601
Q

What 3 things objectives should be contained within the investigative report?

A
  1. it identified and clearly explained the issues
  2. provide a complete, factual presentation of background and facts
  3. a recommended action plan which is supported by the information.
602
Q

If a citizens’ complaint deals with an operational issue where should the complaint be sent? pg 235

A

Chief of operations

603
Q

define conflict?

A

a state of opposition between 2 parties.

a conflict usually causes a complaint.

604
Q

What factor distinguishes a fire officer from a fire fighter? pg 230

A

the responsibility to act as an agent of the formal organization.

Old Officer study material (30 decks)

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