Rapid fire Facts Flashcards

0
Q

MCC of congenital malformation in US

A

Ethanol use during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Most common cause of neural tube defects

A

Folate deficiency

  • MC nutritional deficit in US
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MCC of congenital intellectual disability in US?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 amino acids modfied in the golgi appartus

A
  1. asparagine
  2. serine
  3. threonine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation

A

Marfan syndrome

defective fibrillin, which holds together trophoelastin subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heriditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss

A

Alport syndrome

(defective Type IV collagen, found in basement membrane of eye, ear, kindey); cant see, cant pee, cant hear high C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead

A

Bell’s palsy

*if forehead unaffected, think stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis

A

Horner’s syndrome

*lesion of spinal cord above T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Worst HA of life

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

lucid interval

A

epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bloody CSF

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MCC of subdural hematoma (anatomically)

A

torn bridging veins

hitting head of old person/ alcoholic; shaking baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MCC of epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery(banch of maxillary)–> frequently secondary to fracture of temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Urinary incontinence, ataxia, cognitive dysfunction

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (wet, wacky, wild)

*sx due to expansion of ventricles compressing corona radiata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amyloid deposits in gray matter of brain

A

senile plaques (Alzheimers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drooling, sweating, agitated farmer

A

Organophosphate poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

Alpha antagonist–> usually phenoxybenzamine (binds irreversibly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

selective A1 antagonist used to treat BPH

A

Tamsulosin–> is specific for alpha 1A, Alpha 1D receptors found in the prostate; little effects on the alpha 1b receptors found in vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

continuous machine like heart murmur

A

patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

  • is a non-cyanotic shunt (L to R)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

“boot-shaped heart”

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

  • is a sign of right ventricular hypertrophy; can be indicative of pulmonary HTN in adult
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

rib notching, or pulsating pulses on ribs

A

coarctation of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MCC congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD (ventricular septal defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MCC congenital cause of early cyanosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

  • review the 4 issues
  • transposition of the great vessels may be a close 2nd, causes profound cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

bounding pulses, head-bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

aortic regutgitation

  • bounding pulses due to the wide pulse pressures (normal systolic, but diastolic much lower due to loss of blood through incompetent aortic valve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bone enlargement, bone pain, arthritis

A

Paget’s disease of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

vertebral compression fractures

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

positive anterior drawer sign

A

torn ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

swollen, hard, painful finger joints (which hand joints involved)

A

osteoarthritis

DIP and PIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

swollen, boggy, painful finger joints (which joints involved)

A

rheumatoid arthritis

PIP and MIP–> spares the DIPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

positively birefringent crystals

A

pseudogout

  • blue when perpendicular!!–> rhomboid shaped classicaly, but can be needle shaped
  • big joints, like Knee!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

negatively birefringent crystals

A

gout

*yellow when parallel–> classically needle shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

HLA-DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HLA-B27

A

seronegative spondyloarthropathies , esp with men

“PAIR” = psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, IBS, Reactive arthritis (aka Reiter’s syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

bamboo spine on x-ray

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

painless oral ulcers plus raised erythematous lesions and photosensitivity

A

SLE–> painless oral ulcers is a buzzword

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anti-smith and anti-ds DNA Abs

A

SLE

*anti-dsDNA Abs is specific for renal manifestations of lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

anti-histone Abs

A

drug induced SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

anti-centromere Abs

A

CREST scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

anti-topoisomerase I Abs (and what is other name for these)

A

Systemic scleroderma

*scl-70

41
Q

Anti-Ro Abs or anti La Abs

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

  • Ro = SS-A
  • La = SS-B
42
Q

facial rash and raynaud phenomenon in young woman

A

SLE

43
Q

arthritis, dry mouth, dry eyes

A

Sjogrens syndrome

44
Q

most common cause of death in SLE

A

Lupus nephritis/ nephropathy

45
Q

keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

46
Q

MC malignant skin tumor

A

Basal cell carcinoma

*basal cell > squamous > melanoma

47
Q

MC cancer in men

A

Prostatic adenocarcinoma

48
Q

MCC of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

49
Q

MC treatment for ED in men

A

sildafenil or vardafenil

50
Q

Dysplastic cervical cells with enlarged, dark nuclei

A

Koilocytes–> HPV infection

51
Q

DES exposure

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina

52
Q

MC tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

53
Q

MC gynecologic malignancy in the U.S.

