Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 > SBA DECK 18/4 > Flashcards

SBA DECK 18/4 Flashcards

1
Q

what type of HF does diastolic dysfunction cause?

A

HFpEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what type of HF does systolic dysfunction cause?

A

HFrEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some clinical signs of HFpEF?

A

slower onset
reduced heart sounds
S3 is heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what dose of adrenaline is given to patients when an anaphylactic reaction occurs? via what rute

A

0.5 ml 1 in 1000 adrenaline IM

1 in 1000 is 1g in 1000mls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the most common cause of portal hypertension? what type of cause is this

A

cirrhosis is the most common cause. it is a hepatic cause of portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is caput medusae a sign of?

A

portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do oesophageal varcies arise?

A

when the pressure in the portal system is higher than in the systemic system blood is redirected to systemic circulation by collaterals. These vessels dilate and can rupture if too much blood is flowing into them at a very high pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how do you treat an upper GI bleed?

A 
ABCDE assessment
insert 2 wide bore cannulae for IV access 
IV fluids
catheterise
urgent edoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what score is used when someone has an acute upper GI bleed?

A

glasgow blatchford

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is paracetmol OD managed?

A

n acetylcysteine
give immediately if the OD was staggered
if paracetamol taken is not known and they are well, can measure serum paracetamol and then decide if treatment is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is n acetylcysteine used for?

A

paracetamol OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is seen on MRI in huntington’s?

A

atrophy of caudate nucleus and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how is huntington’s pharmacologically managed?

A

there is no management and no medications to slow the progression of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is riluzole used for?

A

to slow the progression of MND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is seen on MRI in alzheimers?

A

generalised atrophy and enlargement of sulci and ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

give some examples of DMARDs?

A

methotrexate
sulfasalazine
hydroxychloroquine
leflunomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when are biologics used in RA and what type (give specific names)

A

they are used in severe disease (DAS28 score above 5.1)

anti TNF alpha are used first line, most commonly infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what artery is commonly associated with first degree heart block?

A

right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the first choice drug for epilepsy in pregnancy?

A

lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is carcinoid syndrome?

A

when a neuroendocrine tumor metastasises to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what size stones in renal colic warrant what treatment?

A 
<5mm= watchful waiting under urology 
5-10mm= alpha blocker and wait for it to pass
>10mm= surgical management/ shockwave lithotripsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when is adrenaline given when someone collapses? how often can it be administered

A

after 3 shocks are administered

give every 1-2 mins thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what rhythms are shockable?

A

pulseless VT and VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are DVLA guidelines on stopping driving due to hypoglycaemia?

A

if someone has more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia they must tell the DVLA and cannot drive anymore (their license is taken away but they can reapply 3 months later)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is mallory weiss tear managed?

A

it resolves by itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what abx are used for osteomyelitis?

A

IV flucoxacillin and rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what antibody is associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what test is used for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

direct coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is first line treatment for ascites? what is second line

A

first line spironolactone

if this doesnt work second line furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what blood test should you always do in someone with suspected depression? why?

A

TFTs

hypothyroidism is a common cause of depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what might cause cushings triad?

A

brainstem compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is cushings triad?

A

hypertension
bradycardia
irregular breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how does nimodipine work in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

it reduces vasospasm to optimise cerebral perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what medication used for SVT is contraindicated in asthmatics? what is given instead?

A

adenosine

verapamil is given instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how does haemoglobin level change after massive blood loss?

A

it remains unchanged because it is a measure of conc of haemoglobin which doesnt change with loss of volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what happens to residual volume in COPD? explain why

A

in increases because patients are unable to expel all the air out from their lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how many episodes are needed per hour in the apnoea hypopnoea index to diagnose OSA?

A

15 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

lymph node from what cancer might be painless and then painful after drinking alcohol?

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what type of arrhythmia is wolff parkinson white syndrome?

