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DIT > Reproduction > Flashcards

Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

connects cervix to pelvic side wall

A

cardinal ligament

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2
Q

connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall

A

suspensory ligament

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3
Q

connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic side wall

A

broad

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4
Q

contains the uterine vessels

A

cardinal ligament

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5
Q

contains the ovarian vessels

A

suspensory ligament

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6
Q

testicular cancer first mets to

A

peri-aortic lymph nodes

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7
Q

what develops from mesonephric ducts

A

male internal genitalia except prostate

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8
Q 
male homologue to:
vestibular bulbs
labia minora
bartholin glands
urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)
A

corpus cavernosum and spongiosum
ventral shaft of penis
bulbourethral glands
prostate gland

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9
Q

what gene product comes from the SRY gene that underlies male genital development

A

testis determining factor

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10
Q

anchors testes to the scrotum

A

gubernaculum

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11
Q

pulsing schedule of GnRH affects gonadotropin release how

A

pulsatile: increase release
continuous: decrease/stop release

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12
Q

difference btw androgen insensitivity and 5-alpha-reductase deficiency

A

androgen insensitivity: female genitalia, but genetically male.
5-a-reductase: male genitalia that are hypodeveloped until puberty causes a large increase in testosterone

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13
Q

sertoli and leydig cells

A

LH -> leydig cells -> testosterone

FSH -> sertoli cells -> androgen binding protein (keeps testosterone in testicle)

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14
Q

testicular tumor composed of cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts

A

choriocarcinoma

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15
Q

may present initially with gynecomastia in males

A

leydig cell tumor

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16
Q

elavated AFP in males

A

yolk sac, teratoma

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17
Q

elevated BhCG in males

A

choriocarcinoma, embryonal and teratoma

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18
Q

most common testicular cancer

A

seminoma

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19
Q

most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3yrs of age

A

yolk sac

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20
Q

most common testicular tumor in men over age 60

A

testicular lymphoma

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21
Q

histologic appearance similar to koilocytes (cytoplasmic clearing)

A

seminoma

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22
Q

histologically may have alveolar or tubular appearance sometimes with papillary convolutions

A

embryonal carcinoma

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23
Q

composed of multiple tissue types

A

teratoma

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24
Q

histologic endodermal sinus structures (Schiller-Duval bodies) in males

A

yolk sac tumor

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25
Q

25% have cytoplasmic rod-shaped crystalloids of Reinke

A

leydig cell

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26
Q

androgen-producing and associated with precocious puberty (test cancer)

A

leydig cell, may be sertoli

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27
Q

what is the major side effect of sildenafil

A

life threatening hypotension when combined with nitrates

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28
Q

balanitis is caused by what bug

A

candida albicans

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29
Q

difference between finasteride and flutamide

A

finasteride is 5areductase inhibitor (BPH, male pattern baldness)
flutamide inhibits testosterone receptor (treat prostate cancer)

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30
Q

most common cancer in men

A

prostate cancer

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31
Q

most common cause of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

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32
Q

most common treatment for erectile dysfunction

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor (sildenafil)

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33
Q

layers of endometrium

A

stratum compactum
stratum spongiosum
stratum basale
the compactum and spongiosum are shed monthly

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34
Q

two-cell theory of estradiol production

A

FSH -> granulosa cell -> aromatase (androstenedione) -> estrogen
LH -> theca cell -> makes androstenedione

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35
Q

30 year old woman presents with a low grade fever, a rash across her nose that gets worse when she is out in the sun, and widespread edema. What blood test would you order to confirm your clinical suspicion?

A

ANA to screen for lupus

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36
Q

appearance of HPV infection

A

koilocytic change: perinuclear halo

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37
Q

dysplastic cervical cells with enlarged, dark nuclei

A

koilocytes

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38
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina

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39
Q

what are the risk factors for endometrial carcinoma

A 
HHONDA
hyperplasia
HTN
obesity
nulliparity
diabetes
anovulatory state
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40
Q

excess unopposed estrogen is the main risk factor

A

endometrial proliferation and cancer

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41
Q

menorrhagia with an enlarged uterus and no palpable pain

A

fibroid (leiomyoma)

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42
Q

pelvic pain that presents only during menstruation

A

endometriosis

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43
Q

diagnosed by endometrial biopsy in clinic

A

endometrial hyperplasia and cancer

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44
Q

definitive diagnosis and treatment is by laparoscopy

A

endometriosis

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45
Q

menstruating tissue within the myometrium

A

adenomyosis

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46
Q

malignant tumor of the uterine smooth muscle

A

leiomyosarcoma

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47
Q

most common tumor in women

A

leiomyoma

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48
Q

most common gynecologic malignancy in the US

A

endometrial carcinoma

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49
Q

most common gynecologic malignancy worldwide

A

cervical carcinoma

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50
Q

chocolate cyst of the ovary

A

endometriosis

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51
Q

what is the underlying cause of PCOS?

