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HD2 > Placental problems > Flashcards

Placental problems Flashcards

1
Q

Define what early and late antepartum, intrapartum and postparum stages of pregnancy are

A

Antepartum:
* Early: less than 24 weeks
* Late: more than 24 weeks

Intrapartum
In labour- first and second stages

Postpartum
From delivery of the fetus until 6 weeks later

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2
Q

What is the name for severe morning sickness? [1]

A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

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3
Q

Explain the pathophysiology behind Hyperemesis Gravidarum

When does it peak? [1]

A

Correlates closely with hCG levels: which is what controls placental development.

hCG may stimulate oestrogen production from ovary causing vomiting and nausea

May be caused by vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency (vit. B supplements cause reduction in symptoms)

Peaks at about 12 weeks

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4
Q

Define what a spontaneous miscarriage is [1]

A

Fetus dies or is delivered dead before 24 weeks (most occur before week 16)

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5
Q

What are the 8 types of spontaneous miscarriage [8]

State in each if there is vaginal bleeding or not [8]

A

Complete: vaginal bleeding, both placenta and embryo expelled

Incomplete: vaginal bleeding, embryo commonly lost, placenta retained

Threatened: vaginal bleeding, fetal activity (can be potentially saved)

Missed: embryo and placenta is still in uterus, but embryo is dead. no vaginal bleeding

Recurrent: history of more than 3 spontaneous abortions

Inevitable: vaginal bleeding embryo and placenta are on the way out / coming

Septic (Rare often results from non sterile use pelvic instrumentation)

Therapeutic

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6
Q

State in each type if the cervix is opened or closed

A
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7
Q
A
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8
Q

What are the products of conception [2]

A

embryo and placenta

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9
Q

Which causative agents commonly cause a septic miscarriage? [3]

Explain why a septic miscarriage occurs [1]

What are causes of septic miscarriage? [2]

A

Usually due to Staph aureus
N. gonorrhea, C. trachomatis

Causes the contents of the uterus to be infected & causes endometritis (so may present with signs of pelvic infection)

Causes:
* Unsafe abortion
* Cervical incompetence

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10
Q

What are symtpoms of septic miscarriage:

  • localised [3]
  • systemic [2]
A

Localised:
* tender uterus
* purulent cervical discharge
* signs of pelvic infection

Systemic:
* fever
* chills

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11
Q

How do you investigate for a spontaneous miscarriage? [3]

A
  • Ultrasound scan: ID if placenta is attached to the uterus
  • Serum BetaHCG indicates that placenta is there (doubles every two-three days) - if placenta not attached to uterus the hCG levels will not rise
  • Rhesus status
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12
Q

Management of miscarriage?
- medical [1]
- surgical [1]
- for rhesus negative women [1]

A

Medical:
* misoprostol - cause the uterus to contract to expel the products of conception that are still there

Surgical:
* Surgical aspiration - gentle suction to remove the pregnancy
* Curettage (spoon-shaped instrument) to remove abnormal tissues.

Anti D to rhesus negative women

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13
Q

Recurrent miscarriage:

How many consecutive miscarriages needed to be classified? [1]

What investigations would you use for recurrent miscarriage? [3]

A

3 or more consecutive miscarriages before week 20

Investigations:
* Autoimmune + thrombophilia screen
* Karyotyping
* Pelvic US scan

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14
Q

How should a cervix appear during normal pregnancy? [1]

How does it appear during cervical incompetence? [1] What are the consequences? [2]

A

Cervix should be closed

Cervical incompetence: cervix is open: causes amniotic sac to come down through the cervix. Risk of miscarriage or infection

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15
Q

When i s

A
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16
Q

How do you ID cervical incompetence

A

Funnel shaped cervix on ultrasound

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17
Q

How do you manage cervical incompetence? [1]

A

Transvaginal cerclage: Ring of stiches around cervix

(In a transvaginal cerclage (TVC), doctors sew the cervix closed, usually during the 13th or 14th week of pregnancy. At 36 weeks, the stitches are taken out so the woman can deliver her child naturally)

18
Q

Define ectopic pregnancy [1]

A

Implantation of the fertilised ovum outside of the endometrial cavity

19
Q

What are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Risk factors
STIs/PID
Emergency contraception
IVF
Pelvic surgery
Smoking
IUCD in situ
Failed sterilisation
Previous ectopic

20
Q

How would person with ectopic pregnancy present?

