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DIT > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

ampicillin/amoxicillin coverage

A 
G(+) and HELPSS
Haemophilus
E. coli
Listeria
Proteus
Salmonella
Shigella
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2
Q

organisms not covered by cephalosporins

A 
LAME
Listeria
atypicals (chlamydia, mycoplasma)
MRSA
Enterococci
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3
Q

first gen cephalosporins

A

cefazolin, cephalexin
PEcK and G(+)
Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella

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4
Q

second gen cephalosporins

A 
cefoxitin, cefaclor, cefuroxime
HENS PEcK
Haemophilus
Enterobacter
Neisseria (not gonorrhea)
Serratia
Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella
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5
Q

third gen cephalosporins

A

ceftriaxone (excreted in bile), cefotazime, ceftazidime
G(-) bad guys
meningitis and gonorrhea
ceftazidime for pseudomonas

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6
Q

fourth gen cephalosporins

A

cefepime

good pseudomonas and broad G(+)

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7
Q

toxicity of cephalosporins

A

increased nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides

disulfiram like reaction

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8
Q

given prior to surgery to prevent s. aureus infections

A

cefazolin (1st gen)

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9
Q

side effects of vancomycin

A

red man syndrome (mast cell degranulation)

NOT: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, thrombophlebitis

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10
Q

resistance to vancomycin

A

change of D-ala-D-ala to D-ala-D-lac

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11
Q

protein synthesis inhibitors

A

Buy AT 30, CELL at 50

30s: aminoglycosides, tetracyclines
50s: chloramphenicol, clindamycin, erythromycin (macrolides), linezolid

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12
Q

use for tetracyclines

A 
VACUUM THe BedRoom
vibrio cholera
acne
chlamydia
ureaplasma urealyticum
mycoplasma pneumoniae
tularemia
H. pylori
Borrelia burgdorferi
Rickettsia
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13
Q

photosensitivity

A

SAT:

sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracyclines

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14
Q

what to avoid with tetracyclines

A

milk, antacids, iron because they inhibit the absorption of tetracyclines

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15
Q

given for bowel surgery

A

neomycin

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16
Q

toxicity of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, teratogenic

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17
Q

clinical uses for macrolides

A

PUS
Pneumonia: mycoplasma, chlamydia, legionella
URI: strep pneumoniae, strep pyogenes
STD: chlamydia, gonorrhea

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18
Q

resistance to macrolides

A

mehtylation of 23S RNA subunit of 50S

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19
Q

clinical use for chloramphenicol and toxicity

A

use: meningitis (H. flu, N men, strep pneum)
tox: gray baby syndrome, aplastic anemia

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20
Q

clinical use of clindamycin and toxicity

A

use: MRSA abscess
tox: C. difficile

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21
Q

streptogramins

A

quinupristin and dalfopristin
bind 23s subunit of 50s
use: MRSA, VRE, staph and strep skin infections
SE: hepatotoxicity, pseudomembranous colitis, inhibits cP450 system

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22
Q

what causes:
gray baby
gray man
red man

A

baby: chloramphenicol
man: amiodarone
red man: vancomycin

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23
Q

prophylaxis for meningococcal infection

A

coprofloxacin

rifampin for children

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24
Q

prophylaxis for gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

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25
Q

prophylaxis for syphilis

A

benzathine penicillin G

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26
Q

prophylaxis for history of recurrent UTI

A

TMP-SMX, nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin

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27
Q

prophylaxis for pneumocystic jiroveci

A

TMP-SMX if CD4<200, dapsone if sulfa allergic

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28
Q

prophylaxis for endocarditis (surgery or dental procedure)

A

penicillins, aminopenicillins, cephalexin

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29
Q

prophylaxis for pregnant women with Group B strep

A

ampicillin during pregnancy

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30
Q

prophylaxis for strep pharyngitis in child with prior rheumatic fever

A

oral penicillin

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31
Q

prophylaxis for postsurgical infection of s. aureus

A

cefazolin

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32
Q

prophylaxis for gonococal or chlamydial conjunctivitis in newborn

A

erythromycin ointment

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33
Q

antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy

A 
SAFe Children Take Really Good Care
Sulfonamides (kernicterus)
Aminoglycosides (ototoxicity)
Fluoroquinolones (cartilage damage)
Clarithromycin (embryotoxic)
Tetracylines (discolored teeth)
Ribavirn (teratogenic)
Griseofulvin (teratogenic)
Chlorammphenicol (Gray baby)
also metronidazole (mutagenesis 1st trimester)
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34
Q

antiplatelet antibodies

A

ITP: immunothrombocytopenia

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35
Q

newborn with chronic diarrhea, failure to thrice, and chronic Candida

A

SCID

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36
Q

child with eczema, coarse facial features, and cold abscesses

A

heyperimmunogloculinemia E syndrome (Job syndrome)