A

increased LH and decreased FSH -> lack of ovulation

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52
Q

a young woman is found to have short stature and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals. What endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these manifestations?

A

albright hereditary osteodystrophy

type1a pseudohypoparathyroidism

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53
Q

ovarian tumor produces AFP

A

yolk sac (endodermal)

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54
Q

estrogen secreting ovarian tumor leading to precocious puberty

A

granulosa cell

55
Q

intraperitoneal accumulation of mucinous material

A

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

56
Q

testosterone secreting, leading to virilization

A

sertoli-leydig cell

57
Q

psammoma bodies in ovary

A

serous cytadenocarcinoma

58
Q

multiple different tissues in tumor

A

teratoma

59
Q

ovarian tumor lined with fallopian tube-like epithelium

A

serous cystadenoma

60
Q

ovarian tumor + ascites + hydrothorax

A

fibroma (Meig’s syndrome)

61
Q

call-exner bodies in ovarian tumor

A

granulosa cell

62
Q

resembles bladder epithelium ovarian tumor

A

brenner tumor

63
Q

ovarian tumor with elevated BhCG

A

choricarcinoma and dysgerminoma

64
Q

risk factors for ovarian tumors

A

uninterrupted ovulation, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, family hx (BRCA1/2, HNPCC (lynch syndrome))

65
Q

persistantly wet umbilicus in infant

A

patent urachus

66
Q

CO and plasma volume changes in pregnancy

A

CO increases 30-50%

plasma volume increases 50%

67
Q

elevated AFP on maternal serum screen

A

neural tube defects, twins, abdominal wall defects

incorrect dating is largest cause of false test results

68
Q

monozygotic twins are delivered. one is pale with a hematocrit of 15%, the other is flushed with hematocrit of 55%. what is the cause

A

twin-twin transfusion syndrome

69
Q

causes of recurrent miscarriage

A 
low progesterone
chromosomal abnormalities
uterine abnormalities
infections
poor mental health
autoimmune/clotting disorders
70
Q

16wks pregnant women presents with atypically large abdomen and HTN. what might be the cause and how would it appear on blood test

A

hydatidiform mole

increased hCG

71
Q

placenta previa, abruptio, accreta

A

previa: placenta over os (painless bleeding)
abruptio: early separation of placenta (painful bleeding, motor vehicle accident most common cause)
accreta: no decidua, placenta goes straight to myometrium

72
Q

previous c-section increases risk for

A

placenta previo and accreta

73
Q

HTN drugs during pregnancy

A

hydralazine, methyldopa, labetalol

74
Q

Db drugs during pregnancy

A

insulin is gold standard

75
Q

Epilepsy drugs during pregnancy

A

whatever best controls seizures. more defects without meds then with except valproic acid
supplement with folic acid (up to 4 grams)

76
Q

hyperthyroidism drugs in pregnancy

A

propylthiouracil (PTU) 1 trimester

methimazole (2 and 3 trimester)

77
Q

anticoagulation in pregnancy

A

heparin or enoxaprim

do not use warfarin

78
Q

tocolysis

A

prevent uterine contractions

indomethacin, nifedipine, terbutaline, magnesium sulfate

79
Q

labor promotion

A

pitocin
prostaglandins (dinoprostone (PGE2) misoprostol (PGE1))
tox: tachysystole, uterine rupture, fever

80
Q

pregnancy termination

A

dilation and curretage
mifepristone (RU-486): inhibitor of progesterone receptor + misoprostol to ensure complete abortion
methotrexate: inhibits folate production

81
Q

evaluation of infertility, semen analysis is normal and she has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. What is next step?

A

hysterosalpingogram to evaluate patency of fallopian tubes

82
Q

prenatal US finding is clue to Down syndrome

A

nuchal translucency

83
Q

most common genetic event that causes Down syndrome

A

meiotic nondisjunction

84
Q

Fragile X syndrome gene defect

A

FMR1

85
Q

clinical features of Fragile X syndrome

A

macrochordism, long face, long jaw, everted ears, mitral valve prolapse, autism

86
Q

elfin facies, hypercalcemia, exreme friendliness, valvular defects

A

Wilson disease

87
Q

22q11

A 
CATCH
Cleft lip/palate
Abnormal facies
Thymus/T cell deficiency
Cardiac defects
Hypocalcemia
88
Q

Klinefelter v Turner

A

Klinefelter: 47 XXY testicular atrophy, gynecomastia, long arms, tall
Turner 46 XO short stature, webed neck, shield chest

89
Q

most common genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

trisomy 21

90
Q

second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Fragile X

91
Q

horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, and cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

92
Q

rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly with prominent occiput and small jaw

A

trisomy 18

93
Q

cause of headache in pt using topical retinoic acid for acne

A

pseudotumor cerebri

94
Q

genetic defect for achondroplasia

A

FGFR3

95
Q

defect causes hereditary spherocytosis

A

spectrin or ankyrin protein defect

96
Q

floppy mitral valve, dissecting aortic aneurysm, berry aneurysm

A

Marfan

97
Q

mitral valve prolapse, liver disease, berry aneurysm

A

ADPKD

98
Q

neural tumors and pigmented iris hamartomas

A

neurofibromatosis type I

99
Q

association with colon cancer

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

100
Q

MI before age 20

A

familial hypercholesterolemia

101
Q

hemangioblastoma of retina/cerebellum/medulla

A

von-Hippel Lindau disease

102
Q

increased MCHC, hemolytic anemia

A

hereditary spherocytosis

103
Q

bilateral acoustic neuromas

A

neurofibromatosis type II

104
Q

facial lesions, seizure disorder, cancer risk

A

tuberous sclerosis

105
Q

caudate atrophy, dementia

A

Huntington’s

106
Q

cystic medial necrosis of the aorta

A

marfan

107
Q

defect of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3

A

achondroplasia

108
Q

trinucleatide repeat disorders

A

Fragile X: CGG
Friedrich: GAA
Huntington: CAG
Myotonic dystrophy: CTG

109
Q

gene defect in cystic fibrosis

A

CFTR gene on chromosome 7

110
Q

test used to diagnose cystic fibrosis

A

sweat Cl test

111
Q

invasion of dermal lymphatics -> visible changes

A

inflammatory carcinoma

signs of Peau d’orange, dimpling of breast, nipple retraction (new)

112
Q

causes of gynecomastia

A

drugs (STACKED), puberty, cirrhosis, testicular tumors, Klinefelter

113
Q

acute mastitis

A

S. aureus

114
Q

intraductal papilloma common complaint

A

straw colored nipple discharge that may be bloody

115
Q

most common breast tumor in women under 25

A

fibroadenoma

116
Q

most common breast mass in postmenopausal women

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

117
Q

most common breast mass in premenopausal women

A

fibrocystic disease

118
Q

most common form of breast cancer

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

119
Q

small, mobile, firm mass with sharp edges in 24-year-old woman

A

fibroadenoma

120
Q

histological “leaf-like projections”

A

phyllodes

121
Q

signet ring cells

A

lobular carcinoma in situ

122
Q

loss of e-cadherin cell adhesion gene on chromosome 16

A

invasive lobular carcinoma

123
Q

always ER (+) and PR (+)

A

invasive lobular and LCIS

124
Q

commonly presents with nipple discharge

A

intraductal papilloma

125
Q

eczematous patches on nipple

A

Paget’s with DCIS

126
Q

multiple bilateral fluid-filled lesions with diffuse breast pain

A

fibrocystic change

127
Q

firm, fibrous mass in a 55-year-old woman

A

invasive ductal

128
Q

most common cancer in women in the US

A

breast

129
Q

most common benign breast tumor

A

fibroadenoma

130
Q

most common malignant breast tumor

A

invasive ductal

131
Q

blue dome cyst in the breast

A

fibrocystic change

132
Q

treatment for ER(+) breast cancer

A

tamoxifen

133
Q

red, itchy, swollen rash on the areola and nipple

A

Paget disease

DIT (28 decks)

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