A

endometrial carcinoma

54
Q

MC gynecologic malignancy worldwide

A

Cervical CA

55
Q

chocolate cyst of ovary

A

endometriosis

56
Q

MC benign ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenoma

57
Q

MC malignant ovarian tumor

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

58
Q

disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call-exner bodies–> Granulosa cell tumor

59
Q

MC genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Down’s syndrome (trisomy 21)

60
Q

2nd MC genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Fragile X syndrome

61
Q

horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, cystic hygroma

A

Turner’s syndrome

62
Q

rocker bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly with prominent occiput and small jaw

A

Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

63
Q

MC cancer in women in US

A

Breast CA

64
Q

MC benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma (esp in women under 35)

65
Q

MC malignant breast tumor

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

66
Q

blue dome cyst in breast

A

Fibrocystic change

67
Q

Treatment for ER (+) breast CA

A

Tamoxifen

68
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash on nipple and areola

A

Paget’s disease of breast

*commonly indicates an underlying breast carcinoma, usually ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

69
Q

branching, filamentous Gram (+) rods with sulphur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

70
Q

food poisoning due to exotoxin (2)

A
  1. S. aureus (vomiting within 2-3 hours, think mayo)

2. B. cereus (reheated rice)

71
Q

osteomylelitis in Sickle cell

A

Salmonella

72
Q

MC medication used for UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

73
Q

MC bacterial infection in a pt. w/ struvite (rams horn) kidney stone

A

Proteus mirabilis

sometimes S. aureus

74
Q

standard tx for T. palladium

A

Penicillin

75
Q

cellulitis form dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

76
Q

non-painful, indurated ulcerous lesion

A

Syphilis chancre–> primary syphilis

77
Q

moist, smooth, flat, white genital lesion

A

condylomata lati–> secondary syphilis

78
Q

Large bulls eye rash

A

erythema migrans–> Lyme disease

79
Q

calcified granuloma in lung, plus hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon Complex–> primary TB

80
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats and weight loss

A

Pott’s disease (extrapulmonary reactivated TB, secondary TB)

81
Q

standard treatment regimen for TB

A
  1. Rifampin
  2. Isoniazid
  3. Pyrazinamide
  4. Ethambutol
82
Q

eczema, recurrent cold abscesses, high serum IgE

A

Hyperimmunoglobilin E syndrome (Job syndrome)

83
Q

large lysosomal vesicles in phagocyte

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

84
Q

Toe extension upon stimulating sole of foot with blunt instrument

A

positive Babinski

85
Q

Hyperreflexia, increased muscle tone, positive Babinski

A

Upper Motor neuron lesion

86
Q

Hyporeflexia, decreased muscle tone, muscle atrophy, fasciculations

A

Lower motor neuron lesion

87
Q

Depigmentation of substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s disease

88
Q

Chorea, dementia, atrophy of caudate and putamen

A

Huntington’s disease

89
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of neurons

A

Lewy bodies (alpha-synulcein deposits)

90
Q

conjugate lateral gaze palsy, with nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia

91
Q

degenerating dz of dorsal columns

A

Tabes dorsalis

92
Q

demyelinating dz in a young woman

A

Multiple Sclerosis

93
Q

Mixed upper and lower motor neuron disease

A

AML

94
Q

newborn with arm paralysis following labor

A

Upper trunk (C5-C6) lesion–> Erb-duchenne palsy

95
Q

MCC of dementia

A

Alzheimers

96
Q

2nd MCC cause of dementia

A

Vascular (multi-infarct) dementia

97
Q

Extracellular amyloid deposits in grey matter

A

Amyloid plaques of Alzheimers

98
Q

Intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

Neurofibrillary tangles (alzheimers)

99
Q

intracellular spherical aggrgates of tau protein seen on silver stain

A

Pick bodies (frontotemporal dementia)