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37
Q

child with partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy, and recurrent infections

A

Chediak-Higashi

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38
Q

oropharynx colonized by

A

viridans streptococci

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39
Q

dental plaque

A

strep mutans

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40
Q

colon

A

Bacteroides fragilis>E. coli

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41
Q

vagina

A

lactobacillus; E. coli and group B strep sometimes

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42
Q

common cause of pneumonia in neonates

A

Group B strep
E. coli
Tx: ampicillin and gentamicin

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43
Q

common cause of pneumonia in children

A 
RSV
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
S pneumoniae
Tx: azithromycin or ceftriaxone
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44
Q

common cause of pneumonia in adults (<40)

A

Mycoplasma
C. pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae
Tx: azithromycin and ceftriaxone

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45
Q

common cause of pneumonia in adults (40-65)

A

S. pneumoniae
H influenzae
Tx: clarithromycin

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46
Q

common cause of pneumonia in elderly

A 
S. pneumoniae
influenza virus
anaerobes
H. influenzae
Tx: cephapime or carbapenam
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47
Q

common cause of pneumonia in IV drug users

A

S. pneumoniae, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus

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48
Q

common cause of pneumonia cystic fibrosis

A

Pseudomonas, S. aureus, S pneumoniae

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49
Q

atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia

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50
Q

postviral pneumonia

A

Staphylococcus, H flu, S pneumoniae

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51
Q

common cause of meningitis 0-6 months

A

Group B strep, E. coli, Listeria

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52
Q

common cause of meningitis <6

A

Strep pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, H flu, enterovirus (coxsackie A)

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53
Q

common cause of meningitis 6-60

A

S pneumoniae, n. meningitids, enterovirus, HSV

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54
Q

common cause of meningitis over 60

A

S. pneumoniae, G- rods, Listeria

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55
Q

common cause of meningitis in HIV

A

cryptococcus

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56
Q

osteomyelitis

A 
S. aureus
sexually active: N. gonorrhea
Db and IV drugs: Pseudomonas, serratia
Sickle cell: salmonella
prosthetic replacement: S. aureus, S epidermidis
vertebral disease: TB
cat/dog bite: Pasteurella multocida
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57
Q

CSF findings in meningitis

A

bacterial: increased pressure, PMN, protein and decreased glucose
fungal: increased pressure, lymphocytes, protein and decreased glucose
viral: normal or increased pressure, increased lymphocytes and protein, normal glucose

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58
Q

most common etiology of bacterial meningitis

A

Group B strep

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59
Q

most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in kids

A

strep pneumoniae

n. meningitidis

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60
Q

most common bacterial meningitis in adults

A

S. pneumoniae

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61
Q

osteomyelitis in IV drug user

A

S. aureus or Pseudomonas

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62
Q

osteomyelitis in sickle cell

A

Salmonella

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63
Q

pt presents with vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss

A

Meneiere’s disease

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64
Q

TORCHeS infections

A 
Toxoplasma gondii
Other: parvovirus B19, meningitis
Rubella
CMV
Herpes 2/HIV
Syphilis
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65
Q

STD with clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

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66
Q

painless genital ulcer

A

syphilis

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67
Q

flagellated cells

A

trichomonas

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68
Q

strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas

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69
Q

most common reportable STD

A

Chlamydia

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70
Q

non-painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

primary syphilis

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71
Q

painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion, with exudate

A

chancroid

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72
Q

stippled vaginal epithelial cells on a wet prep of vaginal discharge

A

bacterial vaginosis (clue cells)

