Review Questions for Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes a
hormone?

a. A chemical messenger transported by the bloodstream that stimulates target cells in another organ often a good distance away

b. Chemical messengers that diffuse from their point of origin locally to affect other cells physiology

c. Chemical messengers that travel across a synapse to stimulate another cell.

d. Junctions between cells interconnecting their cytoplasm.

A

a. A chemical messenger transported by the bloodstream that stimulates target cells in another organ often a good distance away

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2
Q

Which of the following is not an endocrine
organ?

a. Spleen
b. Pineal gland
c. Thymus
d. Neurohypophysis

A

a. Spleen

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3
Q

Which of the following is true regarding endocrine glands?

a. They secrete substances that do not alter the metabolism of their target cells, but have extracellular effects.

b. They secrete their products by way of ducts.

c. They have an unusually low density of blood capillaries

d. They release their secretions into the blood

A

d. They release their secretions into the blood

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4
Q

Diabetes insipidus is caused by __________.

a. cortisol hypersecretion
b. aldosterone hypersecretion
c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
hyposecretion
d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
hypersecretion

A

c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
hyposecretion

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a hypothalamic hormone?

a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
d. Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

A

b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

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6
Q

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone targets the __________.

a. thyroid gland
b. hypothalamus
c. posterior pituitary
d. anterior pituitary

A

d. anterior pituitary

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7
Q

The hormone called _________ plays an
important role in synchronizing physiological function with the cycle of daylight and darkness.

a. calcitonin
b. melanin
c. melatonin
d. hepcidin

A

c. melatonin

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8
Q

Many hours after a meal, alpha (α) cells in the pancreatic islets secrete _________, which _________ blood glucose.

a. glucagon; lowers
b. glucagon; raises
c. insulin; lowers
d. insulin; raises

A

b. glucagon; raises

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9
Q

Parathyroid hormone promotes which of the following?

a. The resorption of calcium from bone
b. Increased osteoblast activity
c. Decreased absorption of calcium from the small intestine
d. Increased calcium levels in the urine

A

a. The resorption of calcium from bone

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10
Q

The absence of iodine in the diet leads to __________.
a. hypoparathyroidism
b. hypocalcemia
c. hypothyroidism
d. hypoglycemia

A

hypothyroidism

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11
Q

Which of the following endocrine glands is inferior in location to the rest?

a. The thyroid
b. The thymus
c. The adrenal gland
d. The pineal body
e. The pituitary gland

A

c. The adrenal gland

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12
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the nervous and endocrine systems?

a. The nervous system responds more
quickly than the endocrine system.

b. Effects of the nervous system last longer than those of the endocrine system.

c. The effects of the nervous system are more widespread than those of the
endocrine system.

d. The nervous system uses chemical
messengers while the endocrine system does not.

A

a. The nervous system responds more
quickly than the endocrine system.

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13
Q

Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for the hormone that stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete ACTH?

a. CRH
b. GHRH
c. GHIH
d. APRH
e. TRH

A

a. CRH

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a function of blood?

a. Transports a variety of nutrients

b. Helps to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids

c. Participates in the initiation of blood
clotting

d. Produces plasma hormones

e. Helps to regulate body temperature

A

d. Produces plasma hormones

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15
Q

Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Granulocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Agranulocytes
e. Platelets

A

c. Erythrocytes

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16
Q

Blood serum is essentially the same as blood plasma, except that plasma contains __________ and serum does not.

a. platelets
b. nitrogenous wastes
c. fibrinogen
d. glucose
e. albumin

A

c. fibrinogen

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17
Q

What is the most abundant protein in plasma?

a. Insulin
b. Creatine
c. Bilirubin
d. Albumin
e. Creatinine

A

d. Albumin

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18
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of mature red blood cells?

a. They are able to undergo mitosis.
b. They lack a nucleus.
c. They have numerous mitochondria.
d. They carry most of the carbon dioxide that is transported in the blood.
e. They play an important role in immune defense.

A

b. They lack a nucleus.

