Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IMMUNOSEROLOGY > Serological test > Flashcards

Serological test Flashcards

1
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Trichinosis.

A

Trichinosis Bachman Intradermal Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Tuberculosis.

A

Tuberculin Skin Test (TST).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name of the tuberculin skin test associated with von Pirquet’s method.

A

Von Pirquet’s Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Brucellosis.

A

Brucellergin skin test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Coccidiomycosis.

A

Coccidiodin skin test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Test used for diagnosing Lymphogranuloma venereum.

A

Frei Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Histoplasmosis.

A

Histoplasmin skin test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Test used for diagnosing Diphtheria.

A

Schick test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Test used for diagnosing Scarlet fever.

A

Dick test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Test used for diagnosing Glanders.

A

Mullein test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Toxoplasmosis.

A

Toxoplasmin skin test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Test used for diagnosing Anthrax.

A

Ascoli test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Test used for diagnosing Ascariasis.

A

Moan test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Hydatid disease.

A

Casoni Intradermal Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Skin test used for diagnosing Streptococcus pneumoniae infection.

A

Francis skin test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Test used for diagnosing Leishmania infection.

A

Montenegro Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Test used for diagnosing Toxoplasmosis.

A

Sabin Feldman Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Test used for diagnosing Schistosoma infection, detects antibody.

A

Circumoval Precipitin Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Test used for diagnosing Trichinella infection through xenodiagnosis.

A

Beck’s Test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bacterial infection caused by S. pyogenes with beta-hemolysis and pus production

A

Group A Streptococcal Infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Protein in Group A Streptococcus that inhibits phagocytosis and complements activation

A

M protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Test to measure antibodies (ASO) in response to S. pyogenes infection

A

ASO Titration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Test for Group A streptococcal infection estimating the amount to inhibit hemolysis of rabbit red blood cells

A

ASO Titration (Macrotechnique of Rantz and Randall).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Streptococcal virulence factor that dissolves clots

A

Streptokinase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Enzyme in Group A Streptococcus acting as a spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Toxin in Group A Streptococcus that causes subsurface hemolysis

A

Streptolysin O (SLO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reagent used in ASO Titration to test for neutralization of SLO

A

5% rabbit RBC suspension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Principle of ASO Titration test involving the reaction of Streptolysin O (SLO) with the patient’s antibodies

A

Neutralization reaction - The reduced form of SLO is neutralized by ASO in the patient’s serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Endpoint indicating a positive result in ASO Titration test

A

(+) No hemolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Unit used to express ASO titer based on the reciprocal of serum volume needed to neutralize SLO

A

International units (recommended), Todd units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Normal ASO Titer for children (in Todd units)

A

<125 Todd units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Normal ASO Titer for adults (in Todd units)

A

<166 Todd units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Indication of moderately elevated ASO titer in adults

A

> 240 Todd units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indication of moderately elevated ASO titer in children

A

> 320 Todd units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clinical manifestations of Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

Upper respiratory tract infection (Pharyngitis), Skin infections (Erysipelas, Impetigo, Cellulitis), Streptococcus Toxic Shock Syndrome, Otitis media, Puerperal sepsis, Sinusitis, Septic arthritis, Acute bacterial endocarditis, Meningitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Scarlet fever manifestation associated with Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

Strawberry-colored tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Complications of Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever (molecular mimicry), Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (characterized by RBC casts).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Laboratory diagnosis of Streptococcus pyogenes infection (screening test)

A

Culture - Susceptibility to bacitracin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Confirmatory test for Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

PYR test (L-pyrolidonyl-B-napthylamide activity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Method for detecting Group A Streptococcal antigens

A

Lateral flow immunochromatographic assay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Important antibodies for diagnosing Streptococcus pyogenes infection complications

A

Antistreptolysin O, Anti-DNase B, Anti-NADase, Anti-hyaluronidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Significant titer rise for diagnosing recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection

A

A four-fold rise in titer in acute and convalescent phase sera.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Recommendation for antibody testing in Streptococcus pyogenes infections

A

Use at least two tests for antibodies to different exotoxins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Components detected in Streptozyme testing

A

Anti-streptolysin O (ASO), Anti-hyaluronidase (AHase), Anti-streptokinase (ASKase), Anti-nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (anti-NAD), Anti-DNase B antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

False positive result in Streptozyme testing

A

Prone to false positive results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Principle of Rapid Latex Agglutination Test