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73
Q

common treatment for syphilis

A

penicillin G

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74
Q

common treatment for Trichomonas

A

metronidazole

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75
Q

common treatment for Chlamydia

A

doxycycline or azithromycin

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76
Q

common treatment for gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

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77
Q

toxoplasma gondii triad

A

chorioretinitis
hydrocephalus
intracranial calcifications

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78
Q

rubella triad

A

PDA
cataracts
deafness

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79
Q

CMV

A

hearing loss, seizures, blueberry muffin rash

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80
Q

vaginal discharge

A

young girl (puberty): physiological
cottage cheese: candidiasis
very itchy: trichomonas
fishy smell, clue cells: bacterial vaginosis

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81
Q

newborn nursery

A

CMV, RSV

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82
Q

urinary cath

A

E. coli, pseudomonas

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83
Q

respirator

A

Pseudomonas

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84
Q

renal dialysis

A

HBV

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85
Q

IV nutrition (hyperalimentation)

A

candida albicans

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86
Q

water aerosols

A

legionella

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87
Q

antibiotics safe during pregnancy

A 
penicillins and aminopenicillins
piperacillin
cephalosporins
macrolides
metronidazole (after 1st trimester)
nitrofurantoin
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88
Q

RUQ pain and symptoms of PID

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

follows PID episode and is sudden onset RUQ pain and may show violin string adhesions on laparoscopy

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89
Q

do not take Gram stain

A 
Treponema
Rickettsia
Mycobacteria (high lipid content)
Mycoplasma (no cell wall)
Legionella pneuomophila
Chlamydia
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90
Q

Giemsa stain

A

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsiae, Trypanosomes, Pasmodium

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91
Q

PAS (peiodic acid-Schiff) stain

A

stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides

Whipple’s disease (Tropheryma whipplei)

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92
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen (carbol fuchsin)

A

acid fact organisms

Nocardia and Mycobacterium

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93
Q

India ink stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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94
Q

Silver stain

A

fungi, legionella, H. pylori

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95
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A 
Strep pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
N. meningitidis
E. coli
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
Salmonella typhi
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96
Q

organism in balanitis

A

candida albicans

balanitis is inflammation of glans penis

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97
Q

obligate aerobes

A

Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus

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98
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces

lack superoxide dismutase

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99
Q

endotoxin

A 
ENDOTOXIN
edema
nitric oxide
DIC/death
outer membrane
TNF-a
O-antigen
eXtremely heat stable
IL-1
Neutrophil chemotaxis
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100
Q

transformation

A

take up naked DNA

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101
Q

conjugation

A

plasmid passing

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102
Q

transposition

A

transfer genes from plasmid to chromosome and vice versa

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103
Q

transduction

A

packaging of DNA in phages

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104
Q

what 7 bacteria secrete enterotoxins (exotoxins in GI system)

A

vibrio cholera, E. coloi, s. aureus, shigella, yersinia, c. difficile, clostridium perfringens

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105
Q

skin pathogen that infects indwelling foreign devices

A

s. epidermidis

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106
Q

organisms most likely in subacute endocarditis

A

viridans strep, enterococci, s. bovis, coagulase neg. staph and HACEK
Haemophilus, actinobacillus, cardiobacterium, eikenella, kingella

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107
Q

streptococcus pyogenes disease

A

superficial/invasive: pharyngitis, impetigo, cellulitis, blood strema
toxin-mediated: toxic shock syndrome
immune-mediated: post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever

108
Q

causes scalded skin syndrome

A

s. aureus

109
Q

gray-white membrane in posterior pharynx of an unvaccinated child

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

110
Q

pharyngitis resulting in glomerulonephritis

A

group A strep (s. pyogenes)

111
Q

most common cause of meningitis in G+

A

strep pneumoniae

112
Q

most common G+ cause of osteomyelitis

A

s. aureus

113
Q

serious newborn infections

A

Group B strep, listeria, E. coli

114
Q

infant with poor muscle tone

A

clostridium botulinum

115
Q

diarrhea after using antibiotics

A

clostridium difficile

116
Q

respiratory distress in a postal worker

A

B. anthracis

117
Q

otitis media in children

A

S. pneumoniae

118
Q

cellulitis

A

s. aureus and s. pyogenes

119
Q

one hour after eating potato salad, entire family is vomitting

A

staph aureus

120
Q

susceptible to Listeria monocytogenes

A

infants, elderly, immunocompromised, pregnant

121
Q

spore forming bacteria

A

bacillus and clostridium species

also coxiella burnetti

122
Q

branching, filamentous G+ rods with sulfur granules

A

actinomyces israeli

123
Q

G- oxidase positive diplococci

A

N. gonorrhoeae or N. meningitidis

124
Q

smoker has cough and sputum gram stain shows nothing. silver stain shows rods

A

legionella pneumophila

125
Q

sepsis, DIC, adrenal hemorrhage and G-

A

N. meningitidis

126
Q

5 year old with pharyngitis, drooling, and x-ray has thumb sign

A

H. influenzae

127
Q

life threatening meningitis and purpura

A

N. meningitidis

128
Q

septic arthritis in young, sexually active patients

A

n. gonoorhoae

129
Q

antibiotics to treat c. difficile pseudomembranous colitis

A

metrinidazole and oral vancomycin

130
Q

food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long

A

s. aureus

131
Q

diarrhea caused by G- nonmotile organism that does not ferment lactose

A

shigella

132
Q

diarrhea caused by an S-shaped organism

A

campylobacter jejuni

133
Q

diarrhea transmitted from household pets

A

yersinia

134
Q

food poisoning resulting from reheated rice

A

bacillus cereus

135
Q

diarrhea caused by G- motile organism that doesn’t ferment lactose

A

salmonella

136
Q

most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea

A

ETEC

137
Q

food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

s aureus and bacillus cereus

138
Q

osteomyelitis in sickle cell pt

A

salmonella

139
Q

drugs cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

penicillins, sulfas, allopurinol, seizure drugs (ethosuximide, lanotrigine, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin)

140
Q

most common cause of UTI

A

E. coli
staph saprophyticus
klebsiella
proteus mirabilis

141
Q

most common medication used for UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

142
Q

most common bacteria in a patient with struvite kidney stones

A

proteus

143
Q

standard treatment for T. pallidum

A

penicillin

144
Q

cellulitis from a dog or cat bite

A

pasteurella multocida

145
Q

non-painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

chancre of 1 syphilis

146
Q

moist, smooth, flat, white genital lesion

A

condylomata of late 2 syphilis

147
Q

large bull’s eye rash

A

erythema migrans of lyme disease

148
Q

ghon complex

A

ghon focus (fibrosing nodule in lung) and hilar lymphadenopathy

149
Q

negative PPD

A

never been exposed to TB

immunocompromised, steroids, sarcoidosis, malnourishment

150
Q

“keeps lungs healthy but I have to take b vitamin to keep from hurting nerves”

A

isoniazid

151
Q

calcified granulomas in the lung, plus hilar lymphadenopathy

A

ghon complex

152
Q

back pain, fever, night sweats, and weight loss

A

pott’s disease

153
Q

standard treatment regimen for TB

A 
RIPE
rifampin
isoniazid
pyrazinamide
ethambutol
154
Q

rickettsial triad

A

headache, fever, rash

155
Q

antibiotic of choice for
mycoplasma pneumoniae
Rocky mountain spotted fever
bacterial vaginosis

A

macrolide or tetracycline
doxycyline
metronidazole

156
Q

live vaccines

A

smallpox, yellow fever, herpes zoster, chickenpox, Sabin’s poli (oral), MMR, nasal influenza

157
Q

where does herpesvirus get envelope

A

nuclear membrane

158
Q

unenveloped viruses

A

adenovirus, calicivirus, papilloma, parvovirus, picornavirus, polyomavirus, reovirus, hepevirus

159
Q

where do viruses replicate

A

DNA in nucleus except poxvirus

RNA in cytoplasm except influenza and retroviruses

160
Q

virus ploidy

A

haploid except retroviruses are diploid

161
Q

DNA viruses

A

normally double stranded, linear, icosahedral, and replicate in nucleus

162
Q

treatment for herpes viruses

A

HSV-1, 2, zoster (VZV): acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir

CMV: ganciclovir, foscarnet

163
Q

latent herpes infection sites in body

A 
HSV-1: trigeminal ganglia
HSV-2: sacral ganglia
VZV: dorsal root or trigeminal ganglia
EBV: B cells
CMV: mononuclear cells
164
Q

dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV patient

A

Kaposi sarcoma

165
Q

temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1

166
Q

Owl’s eye inclusions in organ tissue

A

CMV

167
Q

intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

Cowdry A inclusions

HSV, CMV

168
Q

parvovirus B19

A

smallest DNA virus, ssDNA
aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease
“slapped cheek” rash in children (fifth disease)
hydrops fetalis and death in pregnancy