A
  • Women of reproductive age
  • Positive pregnancy test/ Amenorrhoea 4-10 weeks
  • PV bleeding
  • Low abdominal pain - in right or left iliac fossa
  • Collapse +/- shoulder tip pain
  • Beta hCG is lower that normal (because no placenta in the uterus)
  • No products of conception in the uterus
21
Q

How does beta hCG change during pregnancy? (when does it peak)

A

Typically, the hCG levels will double every 72 hours. The level will reach its peak in the first 8-11 weeks of pregnancy and then will decline and level off for the remainder of the pregnancy.

22
Q

Define Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)

What is a partial mole? [1]

What is a monospermic complete mole? [1]

What is a dispermic complete mole? [1]

A

GTD: When the trophoblastic tissue that forms part of the blastocyst proliferates more aggressively than normal

Partial mole: two sperm fertilse an egg creating 69 chromosome

Monospermic mole: maternal chromosomes are lost AND paternal chromosomes double up to make 46 chromosome

Dispermic complete mole: maternal chromosomes are lost AND fertilisation by two sperm: 46 chromosome

23
Q

Explain pathophysiology of complete molar pregnancy: GTD

How do you treat? [2]

A

Complete molar pregnancy: entirely paternal tissue

No fetal tissue at histology - just placenta.

Effectively a tumour:
* surgical removal - but 15% molar tissue remains in deeper tissues of the womb so:
* need chemotherapy to remove abnormal cells

24
Q

Is the placenta derived from mother or father genetically? [1]

A

Father

25
Q

Explain what a partial molar pregnancy is [1]

Explain how a partial molar pregnancy occurs [1]

How do you treat? [1]

A

Happens when two sperm fertilise the egg at the same time- one set of chromosomes from the mother and two sets from the father: 69 chromosomes

Some fetal tissue might be seen within the molar tissue

Treatment:
Surgery to remove molar tissue - 1% have some remaining abnormal cells which require chemotherapy

26
Q

Explain what placental abruption is and the pathophysiology behind it

How serious is a placental abruption? [1]

A

Blood accumulates behind the placenta: causes uterus to be hard / wood & the placenta comes away from uterine wall

Obstetric emergency!

27
Q

How is placental abruption treated?

If the baby is dead? [1]
If no fetal or maternal distress? [1]

A

Deliver baby

Fetal distress: Urgent lower segment caesarean section

If the baby is dead: Coagulopathy likely, Induce labour when safe

If no fetal or maternal distress:
Steroids and observe

28
Q

Define placenta praevia [1]

What are the two types [2]

A

When placenta is inserted into lower segment of the uterus after 24 weeks

Major = covers cervix and internal os
Minor = marginal <2cm from internal os

29
Q

What are the symptoms of placenta praevia? [2]

How is placenta praevia detected? [1]

A

Uterus soft and non tender
Painless vaginal bleeding (usually between 32-37 weeks)

Detected by US

The main complication of placenta praevia is haemorrhage before, during and after delivery.

30
Q

Define what placenta Accreta/increta/percreta are [3]

How do you treat if maternal / fetal compromise at more than 37 weeks? [3]

A

Accreta –chorionic villi attach to myometrium rather than restricted within decidua basalis. Most common

Increta – chorionic villi invade myometrium

Percreta – chorionic villi invade through perimetrium

Treatment:
* Emergency Caesarean plus hysterectomy
* Methotrexate
* Close pelvic vessels

31
Q

Define pre-eclampsia [1]

A

HTN that develops during pregnancy after 24 weeks

32
Q

Describe pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia

What are effects of pre-eclampsia? [2]

A

Normal spiral artery in placenta should widen – slows blood flow so nutrient exchange can occur

Pre-eclampsia this doesn’t happen. Spiral arteries stay narrow: goes in at high pressure.