A

supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is used for prophylaxis long term after someone has a variceal bleed?

A

beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is FEV1/FVC in an obstructive condition?

A

<0.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is normal FEV1/FVC?

A

> 0.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

out of FVC and FEV1 what is the numerator when calculating the ratio between them?

A

FEV1

so the ratio is FEV1/FVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what happens to FEV1/FVC in pulmonary fibrosis?

A

the ratio is normal because they are bith reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

if someone presents with lethargy and fever after receiving chemo what should you suspect they have? how is this managed

A

neutropeaenic sepsis

send them to hospital for IV abx- tazocin usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what ix can you not do when someone has a pharyngeal pouch and why?

A

endoscopy- can’t do because there is a risk of perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how is pharyngeal pouch managed?

A

if not symptomatic you don’t have to do anything

can surgically resect it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what vasculitis presents similar to herpes with mouth and genital ulcers? how can you differentiate it?

A

bechet’s disease

in the triad with mouth and genital ulcers there will also be eye symptoms (uveitis) and erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the diagnosis if there are mouth and genital ulcers, uveitis and erythema nodosum?

A

bechets disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is given when some had an anaphylactic reaction?

A

500 micrograms adrenaline (1:1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how does adrenaline help in an anaphylactic reaction?

A

it reduces angioedema to minimise airway compromise

it increases blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are the ules for anticoagulation for someone with valvular disease who has AF?

A

they must be anticoagulated despite chadsvasc score

they should be anticoagulated with vitamin K antagonists like warfarin and not DOACs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what type of anticoagulant is used in AF patients?

A

valvular disease= vitamin k antagonists

non valvular disease= DOACs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what anticoagulant is a vitamin K antagonist?

A

warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the character/colour of CSF in someone with bacterial meningitis?

A

it will be cloudy/purulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what urological affect do tricylic antidepressants have?

A

urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how does paget’s disease of the breast present?

A

nipple eczema and an underlying lump, usually in over 50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does autonomic neuropathy due to poorly controlled diabetes cause?

A

gastroparesis (feeling full v soon into a meal, nausea, bloating etc)
postural hypotension

59
Q

what stain is used for pneumocystitis pneumonia?

A

silver stain

60
Q

in what condition is there loss of outer third of the eyebrow?

A

hypothyrodism

61
Q

what is first line diagnostic ix for stable angina?

A

CT coronary angiogram

62
Q

what is aplastic anaemia?

A

when the bone marrow doesn’t produce enough blood cells

63
Q

in a severe flare of UC how many stools need to be passed per day?

A

6

64
Q

how is a moderate flare of UC managed?

A

topical or oral aminosalicyclate

65
Q

what is a crypt abscess?

A

a collection of neutrophils in an intestinal crypt

66
Q

what are histological findings in UC disease?

A

crypt abscess
goblet cell depletion
changes limited to the submucos

67
Q

in what type of IBD are crypt abscesses seen? what is this?

A

ulcerative colitis

collections of neutrophils in intestinal crypts

68
Q

what is a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube used for?

A

used in patients who cannot eat or drink long term and have a high risk of aspiration

69
Q

is thrombus or embolus more common in cerebrovascular accident?

A

thrombus

70
Q

what is the difference between carbimazole and carbamazepine and what are they used for?

A 
carbimazole= used alongside propanolol in hyperthyroidism
carbamazepine= an antiepileptic
71
Q

what is fulminant liver failure?

A

acute liver failure

72
Q

what is chronic liver failure?

A

liver failure on a background of cirrhosis

73
Q

what is the diagnostic test for typhoid fever?

A

bone marrow aspirate and culture is most sensitive

can also do blood cultures or stool cultures

74
Q

how is typhoid fever managed?

A

abx- cipro unless resistant
supportive treatment
advise that they are contagious so hand washing and contacts etc

75
Q

what are common side effects of levodopa?

A

hypotension
restlessness
GI upset
with long term use= drug induced dyskinesia (slow writhing movements)

76
Q

what vaccines are contraindicated in those on methotrexate? why?

A

live vaccines because they are too immunosupressed

77
Q

what drugs are given in heart failure?

A

ace inhibitor
beta blocker
spironolactone

78
Q

if in a SAH non contrast CT head is unclear, what test can be done, when should it be done and what will be seen?

A

do a LP 12 hrs after onset and look for xanthochromia

79
Q

what cells might be seen on blood film in someone who has had a splenectomy? what does this mean

A

target cells might be seen but they are non specific

80
Q

what is target hba1c for an adult with diabetes managed with lifestyle and one drug?

A

48 mmol/L

81
Q

what is the most appropriate first test for addison’s disease?

A

9am cortisol test

82
Q

what is 9am cortisol used for?

A

addisons disease

83
Q

what happens to ventricles and sulci on CT head in hydrocephalus?

A

ventricles enlarge and sulci are absent

84
Q

what happens to potassium in DKA?

A

it is low

85
Q

what is a common cause of hypokalemia?

A

DKA

86
Q

what is used to investigate carotid stenosis?

A

carotid doppler

once it has been identified do CT/MR angiography

87
Q

in whom might carotid endartectomy be done?

A

those with symptomatic TIA
those with good recovery from stroke
those who had CVAs involving anterior circulation

88
Q

if a patient’s stable angina is not controlled by a beta blocker what should the next step for medication be?

A

add a dihydropiridine CCB

89
Q

what is a myoclonic seizure?

A

sudden jerking of the limb/ random movements

90
Q

what is first line management when you see bradycardia?

A

IV atropine 500 micrograms

91
Q

what is atropine used for? what is the route and dose?

A

bradycardia

give it IV 500 micrograms

92
Q

when someone presents with acute epididymitis secondary from suspected STI what should you give them and what does this cover?

A

IM ceftriaxone and PO doxycycline

this covers gonorrhoea and chlamydia

93
Q

what presents with confusion and seizure acutely when there are no signs of meningism?

A

encephalitis

94
Q

what is the most common causative organism of encephalitis?

A

herpes simplex virus

95
Q

is encephalitis more commonly bacterial or viral?

A

viral

96
Q

how is encephalitis managed?

A

IV aciclovir

97
Q

what is first line medication for maintaining remission in crohn’s?

A

azothioprine

or mercatopurine

98
Q

what is a specific sign for early HIV presentation?

A

macropapular rash on upper body

mucosal ulcers

99
Q

what are macropapular rash on upper body and mucosal ulcers a sign of?

A

early signs of HIV infection

100
Q

what medication is used to treat bi polar disorder and how does it work?

A

lithium- it reduces the number of manic episodes

101
Q

what affect does dopamine have on prolactin?

A

it inhibits prolactin release

102
Q

in what time must a patient present with MI for PCI to be the primary management? what happens if they present after this time?

A

if they present within 12 hr symptom onset PCI is first line
if they present after 12 hours PCI should be considered as first line

103
Q

what class of drugs commonly cause galactorrhea as a side effect?

A

antipsychotics

104
Q

what is first line analgesia in someone with renal colic? when should it be used with caution?

A

diclofenac

use with caution if someone has kidney failure

105
Q

what is diclofenac?

A

analgesia (commonly used first line in renal colic)

106
Q

what medication is used to relieve itching in PBC?

A

cholestyramine

107
Q

what do patients need to be warned about when they take cholestyramine?

A

take it 2-4 hrs before eating as it affects absorption of food

108
Q

what is first line treatment for HHS?

A

hydrate with 0.9% saline over an hour (give 1L)

109
Q

what happens to epithelial cells in cystic fibrosis?

A

there is increased sodium absorption and chloride secretion leading to thickening of mucus

110
Q

what is creon?