169
Q

adenovirus

A

conjunctivitis: pink eye

can cause diarrhea

170
Q

poxvirus

A

smallpox
vaccinia: cowpox
molluscum contagiousm: dome lesions with central dimples

171
Q

JC virus

A

PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) in HIV

172
Q

hand, foot, and mouth disease

A

coxsackie

173
Q

break bone fever

A

dengue

174
Q

common cold

A

rhinovirus and coronavirus

175
Q

fever, jaundice, black vomit

A

yellow fever

176
Q

meningitis in summer months

A

echovirus or coxsackievirus

177
Q

Tourniquet test helps diagnose hemorrhagic disease

A

dengue

178
Q

infects motor neurons of the anterior horn

A

west nile and poliovirus

179
Q

infantile gastroenteritis

A

rotavirus

180
Q

antiplatelet antibodies

A

ITP (immune thrombocytopenia)

181
Q

painful, raised lesions on finger pads + fever

A

Osler’s nodes in infective endocarditis

182
Q

prophylaxis for influenza A

A

zanamivir and oseltamivir

183
Q

treatment of chronic hepatitis C

A

ribavirin and IFN-a

184
Q

first line for herpes simplex viruses or varicella-zoster virus

A

acyclovir, vancyclovir, fanciclovir

185
Q

characteristic barking seal cough

A

parainfluenza virus (croup)

186
Q

asthma-sounding infection in infants (esp premies)

A

RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)

187
Q

bronchiolitis with cough and wheezing in babies

A

RSV

188
Q

Downey cells

A

seen in EBV

189
Q

aseptic meningitis

A

enteroviruses (echovirus, coxsackievirus) and mumps

190
Q

fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis, and diffuse rash

A

measles (rubeola)

191
Q

small irregular blue-gray spots on the buccal mucosa, surrounded by a base of red

A

Koplik’s spots in measles

192
Q

HIV genes

A

env (gp120 and gp41)
gag (p24: capsid protein)
pol (reverse transcriptase)

193
Q

envelope proteins in HIV

A

gp120: attachment to host CD4 T-cell
gp41: fusion and entry into cell

194
Q

dark purple nodule on skin in an HIV patient

A

kaposi sarcoma

195
Q

treatment for CMV

A

ganciclovir

196
Q

most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

197
Q

drug used to prevent pneumocystis pneumonia

A

TMP-SMX

198
Q

when to start HAART

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy is started with:
AIDS defining illness
CD4<350
high HIV viral load

199
Q

components of HAART

A

2 NRTIs and

1 NNRTI or 1 protease inhibitor or 1 integrase inhibitor

200
Q

protease inhibitors

A 
-navir
GI intolerance
inhibit cytochrome P450 (esp ritonavir)
hyperlipidemia/hypertriglyceridemia
lipodystrophy
pancreatitis: ritonavir
nephrolithiasis: indinavir and atazanavir
increased bilirubin: atazanavir
201
Q

NRTI

A

zidovudine, didanosine, stavudine, abacavir
zidovudine: bone marrow suppression
didanosine pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy
hepatic steatosis: didanosine and stavudine
hypersensitivity rxn: abacavir

202
Q

NNRTI

A

efavirenz, delavirdine, nevirapine
Rash is all
neuropsychotic symp, false positive drug test, teratogenic are all efavirenz

203
Q

HIV drug SE pancreatitis

A

didanosine, ritonavir

204
Q

HIV drug SE anemia

A

zidovudine

205
Q

HIV drugs that interact with envelope proteins

A

enfuvirtide: gp41 (inhibits fusion to T cell)
maraviroc: gp120 (CCR5 antagonist)

206
Q

fungus causes diaper rash

A

candida albicans

207
Q

opportunistic mold with septate hyphae that branch at a 45 angle

A

aspergillus

208
Q

opportunistic mold with irregular nonseptate hyphea that branch at wide angles (>90)

A

mucor, rhizopus (mucormycosis)

209
Q

causes thrush in immunocompromised patients and vulvovaginitis in women

A

candida

210
Q

causes pneumonia in immunocompromised

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

211
Q

treatment for oral candidiasis

A

nystatin, fluconazole

212
Q

most common opportunistic infection in HIV

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

213
Q

prophylaxis for cryptococcus in AIDS

A

fluconazole

214
Q

treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

fluconazole, amphotericin B, echinocandin

215
Q

appearance of KOH skin scraping of tinea versicolor

A

spaghetti and meatballs

216
Q

the tinea species (other than versicolor) have what type of lesion

A

pruritic lesion with central clearing resembling a ring

KOH prep and are not dimorphic

217
Q

organisms associated with birds

A 
histoplasmosis
cryptococcus neoformans
chlamydophila psittaci
H5N1 influenza
west nile virus
218
Q

found in rural Latin America

A

paracoccidioidomycosis

219
Q

plant thorns and cutaneous injury

A

sporathrix schenckii

220
Q

states east of Mississippi

A

blastomycosis

221
Q

bird and bat droppings

A

histoplasmosis

222
Q

mold form contains barrel-shaped arthroconidia

A

coccidioidomycosis

223
Q

broad-based budding yeast

A

blastomycosis

224
Q

multiple budding of yeast form

A

paracoccidioidomycosis

225
Q

“swish and swallow” for oral candidiasis

A

nystatin

226
Q

cell wall synthesis inhibitor used in invasive aspergillosis

A

caspofungin

227
Q

most common treatment for onychomycosis

A

terbinafine, itraconazole, fluconazole

228
Q

SE arrythmias and nephrotoxicity

A

amphotericin B

229
Q

deposits in keratin-containing tissues

A

griseofulvin

230
Q

drug of choice for sporotrichosis

A

itraconazole

231
Q

severe diarrhea in AIDS

A

cryptosporidium

232
Q

bloating flatulence, foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

233
Q

bloody diarrhea with RUQ pain

A

entamoeba histolytica

234
Q

cause of malaria

A

plasmodium

235
Q

most common protozoal infection in US

A

trichomonas vaginalis

236
Q

cause of chagas disease

A

trypanosoma cruzi

237
Q

amoebic dysentery

A

entamoeba hystolytica

238
Q

African sleeping sickness

A

trypanosoma brucei

239
Q

transmitted in raw meat or infected cat feces

A

toxoplasma

240
Q

transmitted by sandflies

A

Leishmania donovani

241
Q

bloody diarrhea with cysts in stool

A

entamoeba hystolytica

242
Q

diarrhea with RUQ pain and fever

A

entamoeba hystolytica

243
Q

stages of malaria life cycle

A

injected form: sporozoite
replicating intracellularly: schizont
rupture of cells: merozoite

244
Q

ring-enhancing brain lesion in an HIV patient

A

toxoplasma gondii

245
Q

treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

246
Q

most common protozoal diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

247
Q

most common helminthic infection in US

A

enterobius vermicularis (pinworms)

248
Q

one-quarter of the world infected with

A

ascaris lumbricoides

249
Q

second most common helminthic infection in US

A

ascaris lumbricoides

250
Q

snail host, “swimmer’s itch”

A

schistosoma species

251
Q

most common predisposing factor for bladder cancer in third world countries

A

schistosoma haematobium

252
Q

contracted by eating undercooked fish and causes an inflammation of the biliary tract

A

clonorhcis

253
Q

soil -> enters through foot -> lungs -> swallowed after coughing

A

strongyloides

ascaris is ingested initially

254
Q

hookworms

A

ancylostoma, necator

255
Q

giant roundworm

A

ascaris lumbricoides

256
Q

contracted by eating undercooked crabmeat and causes inflammation of the lung

A

Pargonimus westermaris

257
Q

pork tapeworm

A

taenia solium

258
Q

responsible for lympatic filariasis

A

elephantitis caused by

Wuchereria bancrofti

259
Q

adult patient from Mexico with new onset seizures and brain calcifications

A

taenia solium

260
Q

hematuria in patient from a developing country

A

schistosoma haematobium

261
Q

med for most flukes and tapeworms

A

praziquantel

262
Q

med for hookworms, pinworm, roundwom

A

benzimidazoles

263
Q

med for chagas disease

A

benznidazole, nifurtimox

264
Q

med for leishmaniasis

A

sodium stibogluconate or liposomal amphotericin B

265
Q

treatment of pediculosis capitis and pubis

A

permethrin, pyrethrin

266
Q

why is lindane not used for lice

A

neurotoxicity and resistance

DIT (28 decks)

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