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Year 3 > SBA DECK 16/05 > Flashcards

SBA DECK 16/05 Flashcards

1
Q

out of PT and APTT which measures the intrinsic vs extrinsic pathway?

A 
APTT= intrinsic
PT= extrinsic
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2
Q

how can you differentiate VWB disease and haemophilia?

A

VWB disease= superficial bleeding ie bleeding gums, petechiae, purpura
haemophilia= deep bleeding ie haemarthrosis, haematoma etc

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3
Q

what is the major class of side effects when taking bisphosphonates? how are patients taught to avoid this?

A

oesophageal problems eg oesophageal ulcers, oesophagitis etc
patients are taught to take the medication half an hour before breakfast, swallow the pill whole with water and sit upright for half an hr

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4
Q

what are signs and symptoms of hereditary haemochromatosis?

A 
bronze skin
T2DM
fatigue
joint pain
liver cirrhosis
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5
Q

what is the first line treatment for severe hyperclacaemia?

A

IV fluid therapy

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6
Q

describe birefringence and needle shape in joint fluid aspirate in gout v pseudogout? how do you remember birifringence?

A 
gout= negatively birifringent needle shaped
pseudogout= positively shaped rhomboid

gout= neg birifringence because its worse than pseudogout therefore its more negative

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7
Q

what is another word for anti dsDNA antibodies?

A

anti nuclear antibody

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8
Q

when does transudate v exudate collect?

A 
transudate= increased intravascular pressure or reduced oncotic pressure
exudate= due to infection, inflammation and neoplasm
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9
Q

out of transudate and exudate what is due to infection, inflammation and malignancy?

A

exudate

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10
Q

out of transudate and exudate what has high protein? how do you remember this?

A

exudate

think about the cause of each one- if its due to infection, inflammation or malignancy

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11
Q

how is thoracocentesis in tension pneumothorax done specifically?

A

IV cannula in the 2nd ICS mcl

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12
Q

when can you not interpret IgA ttg?

A

when IgA levels are low

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13
Q

how long after possible HIV exposure do you have to wait to be tested?

A

4 weeks if asymptomatic

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14
Q

what what arrhythmias is atropine vs adenosine used?

A 
atropine= sinus bradycardia
adenosine= SVT
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15
Q

what is first line management for haemodynamically unstable bradycardia?

A

IV atropine

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16
Q

where do you find emphysema in COPD v alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

COPD= upper lobes

A1AT deficiency= lower zones

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17
Q

what is deformity is radio femoral delay associated with?

A

coarctation of the aorta

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18
Q

what is the max dose of atropine you can give someone who is bradycardic?

A

3mg

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19
Q

what is used to differentiate endogenous v exogenous causes of hypoglycaemia? explain why

A 
endogenous= c peptide is raised
exogenous= c peptide is normal

c peptide is a by product of insulin production so if lots of insulin is produced endogenously it will be raised whereas if insulin is administered exogenously it will be normal

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20
Q

whats the biggest side effect of adenosine administration?

A

flushing

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21
Q

when would you shock a patient 3 times (stacked shocks) instead of once?

A

if they are being monitored in a coronary care unit

22
Q

what rhythms are shockable v non shockable?

A

shockable= VF and pulseless VT

non shockable= asystole and pulseless electrical activity

23
Q

what pulseless rhythm is shockable?

A

pulseless VT

24
Q

when and how is adrenaline given in cardiac arrest?

A 
when= as soon as possible in non shockable rhythms, after 3 shocks in shockable rhythms 
how= 1 mg, give every 3-5 mins as ALS continues
25
Q

what test is used to check for h pylori post eradication therapy?

A

urea breath test

26
Q

if you see haemoptysis/cough with haematuria what should you think immediately in terms of diagnosis?

A

goodpastures syndrome

27
Q

what supplement can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine?

A

iron

28
Q

what is first line ix in primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

renin: aldosterone ratio

29
Q

what electrolyte imbalance will occur in hyperaldosteronism?

A

hypernatraemia and hypokalemia

30
Q

what antibody is very specific for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

anti CCP

31
Q

what antibodies are checked for SLE? which is more specific

A

ANA

anti double stranded DNA (more specific)

32
Q

what cancer are those with haemochromoatosis more at risk of?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

33
Q

what is urine:plasma urea in pre renal aki?

A

urine urea is way higher

34
Q

what quadrant is more affected in bitemporal hemianopia due to pituitary tumor? why?

A

upper quadrant

because the compression is inferior

35
Q

what is given first line for itching due to jaundice?

A

chlorphenamine

36
Q

what medication is first line for lower back pain?

A

NSAIDs

37
Q

what investigation is diagnostic for pancreatic cancer?

A

high res abdominal CT

38
Q

after fibrinolysis is given in ACS when should you do an ECG?

A

60-90 mins after

39
Q

what is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction?

A

colon cancer

40
Q

what valve problem is associated with polycystic kidney disease?

A

mitral valve prolapse

41
Q

what happens to goblet cells in crohns?

A

increase

42
Q

what are crypt abscess and decreased mucin associated with?

A

ulcerative colitis

43
Q

what is seen on intestinal biopsy in crohns vs uc?

A

crohns= increased goblet cells

ulcerative colitis= crypt abscess and decreased mucin

44
Q

what specific referral and in what time frame needs to be done urgently when leukaemia is suspected in children?

A

FBC within 48 hrs

45
Q

what is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary carcinoma

46
Q

what antibiotic used to treat UTIs can cause pulmonary fibrosis?

A

nitrofuratonin

47
Q

what should you do when someone is on warfarin and has a major bleed?

A

stop warfarin

give vitamin K 5mg IV and prothrombin complex

48
Q

how is acute relapse of MS treated?

A

steroids

49
Q

what are jacksonian movements and what are they associated with?

A

jerking clonic movements that move from distal to proximal

they are characteristic of frontal lobe seizures

50
Q

how long after an URTI does PSGN v IgA nephropathy develop?

A 
PSGN= 1-2 weeks
IgA= 1-2 days

Year 3 (104 decks)

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