A

Passive agglutination - SLO (soluble toxin) is attached to latex carrier to detect antibody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Positive result in Rapid Latex Agglutination Test

A

Agglutination ≥ 200 units per mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Negative result in Rapid Latex Agglutination Test

A

Agglutination < 200 units per mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Principle of ASO Titer Test

A

Automated procedure measuring ASO titers via Nephelometry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Measurement and reporting of ASO Titer Test

A

Reported in international units based on light scatter of immune complexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Principle of Anti-DNase B Testing

A

Neutralization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Use of Anti-DNase B Testing

A

Highly specific for group A streptococcal sequelae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Agent responsible for Gastric and Duodenal ulcers and Gastric Carcinoma

A

Helicobacter pylori.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Virulence factors of Helicobacter pylori

A

CagA (dysfunction of cell signal transduction pathway) and VacA (codes for toxin precursor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Helicobacter pylori’s survival factors in the gastric environment

A

Spiral shape, flagella, urease, and flagellar sheath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Invasive diagnostic methods for Helicobacter pylori

A

Endoscopy and biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Noninvasive diagnostic methods for Helicobacter pylori

A

Urea breath testing, enzyme or lateral flow immunoassays, molecular tests for H. pylori DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Primary screening method for Helicobacter pylori infection

A

Serological test for detection of IgG, IgM, and IgA antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Leading cause of upper respiratory infections worldwide

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae (atypical pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Condition associated with high titer of cold agglutinin (IgM) causing intravascular agglutination when exposed to cold

A

Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS) in Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

Abnormal cold IgM antibodies with Anti-I specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS) in Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Cold autoantibody with Anti-i specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Primary method for diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

Culture in Trypticase soy broth, SP4 medium, or viral transport medium (requires freezing at -70°C).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Antibodies detected for current infection of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

M pneumoniae-specific IgM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Antibodies detected for past infection of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

M pneumoniae-specific IgG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing Mycoplasma infections

A

Molecular diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Principle of rapid screening test for cold agglutinins

A

Hemagglutination.

68
Q

Antigen used in rapid screening test for cold agglutinins

A

Fresh human group O cell (Anti-H) to prevent ABO antibody cross-reaction.

69
Q

Procedure for cold agglutinin testing

A

Incubate at 4ºC for 18-24 hours, heat to 37ºC for 30 minutes to check for agglutination changes.

70
Q

Positive result in cold agglutinin screening test

A

No hemagglutination at 37ºC, hemagglutination at 4ºC.

71
Q

Negative result in cold agglutinin screening test

A

No hemagglutination at 37ºC or 4ºC.

72
Q

Significant titer for cold agglutinin syndrome

A

32-64.

73
Q

Weil Felix Test Principle

A

Direct Agglutination.

74
Q

Why is the Weil Felix Test nonspecific?

A

Because of cross-reaction with Proteus antigen.

75
Q

Significant titer for Weil Felix test

A

> 160 (strongly suggestive of infection).

76
Q

Which antigens are used in the Weil Felix Test?

A

P.vulgaris: OX-19, OX-2; P.mirabilis: OX-K.

77
Q

Scrub typhus result in Weil Felix test

A

OX-19 (-) OX-2(-), OX-K (4+).

78
Q

RMSF (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever) result in Weil Felix test

A

OX-19 (++++) OX-2(+), OX-K (-).

79
Q

Q Fever & Rickettsial Pox result in Weil Felix test

A

OX-19 (-) OX-2(-), OX-K (-).

80
Q

Preferred method for diagnosing Rickettsial infections

A

Serodiagnosis.

81
Q

Question

A

Answer

82
Q

Agent of Typhoid Fever

A

Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serotype typhi.

83
Q

How is Typhoid Fever acquired?

A

Ingestion.

84
Q

TSI reaction for Salmonella typhi

A

K/A, (-) gas, (+) H2S.

85
Q

IMViC reaction for Salmonella typhi

A

-+–.

86
Q

Antigens of Salmonella species

A

O (somatic), H (flagellar), K (capsular).

87
Q

Who was Typhoid Mary?

A

Mary Mallon, a famous carrier of Salmonella typhi.

88
Q

Purpose of the Kauffmann-White Classification

A

Classifies the genus Salmonella into serotypes.

89
Q

Example of a Salmonella serotype in Kauffmann-White Classification

A

Salmonella enterica serotype Typhimurium 1,4,5,12:i:1,2.

90
Q

Specimens for Salmonella Identification - 1st week of infection

A

Blood.

91
Q

Specimens for Salmonella Identification - 2nd week of infection

A

Stool.

92
Q

Specimens for Salmonella Identification - 3rd week of infection

A

Urine.

93
Q

Principle of Widal Test

A

Direct agglutination.

94
Q

Significant titer in Widal test

A

80 and above.

95
Q

Typhidot test purpose

A

Detection of specific IgM and IgG to Salmonella typhi.

96
Q

Interpretation of O in Widal test tube test

A

Typhoid fever.

97
Q

Interpretation of O and H in Widal test tube test

A

Typhoid fever.

98
Q

Interpretation of H in Widal test tube test

A

Past infection, Convalescence (Recovery), Exposure, and Recent infection.

99
Q

Interpretation of O, H, and PARA A in Widal test tube test

A

Typhoid and Paratyphoid fever (Mixed infection).

100
Q

Interpretation of PARA A, B, and C in Widal test tube test

A

Paratyphoid fever.

101
Q

Characteristics of Spirochetes

A

Slender, flexuous, helically shaped, unicellular; periplasmic flagella (endoflagella); gram-negative, microaerophilic bacteria; corkscrew flexion or motility.

102
Q

Cause of Syphilis

A

T. pallidum subspecies pallidum - also known as the great pox, Spanish disease, the great imitator.

103
Q

Cause of Yaws

A

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue.

104
Q

Cause of Bejel (Nonvenereal Syphilis)

A

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum.

105
Q

Cause of Pinta

A

T. carateum.

106
Q

Cause of Syphilis

A

T. pallidum subspecies pallidum.

107
Q

Syphilis Transmission Modes

A

Sexual transmission, parenteral exposure, congenital infections during pregnancy, least blood transfusion (due to labile nature in cold after 3 days).

108
Q

Origin of the Name ‘Syphilis’

A

From a poem written in 1530 describing a mythical shepherd, Syphilus, who was punished for cursing the gods.

109
Q

Primary Syphilis Features

A

Appearance of hard chancre; painless, solitary lesion with raised, well-defined borders; lasts 1-6 weeks.

110
Q

Laboratory Test for Primary Syphilis

A

Direct detection from the chancre using dark field microscopy.

111
Q

Secondary Syphilis Features

A

Occurs 1-2 months after primary chancre disappears; generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, rash, and condylomata lata (flat wart-like lesions).

112
Q

Laboratory Tests for Secondary Syphilis

A

Dark field microscopy, serologic tests for specific and nonspecific antibody production.

113
Q

Latent Syphilis Features

A

Noninfectious, no clinical symptoms, positive serologic test; early latent within 1 year, late latent after 1 year.

114
Q

Tertiary Syphilis Features

A

Occurs 10-30 years after secondary stage; includes gummatous syphilis, cardiovascular disease, and neurosyphilis.

115
Q

Neurosyphilis Clinical Manifestation

A

Asymptomatic CNS involvement, detected by CSF examination.

116
Q

Congenital Syphilis Cause

A

Maternal spirochetemia and transplacental transmission of T. pallidum.

117
Q

Hutchinsonian Triad

A

Hutchinson’s teeth, interstitial keratitis, nerve deafness.

118
Q

Saddle-Nose Deformity in Tertiary Syphilis

A

Perforation of the palate and collapse of nasal bones.

119
Q

Fluorescent Antibody Testing for Syphilis

A

Direct IF using fluorescent-labeled antibody conjugate to detect T. pallidum.

120
Q

Reagin Antibodies in Syphilis

A

Non-specific antibodies detected in serologic tests.

121
Q

Anti-Treponemal Antibodies in Syphilis

A

Specific antibodies directed against T. pallidum.

122
Q

Wasserman Test

A

Complement fixation test detecting reagin antibodies in syphilis.

123
Q

Cardiolipin in Wasserman Test

A

Antigen from beef heart extract used in Wasserman test.

124
Q

Positive Wasserman Test

A

No hemolysis in complement fixation indicates positive result.

125
Q

VDRL Test Principle

A

Flocculation reaction detecting reagin antibodies.

126
Q

VDRL Serum Preparation

A

Heated serum (56°C for 30 mins)

127
Q

VDRL Reagents

A

Cardiolipin (main reagent), lecithin (neutralizes anticomplementary properties), cholesterol (increases reacting surface of cardiolipin).

128
Q

VDRL Rotator Settings

A

180 rpm for 4 mins (serum), 180 rpm for 8 mins (CSF).

129
Q

VDRL Ring Diameter

A

14 mm for serum, 16 mm for CSF; depth 1.75 mm.

130
Q

VDRL Antigen Delivery Needle for qualitative serum

A

Gauge 18; 60 drops/mL

131
Q

VDRL Antigen Delivery Needle for quantitative serum

A

Gauge 19; 75 drops/mL

132
Q

VDRL Antigen Delivery Needle for saline

A

Gauge 23; 100 drops/mL

133
Q

VDRL Antigen Delivery Needle for CSF

A

Gauge 21/22; 100 drops/mL

134
Q

VDRL Reporting Results: No clumps

A

Non-reactive

135
Q

VDRL Reporting Results: Small clumps

A

Weakly reactive

136
Q

VDRL Reporting Results: Medium to large clumps

A

Reactive

137
Q

RPR Reagents

A

Cardiolipin, lecithin, charcoal, choline chloride (serum inactivator), thimerosal (preservative)

138
Q

VDRL False Positives

A

SLE, RA, infectious mononucleosis, malaria, pregnancy.

139
Q

RPR Test Principle

A

Flocculation reaction detecting reagin antibodies; macroscopically read.

140
Q

RPR Serum Preparation

A

Unheated serum used.

141
Q

RPR Ring Diameter

A

18 mm for antigen suspension.

142
Q

RPR Antigen Delivery Needle

A

Gauge 20 (Hamilton syringe needle, 60 drops/mL).

143
Q

Treponemal Serologic Tests detection

A

Treponemal antibodies with treponemal antigens

144
Q

FTA ABS Principle

A

Indirect Fluorescent Immunoassay, used with Dark Field Microscopy

145
Q

FTA ABS Reagent

A

Nichol’s strain fixed on a slide

146
Q

FTA ABS Absorbent

A

Reiter Treponemes capture patient antibodies

147
Q

Treponemal Antigens

A

Reiter strain (non-pathogenic), Nichol’s strain (pathogenic)

148
Q

HATTS Principle

A

Hemagglutination test

149
Q

HATTS Reagent

A

Turkey RBCs with treponemal antigen

150
Q

MHA-TP Principle

A

Hemagglutination test

151
Q

MHA-TP Reagent

A

Sheep RBCs with treponemal antigen

152
Q

TPI Principle most specific for syphilis

A

Antibody-complement mix immobilizes T. pallidum

153
Q

TPI Reagent

A

Live T. pallidum from infected rabbits

154
Q

TPI Positive Result

A

> = 50% immobilization of T. pallidum

155
Q

Borrelia Characteristics

A

Arthropod-borne, less tightly coiled than leptospires, easily stained, visualized with Giemsa staining under bright field microscope

156
Q

Lyme Disease Causative Agent

A

Borrelia burgdorferi senu lato complex

157
Q

Lyme Disease Transmission

A

Ixodes spp ticks; coinfection with Babesia spp possible

158
Q

Lyme Disease Reservoir

A

White-footed mouse

159
Q

Lyme Disease Stages

A

Localized rash (Erythema chronicum migrans), early dissemination, late disseminated with arthritic symptoms

160
Q

Lyme Disease Rash

A

Bull’s eye rash

161
Q

Lyme Disease Serological Test - Western Blot (IgM)

A

Reactivity for two of the following bands: 24, 39, 41 kDa

162
Q

Lyme Disease Serological Test - Western Blot (IgG)

A

Reactivity for five of the following bands: 18, 28, 39, 45, 66, 21, 30, 41, 58, 93 kDa

163
Q

Leptospira Characteristics

A

Spirals with hooks at one or both ends, can be impregnated with silver

164
Q

Leptospirosis Causative Agent

A

Leptospira interrogans

165
Q

Leptospirosis Infection Stages

A

Septicemic stage (fever, headache), Immunological stage (jaundice)

166
Q

Leptospirosis Culture Medium

A

Fletcher semisolid, Stuart liquid, or EMJH semisolid medium

167
Q

Leptospirosis Laboratory Diagnosis

A

Culture, microscopy, serological test

IMMUNOSEROLOGY (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions