Review Questions Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of skeletal muscle?
a. Autorhythmicity
b. Excitability
c. Extensibility
d. Conductivity
e. Contractility

A

a. Autorhythmicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where in a sarcomere do actin and myosin overlap?
a. The Z disc
b. The H band
c. The I band
d. The A band
e. The M line

A

d. The A band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a myofibril regulatory protein?
a. G actin
b. Titin
c. Troponin
d. Myosin
e. Calcium

A

c. Troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following structures store calcium ions that trigger skeletal muscle contraction?
a. Mitochondria
b. Myofibrils
c. T tubules
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. Synaptic vesicles

A

d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In a relaxed muscle fiber, what blocks the active sites on actin?
a.Tropomyosin
b.Troponin
c. Calcium ions
d. Myosin heads
e. Elastic fibers

A

a. Tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the “functional unit” of skeletal muscle fibers?
a. The sarcomere
b. The Z disc
c. The myofilaments
d. The sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. The neuromuscular junction

A

a. The sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following marks the boundaries of a sarcomere?
a. I bands
b. H bands
c. Z discs
d. M lines
e. A bands

A

c. Z discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is predominantly made up of myosin?
a. G actin
b. F actin
c. The thin myofilament
d. The thick myofilament
e. The elastic filament

A

d. The thick myofilament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which protein acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle?
a. F actin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Troponin
d. Titin
e. Dystrophin

A

c. Troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a person is injected with a toxin that blocks acetylcholine receptors, which of the following will occur?
a. The sarcolemma will be constantly stimulated, and muscles will continually contract.
b. Spastic paralysis will result.
c. The toxin will have no effect on muscle
action.
d. Stimulation of the sarcolemma will not be possible, and muscles will be paralyzed.
e. The person will develop myasthenia
gravis.

A

d. Stimulation of the sarcolemma will not be possible, and muscles will be paralyzed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to __________.
a. flaccid paralysis
b. continued muscle contraction
c. atrophy
d. numbness
e. muscle wasting

A

b. continued muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What comprises a motor unit?
a. One neuromuscular junction
b. The distance from one Z disc to the next
c. One thick myofilament and all thin myofilaments with which it forms cross-bridges
d. One nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it
e. One myofibril of a muscle fiber

A

d. One nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following processes occurs during the contraction of skeletal muscle?
a. Calcium ions are taken up by the terminal cisterns.
b. The myofilaments become shorter.
c. Calcium ions dissociate from troponin.
d. Myofibrils slide over each other.
e. Z discs move closer together.

A

e. Z discs move closer together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?
a. It stimulates the passage of an electrical signal along the length of the sarcolemma.
b. It binds to tropomyosin to expose a binding site for thick myofilaments.
c. It provides energy for contraction.
d. It binds to troponin to expose a myosin
binding site.
e. It binds to troponin to expose an actin binding site.

A

e. It binds to troponin to expose an actin binding site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where would you expect to find numerous gap
junctions in muscular tissue?
a. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
b. The A bands of skeletal and cardiac muscle
c. The sarcolemma of skeletal muscle
d. The intercalated discs of cardiac muscle
e. Multiunit smooth muscle

A

d. The intercalated discs of cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In contrast to slow oxidative fibers, fast glycolytic
fibers __________.
a. contract more slowly
b. contain more mitochondria
c. fatigue more quickly
d. have more capillaries
e. contain more myoglobin

A

c. fatigue more quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is a connective tissue sheath that surrounds an individual muscle fiber?
a. Epimysium
b. Fascia
c. Tendon
d. Endomysium
e. Perimysium

A

d. Endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called ___________.
a. compartments
b. fascicles
c. retinacula
d. aponeuroses
e. groups

A

b. fascicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which nerves innervate most of the muscles of facial expression?
a. The first pair of spinal nerves
b. The facial nerves (CN VII)
c. The trigeminal nerves (CN V)
d. The glossopharyngeal nerves (CN IX)
e. The vagus nerves (CN X)

A

b. The facial nerves (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?
a. Depressor anguli oris
b. Orbicularis oris
c. Levator labii superioris
d. Platysma
e. Quadriceps femoris

A

b. Orbicularis oris

21
Q

Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation?
a. Internal intercostals
b. External intercostals
c. Diaphragm
d. Stylohyoid
e. Hyoglossus

A

c. Diaphragm

22
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the quadriceps femoris?
a. Vastus medialis
b. Rectus femoris
c. Vastus intermedius
d. Vastus femoris
e. Vastus lateralis

A

d. Vastus femoris

23
Q

Based on its name, how would you describe the rectus femoris?
a. Diagonal and in the calf
b. Straight and in the calf
c. Triangular and in the thigh
d. Diagonal and in the thigh
e. Straight and in the thigh

A

e. Straight and in the thigh

24
Q

Which of the following is not true?
a. Interneurons are only found in the CNS.
b. The CNS consists of the brain, cranial nerves, and spinal cord.
c. The visceral motor division is further
divided into sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions.
d. Oligodendrocytes are found only in the
CNS.
e. Satellite cells are found only in the PNS.

A

b. The CNS consists of the brain, cranial nerves, and spinal cord.

25
Q

Which of the following is/are found only in the PNS?
a. Nerves
b. Astrocytes
c. Myelin
d. Lipofuscin
e. Unmyelinated axons

A

a. Nerves

26
Q

Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen where?
a. The axon
b. The neurosoma
c. The dendrites
d. The axon hillock
e. The Schwann cell

A

b. The neurosoma

27
Q

The term “nerve fiber” refers to a/an __________.
a. nerve cell
b. organelle in nerve cells
c. organ
d. axon
e. bundle of macromolecules in nerve cells

A

d. axon

28
Q

Which of the following is a function of astrocytes?
a. They circulate the cerebrospinal fluid.
b. They produce cerebrospinal fluid.
c. They phagocytize tissue debris.
d. They help form the blood-brain barrier.
e. They form myelin in the CNS.

A

d. They help form the blood-brain barrier.

29
Q

Which cells would you expect to increase in
number during an infection of the CNS? a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Ependymal cells
e. Schwann cells

A

c. Microglia

30
Q

A myelin sheath is composed primarily of
__________.
a. lipids
b. carbohydrates
c. glycoproteins
d. proteins
e. polysaccharides

A

a. lipids

31
Q

A friend of yours suffers a blow to the forehead and loses sensation in her scalp due to the crushing of peripheral nerves. Is there a possibility she will
regain sensation in the area?
a. Yes, because the damaged neurons may regenerate through the process of mitosis.
b. No, because damaged neurons have very limited potential for mitosis.
c. No, because peripheral nerves lack an endoneurium and a neurilemma.
d. Yes, because damaged peripheral axons may regenerate due to the presence of a neurilemma and an endoneurium.
e. Yes, because satellite cells undergo mitosis and produce growth factors that enable damaged axons to regenerate.

A

d. Yes, because damaged peripheral axons may regenerate due to the presence of a neurilemma and an endoneurium.

32
Q

Lateral outgrowths of which of the following develop into the cerebral hemispheres?
a. Diencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Metencephalon
d. Neural tube
e. Telencephalon

A

e. Telencephalon

33
Q

A woman who is in labor might be given anesthesia in which area?
a. The epidural space
b. The subarachnoid space
c. The lumbar cistern
d. The lumbosacral enlargement
e. The cervical enlargement

A

a. The epidural space

34
Q

Which of the following fractures would be the least likely to cause a spinal cord injury?
a. A fracture of vertebra C2
b. A fracture of vertebra C6
c. A fracture of vertebra T5
d. A fracture of vertebra T12
e. A fracture of vertebra L4

A

e. A fracture of vertebra L4

35
Q

What role does a first-order neuron play in the passage of a sensory signal to the brain?
a. The first-order neuron carries the sensory signal to the thalamus.
b. The first-order neuron detects the stimulus and transmits a signal to the spinal cord or brain-stem.
c. The first-order neuron carries the signal to the sensory area of the cerebral cortex.
d. The soma of the first-order neuron is in the
cerebral cortex, and the axon terminates in
the spinal cord.
e. The first-order neuron has no role in sensory signal transmission.

A

b. The first-order neuron detects the stimulus and transmits a signal to the spinal cord or brain-stem.

36
Q

The cervical plexus is the origin of the __________ nerve(s).
a. oculomotor
b. sciatic
c. musculocutaneous
d. radial
e. phrenic

A

e. phrenic

37
Q

If the phrenic nerve were cut, what would be a result?
a. Inability to flex the arm
b. Inability to extend the arm
c. Paralysis of the anterior neck muscles
d. Problems with breathing
e. Inability to flex the neck

A

d. Problems with breathing

38
Q

The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivatives of which embryonic structure?
a. Telencephalon
b. Diencephalon
c. Mesencephalon
d. Metencephalon
e. Myelencephalon

A

b. Diencephalon

39
Q

What structure does cerebrospinal fluid flow through as it passes from the third to the fourth ventricle?
a. Central canal
b. Corpus callosum
c. Interventricular foramen
d. Cerebral aqueduct
e. Dural sinus

A

d. Cerebral aqueduct

40
Q

Where are the upper motor neurons that control skeletal muscles found?
a. The posterior horn of the spinal cord b. The anterior horn of the spinal cord c. The motor association cortex of the
cerebrum
d. The postcentral gyrus of the cerebrum
e. The precentral gyrus of the cerebrum

A

e. The precentral gyrus of the cerebrum

41
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe?
a. It is chiefly concerned with mood, memory, and emotions.
b. It is the principal visual center of the brain.
c. It is the primary site for receiving and
interpreting signals from the general
senses.
d. It is concerned with voluntary motor
functions.
e. It is likely to play a role in understanding
spoken language.

A

b. It is the principal visual center of the brain.

42
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is
mispaired?
a. Abducens - V
b. Oculomotor - III
c. Facial - VII
d. Accessory - XI

A

a. Abducens - V

43
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?
a. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
b. Accessory nerve (XI)
c. Trochlear nerve (IV)
d. Abducens nerve (VI)
e. Vagus nerve (X)

A

e. Vagus nerve (X)

44
Q

Which cranial nerves are responsible for eye
movement?
a. Trigeminal (V), facial (VII), and
vestibulocochlear (VIII)
b. Optic (II), oculomotor (III), and trochlear
(IV)
c. Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI)
d.Optic (II), oculomotor (III), and facial(VII)

A

c. Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI)

45
Q

The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves __________ neurons.
a. no
b. one
c. two
d. three
e. four

A

c. two

46
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
a. Its effects are local.
b. The terminal ganglia are very close to or
within their target organs.
c. It originates in the craniosacral regions of
the CNS.
d. It has short preganglionic fibers.
e. It has short postganglionic fibers.

A

d. It has short preganglionic fibers.

47
Q

Which of the following fibers of the ANS are adrenergic?
a. Sympathetic pre ganglionic fibers
b. Sympathetic post ganglionic fibers
c. Somatic pre ganglionic fibers
d. Parasympathetic pre ganglionic fibers
e. Parasympathetic post ganglionic fibers

A

b. Sympathetic post ganglionic fibers

48
Q

Which statement below is not correct?
a. Acetylcholine is released by
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
b. Acetylcholine is released by preganglionic
sympathetic fibers.
c. Acetylcholine is released by preganglionic
parasympathetic fibers.
d. Acetylcholine is released by most
postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
e. Acetylcholine is released by preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers.

A

d. Acetylcholine is released by most
postganglionic sympathetic fibers.

49
Q

In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called __________ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to __________ its beats per minute.
a. baroreceptors; decrease
b. proprioceptors; decrease
c. baroreceptors; increase
d. proprioceptors; increase
e. chemoreceptors; increase

A

a. baroreceptors; decrease