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19
Q

The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor.

a. fibrin
b. albumin
c. sodium
d. erythrocytes
e. nitrogenous wastes

A

d. erythrocytes

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20
Q

Most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to __________.

a. the plasma membrane of erythrocytes
b. alpha chains in hemoglobin
c. beta chains in hemoglobin
d. delta chains in hemoglobin
e. heme groups in hemoglobin

A

e. heme groups in hemoglobin

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21
Q

Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a hormone that is secreted by which of the following?

a. The pituitary gland
b. The bone marrow
c. The kidneys
d. The thymus
e. The spleen

A

c. The kidneys

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22
Q

What is the average life span of red blood cells?
a. 4 to 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 20 days
d. 120 days
e. Several decades

A

d. 120 days

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23
Q

What determines whether a person has type A, B, or O blood?

a. Antibodies in blood plasma that react against foreign red blood cells

b. Antibody receptors on the surface of red blood cells

c. Glycolipids that act as antigens on the surface of red blood cells

d. Variant structures of hemoglobin within red blood cells

e. The presence or absence of spectrin in plasma membranes of red blood cells

A

c. Glycolipids that act as antigens on the surface of red blood cells

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24
Q

A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________.

a. O; AB
b. AB; O
c. A; B
d. B; A
e. O; O

A

b. AB; O

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25
Q

A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).

a. no
b. anti-A and anti-B
c. anti-A
d. anti-B
e. A and B

A

e. A and B

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26
Q

What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?

a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Eosinophil
e. Basophil

A

a. Monocyte

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27
Q

The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.

a. basophils
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. eosinophils
e. neutrophils

A

e. neutrophils

28
Q

Which cells aid in the body’s defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?

a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Neutrophils
d. Platelets
e. Monocytes

A

b. Basophils

29
Q

What is the mechanism for stopping bleeding called?

a. Erythropoiesis
b. Thrombocytosis
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Hemostasis
e. Negative feedback

A

d. Hemostasis

30
Q

Which structure in the fetus enables blood to bypass the lungs and pass directly from the right atrium to the left atrium?

a. Truncus arteriosus
b. Ductus arteriosus
c. Bulbus cordis
d. Sinus venosus
e. Foramen ovale

A

e. Foramen ovale

31
Q

What may happen if the ductus arteriosus fails to close shortly after birth?

a. Blood may flow from the right atrium to the left atrium.

b. The coronary arteries may have
abnormally increased blood flow.

c. The walls of the heart may become thin and flaccid.

d. Blood may flow from the aortic arch to the lungs.

e. Valvular stenosis may interrupt blood flow.

A

d. Blood may flow from the aortic arch to the lungs.

32
Q

A patient is suffering from pulmonary congestion and pulmonary edema. A failure of which heart chamber is most likely?

a. Right ventricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Left atrium

A

b. Left ventricle

33
Q

A drop of blood returning from the big toe would enter the heart through what vessel?

a. Superior vena cava
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Coronary sinus
d. Pulmonary veins
e. Azygous vein

A

b. Inferior vena cava

34
Q

Blood leaves the right ventricle through which valve?

a. Pulmonary semilunar
b. Pulmonary tricuspid
c. Tricuspid
d. Bicuspid
e. Aortic semilunar

A

a. Pulmonary semilunar

35
Q

Through which of the following does blood return to the heart from the lungs?

a. Superior vena cava
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Pulmonary veins
e. Coronary sinus

A

d. Pulmonary veins

36
Q

Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?

a. Aorta and venae cavae
b. Aorta and pulmonary veins
c. Pulmonary arteries and venae cavae
d. Venae cavae and pulmonary veins
e. Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary
veins

A

e. Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary
veins

37
Q

In a normal ECG, the deflection that is generated by ventricular repolarization is called the __________.

a. R wave
b. QRS wave
c. P wave
d. S wave
e. T wave

A

e. T wave

38
Q

What is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?

a. Sinuatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting
network → cardiomyocyte in LV

b. Atrioventricular (AV) node →
subendocardial conducting network →atrioventricular (AV) bundle → sinuatrial (SA) node → cardiomyocyte in LV

c. Atrioventricular (AV) node → sinuatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → subendocardial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV

d. Sinuatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node →
atrioventricular (AV) bundle →
subendocardial conducting network →
cardiomyocyte in LV

e. Sinuatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → atrioventricular (AV) bundle
→ cardiomyocyte in LV

A

d. Sinuatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node →
atrioventricular (AV) bundle →
subendocardial conducting network →
cardiomyocyte in LV

39
Q

What is the middle layer of a blood vessel called?

a. Tunica interna
b. Tunica externa
c. Tunica adventitia
d. Tunica media
e. Tunica intima

A

d. Tunica media

40
Q

Which of the following is associated with veins but not arteries?

a. A tunica media with abundant smooth muscle
b. Continuous endothelium
c. A tunica media with abundant elastic
fibers
d. Valves
e. Fenestrations

A

d. Valves

41
Q

How do blood solutes pass through the walls of continuous capillaries?

a. Through thoroughfare channels
b. Through intercellular clefts
c. Through filtration pores
d. Through sinusoids
e. Through fenestrations

A

b. Through intercellular clefts

42
Q

Blood pressure is highest in which of the following vessels?

a. Large veins
b. Conducting arteries
c. Distributing arteries
d. Venules
e. Capillaries

A

b. Conducting arteries

43
Q

In which of the following are sinusoids found?

a. Kidney and liver
b. Kidney and choroid plexuses
c. Bone marrow and kidney
d. Bone marrow and liver
e. Spleen and kidney

A

d. Bone marrow and liver

44
Q

Which of the following vessels has the thickest tunica media?

a. Small artery
b. Small vein
c. Large artery
d. Large vein
e. Capillary

A

c. Large artery

45
Q

In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, and this may result in varicose veins. What causes the varicose veins?

a. An aneurysm or weak point in an artery
b. An aneurysm or weak point in a vein
c. Failure of the venous valves
d. Failure of the lymphatic valves
e. A ruptured aneurysm in a vein

A

c. Failure of the venous valves

46
Q

What is the correct order of the branches off the aortic arch from right to left?

a. Brachiocephalic trunk, right common carotid artery, left subclavian artery

b. Right subclavian artery, brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery

c. Brachiocephalic trunk, right common
carotid artery, left common carotid artery

d. Brachiocephalic trunk, left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery

e. Brachiocephalic trunk, left common
carotid artery, left subclavian artery

A

e. Brachiocephalic trunk, left common
carotid artery, left subclavian artery

47
Q

Which of the following routes of blood flow is correct?

a. Heart → venule → medium vein → large vein → capillary → conducting artery → distributing artery → arteriole → heart

b. Heart → large vein → medium vein → venule→ capillary → arteriole →
distributing artery → conducting artery
→ heart

c. Heart → distributing artery →
conducting artery → arteriole →
capillary → venule → large vein →
medium vein → heart

d. Heart → conducting artery →
distributing artery → arteriole →
capillary → venule → medium vein →
large vein → heart

A

d. Heart → conducting artery →
distributing artery → arteriole →
capillary → venule → medium vein →
large vein → heart

48
Q

How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?

a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Four
e. Six

A

a. None

49
Q

To get from the subclavian artery to the brachial artery, blood must flow through which artery?

a. Axillary artery
b. Deep brachial artery
c. Brachiocephalic artery
d. Ulnar artery
e. Radial artery

A

a. Axillary artery

50
Q

What is the path of blood from the heart to the
right little finger (pinky) and back to the heart?

a. Aorta → brachiocephalic trunk →
right subclavian artery → right
axillary artery → right brachial artery
→ right ulnar artery → palmar arches
→ venous palmar arches → right
ulnar vein → right brachial vein →
right axillary vein → right subclavian
vein → right brachiocephalic vein →
superior vena cava

b. Aorta → right subclavian artery → right
axillary artery → right brachial artery →
right radial artery → palmar arches →
venous palmar arches → right radial vein
→ right brachial vein → right axillary
vein → right subclavian vein → superior
vena cava

c. Aorta → brachiocephalic trunk → right
subclavian artery → right axillary artery
→ right brachial artery → right ulnar
artery → palmar arches → venous palmar
arches → right basilic vein → right
cephalic vein → right axillary vein →
right brachiocephalic vein → superior
vena cava

d. Aorta → right subclavian artery → right
axillary artery → right brachial artery →
right basilic artery → palmar arches →
venous palmar arches → right basilic
vein → right cephalic vein → right
subclavian vein → right brachiocephalic
vein → superior vena cava

A

a. Aorta → brachiocephalic trunk →
right subclavian artery → right
axillary artery → right brachial artery
→ right ulnar artery → palmar arches
→ venous palmar arches → right
ulnar vein → right brachial vein →
right axillary vein → right subclavian
vein → right brachiocephalic vein →
superior vena cava

51
Q

Which type of lymphatic vessel is largest?

a. Trunk
b. Capillary
c. Collecting vessel
d. Duct
e. Terminal lymphatics

A

d. Duct

52
Q

Which lymphatic vessel drains lymph from the
right upper limb and the right side of the head
and thorax?

a. Thoracic duct
b. Right lymphatic duct
c. Lumbar trunk
d. Bronchomediastinal trunk
e. Cisterna chyli

A

b. Right lymphatic duct

53
Q

The __________ show(s) a remarkable degree of
degeneration (involution) with age.

a. lymph nodes
b. thymus
c. spleen
d. pharyngeal tonsils
e. appendix

A

b. thymus

54
Q

Where do T cells become immunocompetent?

a. Spleen
b. Bone marrow
c. Yolk sac
d. Lymph nodes
e. Thymus

A

e. Thymus

55
Q

Which of the following is/are part of the
respiratory zone of the respiratory system?

a. Bronchi
b. Lungs
c. Alveoli
d. Pharynx

A

c. Alveoli

56
Q

Which type of cell repairs damaged alveolar
epithelium?

a. Squamous (type I) alveolar cells
b. Great (type II) alveolar cells
c. Alveolar macrophages
d. Goblet cells
e. T lymphocytes

A

b. Great (type II) alveolar cells

57
Q

What causes RDS (respiratory distress syndrome) in premature babies?

a. Muscles associated with respiration are
not strong enough to expand the thorax.

b. Respiratory centers of the brain are not
functional until late in the fetal stage.

c. The lungs have not yet produced
adequate numbers of alveoli for efficient
gas exchange.

d. There is insufficient production of
surfactant.

e. Bronchioles are constricted due to excess
production of mucus.

A

d. There is insufficient production of
surfactant.

58
Q

The following is a list of tissue layers of the
digestive tract. What is the correct order from
lumen to external surface?

(1) Muscularis externa
(2) Muscularis mucosa
(3) Serosa
(4) Lamina propria
(5) Submucosa

a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
b. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
c. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
d. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
e. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

A

a. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

59
Q

What is one function of parietal cells in the
stomach?

a. They produce a secretion that breaks
down lipids.
b. They produce a secretion that stimulates
gastric motility.
c. They produce hydrochloric acid.
d. They produce mucus.
e. They produce a secretion that begins to
break down starch.

A

c. They produce hydrochloric acid.

60
Q

Why doesn’t the stomach digest itself?

a. Stem cells in gastric glands constantly
replace dead epithelial cells of the
mucosa.
b. Mucosal epithelial cells are exceptionally
long-lived.
c. Parietal cells secrete a thick mucus that
protects the mucosa.
d. Excess stomach acid is regurgitated.
e. Gastrin stimulates production of mucus.

A

a. Stem cells in gastric glands constantly
replace dead epithelial cells of the
mucosa.

61
Q

What does a hepatic triad consist of?

a. The right, left, and common hepatic ducts
b. The common hepatic duct, cystic duct,
and bile duct
c. The hepatic portal vein and two hepatic
ducts
d. A bile ductule, a branch of the hepatic
artery, and a branch of the hepatic
portal vein
e. A central vein, a hepatic lobule, and a
hepatic sinusoid

A

d. A bile ductule, a branch of the hepatic
artery, and a branch of the hepatic
portal vein

62
Q

Which of the following is not true about the
anatomy of the urinary system?

a. The kidneys are retroperitoneal.
b. The ureters connect the kidneys to the
urinary bladder.
c. The urethra of males is longer than the
urethra of females.
d. The kidneys are at equal heights within the pelvic cavity.
e. The right kidney is located more
inferiorly than the left kidney.

A

d. The kidneys are at equal heights within the pelvic cavity.

63
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the
kidneys?

a. They regulate osmolarity of the body
fluids.
b. They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing
vitamin D.
c. They help control blood pressure.
d. They release waste into the bloodstream.
e. They indirectly increase oxyhemoglobin.

A

d. They release waste into the bloodstream.

64
Q

Which of these is not part of a single individual
nephron?

a. Glomerulus
b. Glomerular capsule
c. Nephron loop
d. Collecting duct
e. Distal convoluted tubule

A

d. Collecting duct

65
Q

What are the more than one million functional
units found in each kidney called?

a. Collecting ducts
b. Nephrons
c. Renal pyramids
d. Major calyces
e. Minor calyces

A

b. Nephrons

66
Q

Which of the following best describes juxtaglomerular cells?

a. They are modified smooth muscle cells
found in the afferent arteriole.
b. They are found in the distal convoluted
tubule.
c. They are target cells for aldosterone.
d. They occupy the cleft between the
afferent and efferent arterioles.
e. They respond to parasympathetic
stimulation.

A

a. They are modified smooth muscle cells
found in the afferent arteriole.