Review Questions for Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?

a. Most cells are not in direct contact with each other
b. Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope
c. Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material.
d. Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.

A

b. Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope

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2
Q

Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both __________ and __________.

a. plasma; formed elements
b. dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues
c. elastic cartilage; hyaline cartilage
d. spongy bone; compact (dense) bone

A

b. dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues

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3
Q

New triglycerides are constantly being synthesized and stored, while others are hydrolyzed and released into the circulation by the cells found in __________.

a. blood
b. fibrous connective tissue
c. adipose tissue
d. reticular tissue

A

c. adipose tissue

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4
Q

The rubbery matrix of cartilage is secreted by __________, whereas _________ produce the fibers and ground substance that form the matrix of fibrous connective tissue.

a. chondroblasts; plasma cells
b. mast cells; fibroblasts
c. chondroblasts; fibroblasts
d. osteocytes; chondroblasts

A

c. chondroblasts; fibroblasts

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5
Q

Where are chondrocytes and osteocytes located?

a. In cartilage
b. In lacunae
c. In plasma
d. In bone

A

b. In lacunae

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6
Q

The shape of a person’s external ear is due to the presence of __________.

a. dense regular connective tissue
b. dense irregular connective tissue
c. elastic cartilage
d. fibrocartilage

A

c. elastic cartilage

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a type of fibrous connective tissue?

a. Reticular tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Areolar tissue

A

d. Areolar tissue

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a category of connective tissue?

a. Supporting connective tissue
b. Connective tissue proper
c. Fluid connective tissue
d. Aerobic connective tissue

A

d. Aerobic connective tissue

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9
Q

Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________.

a. fibroblasts
b. chondrocytes
c. neuroglia
d. myocytes

A

c. neuroglia

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10
Q

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs?

a. Smooth muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Elastic muscle

A

a. Smooth muscle

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11
Q

Striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are observed in ________.

a. skeletal muscle only
b. cardiac muscle only
c. smooth muscle only
d. skeletal and cardiac muscles

A

a. skeletal muscle only

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12
Q

The ________ exocrine gland stores its secretion until the glandular cell ruptures, whereas the ________ gland releases its apical region and reforms.

a. apocrine; holocrine
b. holocrine; apocrine
c. eccrine; endocrine
d. eccrine; apocrine

A

b. holocrine; apocrine

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13
Q

Which of the following best describes the composition of the dermis?

a. Collagen and living keratinocytes
b. Collagen and dead keratinocytes
c. Collagen and fibroblasts
d. Elastic fibers and melanocytes

A

c. Collagen and fibroblasts

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14
Q

What type of tissue is found in the most superficial layer of skin?

a. Stratified squamous epithelium
b. Simple squamous epithelium
c. Dense irregular connective tissue
d. Areolar connective tissue

A

a. Stratified squamous epithelium

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15
Q

Looking at a slide of thin skin under the microscope, you note that the stratum basale is the __________ layer of the epidermis in from the surface.

a. third
b. first
c. fifth
d. fourth

A

d. fourth

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16
Q

Which of the following cells is largely responsible for skin color?

a. Dendritic cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Tactile cell

A

c. Melanocyte

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17
Q

Which layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells?

a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum

A

a. Stratum corneum

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18
Q

Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?

a. Fibroblasts
b. Melanocytes
c. Keratinocytes
d. Tactile cells

A

d. Tactile cells

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19
Q

The fastest rate of mitosis happens in the __________.

a. stratum spinosum
b. stratum granulosum
c. stratum basale
d. stratum lucidum

A

c. stratum basale

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20
Q

Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins, microbes, and other pathogens?

a. Melanocytes
b. Adipocytes
c. Dendritic cells
d. Tactile cells

A

c. Dendritic cells

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21
Q

The __________ is absent from most epidermis.

a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum

A

d. stratum lucidum

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22
Q

. The hypodermis is characterized by an abundance of which tissue?

a. Statified squamous epithelium
b. Smooth muscle
c. Nervous tissue
d. Adipose tissue

A

d. Adipose tissue

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23
Q

Increased bilirubin levels cause a skin discoloration called __________.

a. Jaundice
b. pallor
c. bronzing
d. cyanosis

A

a. Jaundice

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24
Q

__________ burns involve the epidermis, all of the dermis, and often some deeper tissue.

a. First-degree
b. Second-degree
c. Third-degree
d. Partial-thickness

A

b. Second-degree

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25
In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for ________. a. vitamin D synthesis b. arteriole constriction c. folate production d. thermoregulation
a. vitamin D synthesis
26
If you cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound, which of the following cells would help get rid of the bacteria? a. Merkel cells b. keratinocytes c. Langerhans cells d. melanocytes
c. Langerhans cells
27
The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of ________. a. melanocytes b. keratinocytes c. connective tissue d. adipose tissue
c. connective tissue
28
An individual using a sharp knife notices a small amount of blood where he just cut himself. Which of the following layers of skin did he have to cut into in order to bleed? a. stratum corneum b. stratum basale c. papillary dermis d. stratum granulosum
c. papillary dermis
29
Which layer of your epidermis keeps you from drying out? a. stratum corneum b. stratum basale c. stratum spinosum d. stratum granulosum
a. stratum corneum
30
Which of the following functions of the skeletal system would be especially vital in a car accident? a. storage of minerals b. facilitation of movement c. protection of internal organ d. fat storage
c. protection of internal organ
31
Bone tissue can be described as ______ a. the skeletal system b. dense, hard connective tissue c. dead calcified tissue d. cartilage
b. dense, hard connective tissue
32
In the absence of red marrow, bones would not be able to do which of the following? a. store phosphate b. store calcium c. make blood cells d. move like levers
c. make blood cells
33
Which reason best explains why cartilage is slow to heal? a. because it eventually develops into bone b. because it is semi-solid and flexible c. because endochondral ossification replaces all cartilage with bone d. because it does not have a blood supply
d. because it does not have a blood supply
34
Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if ________ is lacking. a. vitamin K b. calcitonin c. vitamin D d. fluoride
c. vitamin D
35
All of the following play a role in calcium homeostasis except a. calcitonin b. thyroxine c. parathyroid hormone d. vitamin D
b. thyroxine
36
Which of the following tissues is not found as part of a long bone? a. Nervous tissue b. Adipose tissue c. Cartilage d. Transitional epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
37
A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the __________. a. diaphysis; epiphysis b. compact bone; spongy bone c. periosteum; endosteum d. endosteum; periosteum
c. periosteum; endosteum
38
When _____________ become enclosed in lacunae, ____________ they become cells called. a. osteoblasts; osteoclasts b. osteoblasts; osteocytes c. osteocytes; osteoclasts d. osteocytes; osteoblasts
b. osteoblasts; osteocytes
39
Bone-forming cells are called __________. a. Osteoblasts b. osteoclasts c. osteocytes d. osteons
a. Osteoblasts
40
Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix? a. Proteoglycans b. Glycoproteins c. Collagen d. Hydroxyapatite
d. Hydroxyapatite
41
Intramembranous ossification produces the __________. a. irregular bones of the vertebrae b. flat bones of the skull c. long bones of the limbs d. short bones of the wrist
b. flat bones of the skull
42
What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)? a. Periosteum b. Hematopoietic tissue c. Red bone marrow d. Yellow bone marrow
d. Yellow bone marrow
43
Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the __________. a. secondary ossification center b. primary bone marrow c. secondary bone marrow d. epiphysial plate
d. epiphysial plate
44
Bone elongation is a result of __________. a. cartilage growth b. muscle growth c. osseous tissue growth d. fibrous membrane addition
a. cartilage growth
45
The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________. a. mineralization b. mineral deposition c. resorption d. crystallization
c. resorption
46
The most common bone disease is __________. a. osteomyelitis b. osteoporosis c. osteosarcoma d. osteomalacia
b. osteoporosis
47
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture? a. Bone remodeling → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → hematoma formation b. Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling c. Hematoma formation → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → bone remodeling d. Soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation → bone remodeling
b. Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling
48
New bone is deposited by cells known as __________. a. tunnel cells b. osteoclasts c. endosteum d. osteoblasts
d. osteoblasts
49
From your review on the subdivisions in gross anatomy which of the following specialties might focus on studying all of the structures of the ankle and foot? a. microscopic anatomy b. regional anatomy c. muscle anatomy d. systemic anatomy
b. regional anatomy
50
The thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity are each lined with ___________. a. the pericardium b. the meninges c. a serous membrane d. a mucous membrane
c. a serous membrane
51
The most inferior segment of the upper limb is called the __________. a. carpal region b. manual region c. antebrachial region d. brachial region
b. manual region
52
At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________. a. forms the fibrous connective walls of the joint cavity b. is the layer of cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces of the bones c. forms the intracapsular ligaments d. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid
d. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid
53
The most movable joints are ___________ joints. a. symphysis b. synovial c. syndesmosis d. gomphosis
b. synovial
54
What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common? a. These are joints found only in the appendicular skeleton. b. These are joints found only in the axial skeleton. c. These are all bony joints d. These are all fibrous joints
d. These are all fibrous joints
55
The union of the proximal and middle phalanges form __________ joints. a. plane (gliding) b. hinge c. saddle d. condylar (ellipsoid)
b. hinge
56
The joint between the diaphyses of the radius and ulna is a __________. a. suture b. gomphosis c. syndesmosis d. synchondrosis
c. syndesmosis
57
One hand of an adult has __________ bones. a. 18 b. 25 c. 27 d. 28
c. 27
58
Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row? a. trapezium b. hamate c. pisiform d. scaphoid
d. scaphoid
59
A young girl falls off her bike and lands on her hand, breaking the medial bone of her antebrachium. Which bone did she break? a. Her metacarpal b. Her humerus c. Her radius d. Her ulna
d. Her ulna
60
A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________. a. glenohumeral joint b. costoclavicular joint c. acromioclavicular joint d. sternoclavicular joint
c. acromioclavicular joint