A

enzyme replacement

111
Q

what might be seen in CSF in SAH after 12 hrs? what is this

A

xanthochromia- this is the presence of red blood cells

112
Q

what is given for hyperthyroidism in the first trimester of pregnancy? why?

A

propyluracil

because carbimazole is contraindicated (it can cross the placenta and have negative affects on the foetus)

113
Q

when is carbimazole contraindicated for hyperthyroidism?

A

in the first trimester of pregnancy

114
Q

if transsphenoidal surgery cannot be done for acromegaly caused by tumor how is it managed?

A

ocreotide which is a somatostatin receptor ligand

115
Q

what type of drug is ocreotide?

A

somatostatin receptor ligand

116
Q

what is common supportive therapy for any bowel obstruction? explain

A

drip and suck
drip= IV fluids to maintain hydration
suck= insert an NG tube to decompress

also note: they should be NBM

117
Q

what is thumbprinting a sign of?

A

toxic megacolon

118
Q

what diuretic is used first line for ascites?

A

spironolactone

119
Q

what type of diuretic is spironolactone?

A

potassium sparing

120
Q

how will cystic fibrosis present? explain why

A

recurrent pneumonia- due to thickening of mucus and reduced clearance there is high risk of infection
diabetes- due to pancreatic insufficiency reduced insulin
steatorrhea- due to pancreatic insufficiency reduced lipase causes lack of fat absorption

121
Q

how is cardiac tamponade managed?

A

urgent pericardiocentesis

122
Q

what is beck’s triad? when is it seen?

A

muffled heart sounds
raised JVP
hypotension

is seen in cardiac tamponade

123
Q

how are symptomatic, benign peptic strictures managed?

A

balloon dilatation following benign biopsy

124
Q

what is a common lung complication of APS?

A

pulmonary embolism

125
Q

what is contraindicated in toxic megacolon and why?

A

NSAIDs and analgesia as they increase risk of perforation

126
Q

where is b12 normally absorbed?

A

terminal ileum

127
Q

how is wernicke’s encephalopathy managed?

A

IV pabrinex (thiamine replacement)

128
Q

what is the triad for wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

confusion
ataxia
nystagmus/opthalmoplegia

129
Q

what is pabrinex?

A

thiamine replacement

130
Q

what do you need to test patients for before starting a biologic? why?

A

latent TB because biologics can cause reactivation of TB

131
Q

what cardiac emergency does marfans syndrome increase the risk of developing?

A

aortic dissection

132
Q

when you see blood transfusion what should you think of risk of?

A

HIV transmission- especially if done in a rural area/ less developed country

133
Q

what does a brown grey tinge of the skin indicate?

A

urea build up

134
Q

what needs to be corrected first when someone presents with HHS and how is this done?

A

dehydration

give them 1-2L 0.9% saline over an hour

135
Q

how does CKD affect calcium levels?

A

causes hypocalcaemia

136
Q

explain how CKD causes hypocalcaemia

A

less phosphate is removed from the blood so the calcium in the blood binds to excess phosphate and serum calcium falls
vitamin D is also not converted to its active form so absorption of calcium falls

137
Q

what test helps identify carcinoid syndrome?

A

urinary 5-HIAA

138
Q

what abx can cause jaundice in someone being treated for pneuonia?

A

co amoxiclav

139
Q

what is the only type of shock that will cause warm peripheries

A

distributive

140
Q

how does methotrexate work and what must you not give alongside it?

A

it impairs folate metabolism

you shouldn’t give any other drugs that impair folate metabolism alongside it

141
Q

what type of anaemia does koilonychia and menorrhagia suggest?

A

iron deficiency

142
Q

what might trigger an addisonian crisis?

A 
stopping long term steroids
trauma
infection 
injury 
surgery
143
Q

what are symptoms of an addisonian crisis?

A 
dizziness
vomitting
weakness
hyponatremia 
hyperkaelmia
hypoglycaemia 
hypercalcaemia

Year 3 (104 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions