Laz and Oli SBA corrections Flashcards

1
Q

what murmur does severe aortic regurg cause? explain why it arises and its specific name

A

severe regurg causes backflow of blood causing a physiological mitral stenosis
this causes a mid diastolic murmur known as an austin flint murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the motor scores in GCS?

A
1= no movement
2= abnormal extension
3= abnormal flexion
4= withdraws from pain
5= localises to pain
6= normal movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what test is sued to measure chronic pancreatitis?

A

faecal elastase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the difference between transferrin, transferrin saturation and TIBC?

A

transferrin is a measure of the amount of free transferrin that can bind to and transport iron
TIBC is a measure of how easily iron can bind to transferrin
therefore, if one is low the other will also be low

transferrin saturation is how much transferrin has iron bound to it
it will therefore be inverse to transferrin and TIBC level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are t scores for osteopenia and osteoporosis?

A

0 to -1.5= normal
-1.5 to -2.5= osteopenia
less than -2.5= osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe what is seen in background retinopathy, pre prolif, prolif and maculopathy in diabetes. explain what they mean

A

background= hard exudates (cheesy) due to leakage of lipids from damaged vessels, microaneurysms and blot haemorrhages
pre proliferative= all of the above plus soft exudates (sign of retinal ischaemia)
prolif= formation of new blood vessels
maculopathy= hard exudates near the macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the most common cause of CKD?

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what cancer of the skin has occured if there is a raised lesion with everted edges and a keratinitic core?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what cancer of the skin has occured if there is a lesion with raised pearly edges and fine telangiectasia on the surface?

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how do you differentiate anterior and middle cerebral artery strokes

A
anterior= leg weakness greater than arm weakness 
middle= arm weakness greater than leg weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is seen on LFTs in PBC?

A

ALP and GGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what antibody is found in PBC?

A

anti mitochondrial antibodies

AMA M2 antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what cells mediate inflammation in PBC?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what conditions is PBC associated with?

A

sjogrens syndrome
rheumatoid arthritis
coeliac disease
scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

go through A-E CXR findings in heart failure

A
alveolar oedema
kerley B lines
cardiomegaly 
diversion of upper lobes 
pleural effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are air bronchograms and when are they seen?

A

when alveoli are filled with something other than air
seen in pulmonary oedema- filled with fluid
seen in pneumonia- filled with pus/consolidation
seen in interstitial lung disease- filled with fibrosed tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is it called on CXR when alveoli are filled with something other than air?

A

air bronchograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is first line imaging for pancreatitis?

A

ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

out of amylase and lipase what is more specific for panreatitis?

A

lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

if someone is speaking in sentences that dont make sense post stroke what area has been damaged?

A

wernickes- speech production is fine but speech comprehension is fucked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what might cause erroneously high K+? how can you identify this and how do you continue care

A

drawing blood quickly as it causes red cell lysis and releases lots of potassium
if K+ is really high but there are no ECG changes or symptoms you should suspect this and urgently redo the bloods before treating for hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the progress of pain in a duodenal ulcer?

A

pain relieved by eating

gets worse a few hrs after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the progress of pain in a gastric ulcer?

A

pain worse as you eat

gets better a few ours after you eat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

out of duodenal and gastric ulcers whats more common?

A

duodenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what will vocal resonance be in pleural effusion and why?

A

decreased, fluid doesnt conduct sound well

27
Q

where are bronchial breathing sounds normal?

A

over the trachea

28
Q

where are bronchial breathing sounds abnormal?

A

in the lungs

29
Q

what causes bronchial breathing?

A

consolidation

30
Q

what medication is contraindicated in GORD?

A

nitrates

31
Q

in what deficiency will you see glossitis and angular stomatitis?

A

B12
iron
folate

32
Q

what anticoag is given in acute limb ischaemia?

A

IV heparin

33
Q

if someone has jaundice and a RUQ mass what should you think?

A

couvoisiers law- this is a palpable gallbladder and if accompanied by painless jaundice suggests pancreatic cancer

34
Q

what is used to ix a suspected PE in a pregnant woman and why?

A

VQ scan

they cannot have a CTPA as the ionising radiation can harm the foetus

35
Q

what is delormes procedure used to treat?

A

rectal prolapse

36
Q

what drug is a common SABA?

A

ipatropium bromide

37
Q

if someone has suspected lung cancer with a cavitating lesion what type of cancer are they likely to have?

A

squamous cell cancer

38
Q

what acronym is used to remember causes of microcytic anaemia and what does it stand for?

A
TAILS:
thalassaemia 
anaemia of chronic disease
iron deficiency 
lead poisoning 
sideroblastic anaemia
39
Q

whats the inheritance pattern of PCKD?

A

autosomal dominant

40
Q

how can aspirin and paracetamol OD be differentiated?

A

aspirin OD= tinnitus

paracetamol OD= takes a while for symptoms to be displayed

41
Q

how does carpal tunnel syndrome present?

A

pain in lateral half of the hand
pain wakes patients up at night
pain is relived by vigorously shaking the hand

42
Q

what nerve is affected in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

median

43
Q

what is immediate management of suspected PE? whats done after

A

high flow oxygen and DOAC

then calculate the wells score and CTPA/d dimer

44
Q

what ix is used to confirm a DVT in the lower limbs?

A

venous ultrasound of the lower limbs

45
Q

what ratio is used to identify alcoholic hep?

A

AST:ALT> 2

46
Q

out of AST and ALT which is raised more in alcoholic hep and by how much?

A

AST by more than 2

47
Q

what are the 3 causes of raised JVP?

A
right HF (secondary to left HF or pulmonary hypertension) 
constrictive pericarditis
tricuspid regurg
48
Q

what ix is best to confirm hiaatus hernia?

A

barium swallow

49
Q

how is SVT managed in asthmatics?

A

first line vagal manoeuvres

if this fails give a CCB like verapamil

50
Q

in whom is adenosine contraindicated? whats given instead

A

asthmatics

give verapamil instead

51
Q

what is primary amenorrhoea?

A

it is when someone never has a period (not an ovarian cause of amenorroea lol)

52
Q

what does oligoclonal bands on electrophoresis of CSF suggest is the diagnosis?

A

MS

53
Q

what eletrolyte abnormalities cause long QT syndrome?

A

hypomagnesemia

hypokalemia

54
Q

if amyloidosis has caused nephrotic syndrome, what might the underlying diagnosis be?

A

multiple myeloma

55
Q

what abx can be used to treat c diff?

A

vancomycin or metronidazole

56
Q

when are shoerocytes v shistocytes produced?

A
spherocytes= hereditary spherocytosis or haemolytic anaemia
shistocytes= fragment of RBC
57
Q

out of FVC and FEV1 which is reduced in COPD?

A

FEV1

58
Q

in young patients who have hypertension what should you consider as cuases?

A

phaeo
conns syndrome
coarctation of the aorta
renal artery stenosis

59
Q

what is used first line to treat wernickes encephalopathy?

A

IV thiamine

60
Q

what is pabrinex?

A

thiamine replacement

61
Q

what is the medicatin/supplement name for whats given to replace thiamine?

A

pabrinex

62
Q

what endocrine condition causes hyperprolactinaemia? explain why

A

hypothyroidism- it causes increased TRH which alongside increasing TSH increases prolactin too

63
Q

what does TRH do?

A

stimulates production of TSH and prolactin