Renal physiology Alfred Saturday Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the nephron is hugged by the afferent and efferent arterioles?

A

Thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop/Distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which part of the kidney are the glomeruli in?

A

Cortex

(only 15-20% of the nephron is at juxtamedullary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Filtration fracture

A
  • Ratio of GFR to renal plasma flow
  • Approximately 0.2
  • How much plasma arrives into tubules
  • RBF is 1L/min (cardiac output is 5L/min)
    • Only plasma is filtered so 550ml/min (assume haematocrit is 0.45)
    • GFR is 550 x 0.2 = 110 mL/min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does the filtration fraction change with reduction in systemic pressure

A

Increases because because GFR is reduced less than RPF to maintain GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the factors that impact on the GFR?

A
  • Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
  • Tubular hydrostatic pressure
  • Glomerular oncotic pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are the biggests drops in hydrostatic pressure in the nephron?

A

Afferent then efferent arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the gold standard for measurement of GFR?

A

Isotopic GFR (nuclear study)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What factors causes afferent arterial dilatation or efferent arterial constriction

A
  • Prostaglandins
  • Kinins
  • Dopamine (low dose)
  • ANP
  • NO

Of note, angio II causes afferent AND efferent arteriole constriction but greater effect on efferent than afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What factors causes constriction of the afferent arteriole

A
  • Angio II (high dose)
  • Adenosine
  • Noradrenaline
  • Endothelim
  • Vasopressin

Of note, prostaglandin blockage (e.g. NSAIDs) will cause afferent constriction, dropping the GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the targets of angiotension and the MOA?

A

AT1

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Sympathetic activation
  • Sodium and fluid retention

AT2

  • Vasodilatation
  • Inhibition of cell growth
  • Apoptosis

AT1 has predominant action (target of ARBs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What cells secrete renin?

A

Juxtaglomerular granular cells in the afferent (and less so efferent) arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TGF feedback with sodium

A
  • Volume expansion increases sodium and chloride in the macular densa
  • That causes the nephron cells to release adenosine (through increased ATP production) and leads to vasoconstrivtion, renin suppression and increase in naturetic peptides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Where is angiotensinogen produced?
  2. Where is angiotensin I converted to angiotensin II
  3. What stimulates production of renin?
A
  1. Liver
  2. Lung
  3. Hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

5 MOA of angiotensin II

A
  • Increases sympathetic activity
  • Increases Na+ reabsorption
  • Increases aldosterone secretion
  • Powerful vasoconstriction (except heart and brain)
  • ADH secretion (posterior pituitary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 stimuli of aldosterone production?

A
  • RAAS system
  • ACTH
  • Hyperkalaemia

Of note, anything that increases glucocorticoid production will increase aldosterone productionz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In tubular cells, which sides are the basolateral and apical membrane?

A

Apical membrane = urine side (brush side)

Basolateral = blood side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the differences between channels and transporters

A

Channels are always to facilitate diffusion, not ATP-driven. (E.g. aquaporin)

Transporters can be ATP dependent. The conformation of the protein changes to transport the materials. (e.g. Na+/K+ ATPase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are examples of primary active and secondary active transporters in the kidney?

A

Primary active = coupled directly to an energy source (e.g. Na+/K+ ATPase)

Secondary active = coupled indirectly to an energy source (e.g. Na+/glucose transporter that relies on the negative gradient intracellularly made by the Na+/K+ ATPase that drives Na+ through the basolateral membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Where is sodium not permeable in the nephron?
  2. Where is water not permeable in the nephron?
A
  1. Descending thin limb of the loop of Henle
  2. Ascending thin and thick limbs of loop of Henko; Distal convoluted tubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What kind of receptors are ADH receptors and where are they located?

A

G-protein coupled receptor

Basolateral side of cell

Collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the transporters involved in sodium reabsorption in the nephron?

A

Proximal tubule

  • Basolateral side
    • 3Na+/2K+ATPase
  • Apical side
    • Na+/glucose (organics also including vitamins)
    • Na+/K+
  • Paracellular

Thick ascending limb

  • Basolateral side
    • 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
  • Apical side
    • Na+/2Cl-/K+ (Barter’s syndrome imacts on this channel, frusemide blocks this)
  • These transports relies on K+ and Cl- channels

Distal tubule

  • Basolateral
    • 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
    • 3Na+/Ca++
  • Apical
    • Na+/Cl- (blocked by Thiazide, which increases action of 2Na+/Ca++ to compensate and causes hypercalcaemia)

Convoluted tubule

  • Basolateral
    • 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
    • HCO3-/Cl- (intercalated cell)
  • Apical
    • H+ ATPase (intercalated cell)
    • H+/K+ ATPase (intercalated cell)
22
Q

What is the main difference in function between the cortical collecting duct and medullary collecting duct?

A

Medullary collect duct is permeable to urea

23
Q

Function of intercalated cells in the distal tubules

A
24
Q

What part of the nephron has the greatest impact on the change in osmality of the luminal urine?

A

Ascending limb of Henle (because it is not permeable to water)

25
Q

Where is potassium regulated in the kidney?

A

Mainly freely filtered in the glomerulus

Site of regulation is cortical collecting duct by aldosterone (where K+ is secreted)

26
Q

How does the acid base state affect ionization of calcium

A

There is increased protein binding of calcium in alkalotic states because the amino acids are anions (neg charged) in alkalosis and binds to the positively charged calcium.

This also affects the reabsorption of calcium

27
Q

Where is the site of action of PTH for reabsorption of calcium?

A

Ascending limb of loop of Henle and distal tubules

The reabsorption of calcium in the proximal tubule is passive (60-70% is reabsorbed there)

28
Q

MOA of FGF23

A

Fibroblast growth factor 23 - role in phosphate and vit D metabolism

Secreted in response to elevated calcitriol

Increase in FGF 23:

  • decreases the reabsorption and increases excretion of phosphate (proximal tubule)
  • suppress 1-alpha-hydroxylase, reducing its ability to activate vitamin D and subsequently impairing calcium absorption

Assoc with mortality in CVS disease

29
Q

Where is magnesium mainly reabsorbed?

A

Distally/loop

30
Q

Why does hypomag lead to hypokalaemia

A

low Mg stimulates ROMK (renal outer medullary potassium channel) leading to increased K+ excretion

31
Q

Bartter’s syndrome

    • transported affected
    • what drug overdose does it mimic
    • what is the clinical outcome
A
  1. Either directly or indirectly affected K+/2Cl-/Na+ on apical side
    1. Type 3 most common in adults actually inhibits the basolateral Cl channel
    2. Type 5 is Gain of function in CaSR, inhibiting the entry of positive changes at the apical side through the ROMK channel and therefore reduces the NKCCT activity
  2. Frusemide overdose
  3. Hypokalaemia, hypercalciuria (or normal), metabolic alkalosis

Of note, the differentiating factor between Bartter and Gittelman is that Gittelman has hypocalciuria

Bartter’s is caused by aminoglycosides

32
Q

What is the treatment of Bartter and Gitelman?

A
  1. NSAIDs to inhibit prostaglandins
  2. Spironolactine or amiloride to block Na/K distal tubule exchange
  3. ACE inhibitors
  4. K+, Mg supplements
33
Q

Liddle’s:

  1. Inheritance
  2. Clinical features
  3. Treatment
A
  1. Autosomal domninant
  2. EnaC function increased, similar findings as in mineralcorticoid excess
    1. hypertension, hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis
  3. Ameliroride (spironolactone wont work due to aldosterone resistance)
34
Q

What substances affect osmolality but not tonicity

A

Urea and ethanol

35
Q

what inhibits release of antidiuretic hormone?

A

Alcohol

36
Q

What is the urine osmolality in suppressed ADH?

A

Should be <100 mosmol/kg

37
Q

how is urine osmolality affected in advanced CKD

A

eGFR <15 mL/min

the minimal urine osmol rises to 200-250mosm/kg

However, the serum osmolality may stay norma due to high urea, which does not have tonicity and the patient is still susceptible to fluid shifts

38
Q

How does thiazides cause hyponatraemia

A

Inhibits Na+/Cl- transported on apical membrane in the distal convoluted tubule

Causes decreased Na+ reabsorption but not water

Can mimic SIADH

39
Q

MOA of cerebral salt wasting

A

Due to dehydration through inappropriate Na wasting in the urine (following neurosurgery/SAH etc)

ADH is increased in compensation -> hyponatraemia

Fluid state is main differentiator with SIADH

Treatment is to treat the dehydration - N/Saline or 3% HSaline

40
Q

What is the pH range of urine?

A

4.5 - 8

41
Q

Where is bicarbonate mainly reabsorbed?

A

Proximal tubules

42
Q

Where is H+ mainly secreted?

A

Distal convoluted tubule

(requires the production of ammonia to buffer the tubular fluid ammonia)

43
Q

What is the strong ion difference

A

Strong ions are cations and anions which are disassociated completely

strong cations are: Na+, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+

strong anions are: Cl- and SO42-

The difference is ~40 and is predominantly made up by HCO3-

44
Q

What is the mechanism of hyperchloraemic acidosis with N/Saline administration?

A

The normaly extracellular Na+:Cl- is 140:100

With increase in Cl-, HCO3- is reduced to maintain electrical neutrality and results in a metabolic hyperchloraemic acidosis

45
Q

How does albumin affect the anion gap?

A

Albumin is an anion

so an fall in albumin will underestimate the anion gap and mask the presence of an exogenous acid

Fall of 10g/L of albumin from baseline of 40 will reduce the calculated anion gap by 2.5

46
Q

Causes of normal anion gap acidosis

A
  • Normal saline infusion - strong ion explanation see previous flashcard
    • Through hyperchloraemia and compensation with decrease in HCO3-
  • GI loss
    • Diarrhoea, small bowel fistulae/drainage, ileal conduits
    • Through loss of electrolytes
  • Renal causes
    • RTA
    • Through impaired renal HCO3- and impaired renal acid secretion

Diarrhoea can cause acidosis OR alkalosis depending on the ratio of electrolyte loss

47
Q

Types of RTA and causes

A
  1. Proximal RTA (Type 2)
    1. Defect in HCO3 reabsorption
    2. Causes
      1. Congenital (Fanconi, Wilson’s disease)
      2. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
      3. Paraprotinaemia)
  2. Distal RTA (Type 1)
    1. H+ secretion issue
    2. Cannot acidify the urine, urine pH always >5.5
    3. Can lead to nephrocalcinosis and other complications of hypocalcaemia
    4. Causes
      1. Hyperglobulinaemia
      2. SLE
      3. Lithium, amphotericin
  3. Hyperkalaemic distal RTA (Type 4)
    1. Hyperkalaemia is main issue. This suppresses production of ammonia and suppresses secretion of H+
    2. Norallly ilk acidosis
    3. Causes
      1. Hypoaldosteronism (most common cause is diabetes)
      2. Renal transplant rejection
      3. ACEI
      4. Heparin (toxic effect on zona glomerulosa)
      5. Primary adrenal insufficiency
      6. Gordon’s syndrome
        1. Aldosterone resistance
48
Q

Treatment of metabolic alkalosis in vomiting

A
  • Give normal saline
  • This is because alkalosis is driven by hypovolaemia
    • INcreases proximal Ha+/HCO3- reabsorption
    • INcreases aldosterone leading to more H+ excretion
49
Q

Why does urine sodium fluctuate in hypovolaemia metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting/NG drainage?

A

The loss of HCO3- in urine can also increase the Na+ in the urine

This is only in extreme cases

In the cases of alkalotic urine, the urine chloride can be used

50
Q
A