This causes oxidative stress in the placenta, and the release of inflammatory chemicals into the systemic circulation, leading to systemic inflammation and impaired endothelial function in the blood vessels.

Causes: fetal growth restriction or pre-term birth

33
Q

Which syndrome may pre-eclampsia lead to? [1]

What are the symptoms of this syndrome? [3]

A

Woman with this condition may develop the HELLP syndrome

This is characterised by haemolysis (raised LDH), elevated liver enzymes and low platelets.

34
Q

Which condition can pre-eclampsia lead to? [1]

How can you prevent progession to this ^? [1]

What is the only definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia? [1]

A

A complication of pre-eclampsia includes progression to eclampsia, which should be prevented by administration of magnesium sulphate.

The only definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia is delivery

35
Q

Management of pre-eclampsia:

What BP should you aim for? [1]

What drugs do you use to stabilise mothers BP? [2]

Which anti-hypertensives & anticonvulsants would you use for acute [2] and chronic treatment? [2]

A
  • BP aim: less than 135 / 85 mmHG
  • Stabilise mothers BP: aspirin (from week 12 to birth); calcium supplementation (from week 20 onwards)
  • Acute treatment:
    Labetalol – alpha and beta blocker / antagonist
    Hydralazine
  • Chronic management
    Methyldopa – alpha 2 agonist (feeds back and stops noradrenaline being released)
    Nifedipine - CCB
36
Q

Explain the pathophysiology behind Hyperemesis Gravidarum [4]

When does it peak? [1]

A

Correlates closely with high hCG levels: which is what controls placental development

From placenta: get higher levels of GDF15

hCG may stimulate oestrogen and progesterone production from ovary causing vomiting and nausea

May be caused by vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency (vit. B supplements cause reduction in symptoms)

Peaks at about 12 weeks

37
Q

Name and explain the MoA of the anti-emetics you would use to treat hyperemesis gravidarum [4]

A
  • Prochlorperazine (stemetil)
  • Cyclizine: histamine H1 receptor antagonist
  • Ondansetron: Blocks 5HT-3 in chemical trigger zone/vomiting centre
  • Metoclopramide: Blocks D2 in chemical trigger zone/vomiting centre
  • Vitamin B6
38
Q

Why might hyperemesis gravidarum cause hosptialisation? [4]

A
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • ketosis
  • weight loss
39
Q

Name 5 reasons for bleeding in early pregnancy [5]

What is prognosis for bleeding in early pregnancy? [2]

A
  • Cervical insensitivity
  • Infection
  • Molar pregnancy
  • Subchorionic haemorrhage
  • Implantation bleeding

50% will settle
50% will:
Miscarry (spontaneous abortion)
Have an ectopic pregnancy
Have trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole)
Have problems in late pregnancy

40
Q

What is twin to twin transfusion? [1]

Which type of pregnancy does it occur in? [1]

How do you treat? [1]

A

which twins share unequal amounts of the placenta’s blood supply resulting in the two fetuses growing at different rates.

Only affects mono-chorionic pregnancies

Treat with laser ablation on the anastomosing vessels

41
Q

What is velamentous insertion of umbilical cord into placenta?

A

complication that happens when the umbilical cord from a fetus doesn’t insert into the placenta correctly.

causes compression of own bloody supply

42
Q

If a women has endometriosis and pain when defecating, where are the locations that might get likely accumulation of blood from the extra-pelvic endometrial tissue? [2]

A

Pouch of Douglas
Bowel

HD2 (55 decks)

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