RPA Rheum Flashcards

1
Q

what manifestation of lupus is more likely to cause an elevated CRP

A

aside from infection, serositis

lupus generally causes elevated ESR without elevated CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

neurolupus antibody

A

ribosomal P abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what antibody is the most specific for lupus

A

anti smith

(other specific: dsDNA, SSA, SSB, U1RNP, ribosomal P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what antibody is associated with CHB in neonatal lupus

A

SSA +/- SSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non pharmacological lupus tx

A

UV protection, smoking cessation immunisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

screening for hydroxychloroquine retinopathy

A

at diagnosis then annually after 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MOA of belimumab

A

targeted human monoclonal antibody that binds to soluble BLyS, inhibiting its binding to B-cell receptors

may have effect in MSK and cutaneous SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

livedo reticularis

assos with antiphospholipid syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what biochemical marker carries the greatest risk for thrombosis in APLS

A

lupus anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

management of APLS in pregnancy with

1) prior pregnancy loss
2) prior thrombosis

A

1) prophylactic LMWH + aspirin
2) therapeutic LMWH + aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

specific antibodies systemic sclerosis

A

anticentromere (limited SS; pulmonary hyptension)

anti-topoisomerase (SCL-70; ILD)

anti-RNA polymerase III (severe renal/skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

raynaud’s and subtypes of systemic sclerosis

A

short history of Raynaud’s - diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

long history of Raynaud’s - long history of Raynaud’s before other manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

major morality in limited SSc

A

PulHTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

major cause of mortality in diffuse SSc

A

pulmonary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bosentan, macicentan, ambrisentan MOA and SE

A

endothelium receptor antagonists used in pumlmonary arterial hypertension

SE: LFT abnornality, teratogenic, fluid retention, anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what neuralgia is common in SSc

A

trigeminal neuralgia

17
Q

U1RNP without dsDNA

A

mixed connective tissue disease

but if they have another antibody highly specific for another disease, it would be another disease

18
Q
A

Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia

associated with Sjogren’s

19
Q

what is one of the only drug-induced myopathies that does not cause a raised CK

A

corticosteroids

(other drug causes - statins, antimalarials, colchicine, penicillamine, anti-retrovirals, alcohol)

20
Q

rimmed vacuoles on histology (myositis) diagnosis

A

inclusion body myositis

21
Q

which antibotic should be avoided in a patient on methotrexate

A

trimethoprim due to lunng

22
Q

main benefit of febuxostat 80mg over allopurinol 300mg

A

lowers uric acid level

(but of note, a better trial would be to assess the clinical benefit after the therapeutic level of uric acid is achieved)

23
Q

polyarteritis nodosa diagnosis

A

small and medium vessel without GN or arteriole/distal involvement.

ANCA negative

often involves mesenteric/renal arteries

epididymoorchitis is a wellrecognised manifestation

24
Q

pml radiological findings

A

T1: involved regions are usually hypointense

T2:​ involved regions are hyperintense

multifocal, asymmetric periventricular and subcortical involvement. There is little, or no mass effect or enhancement and the subcortical U-fibers are commonly involved with a predilection for the parieto-occipital regions. Corpus callosum may be involved.

25
Q

lumbar flexion relieving of pain, exacerbated by movement

A

spinal canalstenosis

26
Q

various mutations to the fibrillin-1 gene located on chromosome 15

A

Marfan’s

27
Q

why do bisphosphonates have to be taken 30min before the first food

A

food decreases the absorption of alendronate

28
Q

old person with weakness and raised ALP

A

osteomalacia

clinical features:

  • Bone pain and muscle weakness in 16 (94 percent)
  • Bone tenderness in 15 (88 percent)
  • Fracture in 13 (76 percent)
  • Difficulty walking and waddling gait in four (24 percent)
  • Muscle spasms, cramps, a positive Chvostek’s sign, tingling/numbness, and inability to ambulate in one to two (6 to 12 percent)

Laboratory findings:

  • Alkaline phosphatase elevated in 95 to 100 percent
  • Serum calcium and phosphorus reduced in 27 to 38 percent
  • Urinary calcium low in 87 percent
  • 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25[OH]D, calcidiol) <15 ng/mL in 100 percent
  • PTH elevated in 100 percent
29
Q

lumber radiculopathy vs peroneal radiculopathy - causes of foot drop differentiating options

A

In L5 radiculopathy both ankle dosrsiflexion and inversion/eversion will be affected while in a pure common peroneal neuropathy inversion will be spared. There is a slight caveat however. If the foot is tested in the dropped position inversion may appear to be weak so inversion should be tested in a passively dorsiflexed position. In an isolated superficial peroneal neuropathy eversion will be weak and dorsiflexion spared while in an isolated deep peroneal neuropathy there will be weakness of dorsiflexion with sparing of eversion. In a common peroneal neuropathy sensation over the lateral foot (sural territory), sole of foot (plantar nerves) and medial calf and foot will be spared. Finally ankle jerks will be spared in a pure common peroneal neuropathy.

30
Q

MOA of corticosteroid induced osteoporosis

A

increased osteoclast-mediated one resorption

31
Q

rash that comes and goes - rheumatological condition

A

still’s disease rash

32
Q

homogenous pattern ANA

A

ENA negative

33
Q

what are rheumatoid factor antibodies directde against

A

Fc portion of IgG

34
Q

what troponin is more specific for cardiac involvement

A

troponin I > T

troponin T is produced by regenerating skeletal markers

35
Q
A