Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 > SBA DECK 9/05/22 > Flashcards

SBA DECK 9/05/22 Flashcards

1
Q

how do you identify ACS?

A

troponin will be positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when might an AAA cause non acute pain?

A

if its leaking (but not yet ruptured)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the rules for giving n acetylcystine in paracetamol overdose?

A

if ingestion >15hrs or the dose was staggered give it straight away without delay
if ingestion <1 hr give activated charcoal
if ingestion < 4hrs wait 4 hrs to take a level then treat based on level
if ingestion 4-15 hrs take immediate level and treat based on level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is used first line for relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis?

A

injectable beta interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are features of a severe asthma attack? how many need to be present for it to be classed severe?

A 
o2 sats <92%
peak exp flow rate <33% predicted
silent chest
cyanosis
confusion
exhaustion
coma
bradycardia
arrhythmia
poor resp effort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what clinical test (not imaging) can be used to identify cushings disease (pituitary tumor causing cushings syndrome)?

A

low dose dexa test= will fail to surpress cortisol

high dose dexa test= will surpress cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what ix is diagnostic for guillian barre syndrome?

A

lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is seen on lumbar puncture in guillian barre syndrome?

A

elevated protein

normal WCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when prescribing a CCB with a beta blocker, what type of CCB do you have to prescribe (give some specific names)?

A

CCB had to be a dihydropyridine eg amlodipine or felodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how often should someone with small, medium and large AAA be monitored w ultrasound?

A 
3-4.4cm= once a year
4.5-5.4cm= every 3 months
>5.5cm= do surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what condition is carpal tunnel syndrome associated with?

A

hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the most common cause of HUS?

A

e coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when is GTN spray contraindicated for use in STEMI/ACS?

A

when there is hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what cancer does pernicious anaemia predispose someone to?

A

gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what should you think when you see intrinsic factor anitbodies?

A

pernicious anaemia/b12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how can you distinguish between acute and chronic hep B via serology?

A

acute and chronic both constitute hep b infection (not just immunisation so they would be both HbsAG and HbcAG positive

in chronic infection there will only by anti Hb IgG as IgG persists
in acute infection there will be anti Hb IgG and IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what infection does TB predispose you to that doctors should check for?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what dose is high dose statin therapy in secondary prevention of an MI?

A

80 mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of pleural effusion do you get in RA?

A

exudative

20
Q

what does squamous cell lung cancer secrete to cause hypercalcaemia?

A

parathyroid hormone related peptide

21
Q

what is the acronym for quadrantopias?

A

PITS

22
Q

what is the acronym for quadrantopias?

A

PITS- parietal inferior, temporal superior

23
Q

what happens to serum copper in wilsons disease? explain

A

it is reduced

this is because the excess copper is deposited in tissues

24
Q

what is target blood pressure in someone with diabetes?

A

140/90 mmHg

25
Q

how long does rheumatoid arthritis morning stiffness last?

A

over 30 mins

26
Q

what is first line management for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

methotrexate and steroids

27
Q

what antibody is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

anti CCP

28
Q

what is treatment for bells palsy vs ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

bells palsy= oral steroids and eye cover

ramsay hunt syndrome= acyclovir

29
Q

what organism is likely found in a diabetic foot ulcer?

A

pseudomonas aerunginosa

30
Q

what does a positive pemberton’s sign signify?

A

superior vena cava obstruction

31
Q

what STD can cause septic arthritis (especially in young people)? what will you see?

A

gonorrhoea

32
Q

what virus is reactivated in shingles and what does this cause?

A

reactivation of varicella zoster causing chickenpox

33
Q

what is first line for pharmacological treatment of GH excess? include the class of drug and the name of the drug used

A

somatostatin analogue

name is ocreotide

34
Q

what class of anti emetic is used to combat nausea and vomiting due to chemotherapy?

A

5HT3 antagonist

35
Q

what surgery is considered best for SAH?

A

endovascular coiling

36
Q

what happens in terms of management if a patient presents after 4.5hrs of stroke onset?

A

start aspirin 300mg daily for 2 weeks 24hrs after they present
before starting do a repeat CT to exclude any new haemorrhagic stroke

37
Q

how many days before surgery should you stop warfarin? what should target INR before surgery be?

A

1.5

38
Q

if there is arrhythmia after MI what artery is most likely affected and what type of STEMI will this cause?

A

II, III and avF ie inferior STEMI

RCA infarct as this supplies the AV node

39
Q

how is adrenaline given in cardiac arrest in shockable v non shockable rhythmns?

A

shockable= give after 3 cycles of CPR

non shockable= give immediately

40
Q

is pulseless electrical activity shockable or not shockable?

A

not shockable

41
Q

what test is used to diagnose addisons disease?

A

short synacthen test

42
Q

what should you think when you see hyponatraemia and hyperkaelmia?

A

addisons disease

43
Q

what are the most common causes of infective endocarditis?

A

staph aureus

if <2 months post valve surgery staph epidermis

44
Q

what triad is used for raised ICP?

A

Cushings: hypertension, bradycardia and irregular breathing (results in wide pulse pressure)

45
Q

what is the most common valve problem with rheumatic heart disease?

A

mitral stenosis

46
Q

what is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

minimal change disease

47
Q

how is nephrotic syndrome pharmacologically treated?

A

prednisolone

Year 3 (104 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions