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HD2 > HD2 Revision6 > Flashcards

HD2 Revision6 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe pathophysiology caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • What process does the A-B subunit inhbit? [1]
  • What are the pathological consequences for the heart [2] & nerves? [3]
  • What structural change occurs in mouth? [1]
A

Diphtheria toxin: A and B subunits inhibits protein synthesis:

Heart implications:
- Myocarditis
- Heart block

Nerve implications:
- Difficulty swallowing
- Paralysis
- Diplopia

Get pseudomembrane in mouth

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2
Q

What are the three cocci gram +ve organsims need to know? [3]

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

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3
Q

What are the four bacilli gram +ve organsims need to know? [3]

A

Corynebacterium
Listeria
Bacillus: cereus (food pois); anthracis (anthrax)
Clostridium: tetani botulinum, difficile

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4
Q

Which part of the LPS membrane of bacteria is toxic? [1]

When is this released? [1]

A

Lipid A

Released during lysis of organsim

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5
Q

Meningococcal disease refers to any illness caused by bacteria called []

Pneumococcal disease is a name for any infection caused by bacteria called []

A

Meningococcal disease refers to any illness caused by bacteria called Neisseria meningitidis.

Pneumococcal disease is a name for any infection caused by bacteria called Streptococcus pneumoniae

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6
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of meningococcal disease

A
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7
Q

Which two molecules are activated by LPS that cause inflammatory cascade for meningococcal disease? [2]

A

IL-6
TNF-α

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8
Q

Name three most common causes of septicaemia and meningitis [3]

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitidis
* Group B and C
* Increase in Group W since 2009
* Teenagers, university students

Haemophilus influenzae B (HiB)

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9
Q

Describe what would indicate on a gram stain that have a Streptococcus pneumoniae infection? [1]

A

Diplococci (come in pairs)

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10
Q

What are the three cocci gram +ve organsims need to know? [3]

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

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11
Q

Which of the following causes “Pneumococcus”

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

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12
Q

Explain three immune defects that could predispose an individual to an pneuomococcal infection [3]

A
  • HIV infection
  • Hypogammaglobulinaemia (low levels of IgG due to B cells not being able to mature)
  • Absent / non-functional spleen
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13
Q

Give three reasons for an absent / non-functional spleen [3]

A

Congenital asplenia
Traumatic removal
Hyposplenism (eg sickle cell)

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14
Q

Name 4 invasive features of Streptococcus pneumoniae infection

A
  • Meningitis
  • Sepsis
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Septic arthritis
  • Peritonitis
  • Lobar pneumonia
  • Empyema
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15
Q

Name the two most common presentations of Pneumococcal pneumonia (Streptococcus pneumoniae) [2]

A
  1. Lobar pneuomonia
  2. Empyema (a serious complication characterized by pus and bacteria in the pleural)
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16
Q

How would you manage empyema caused by pneuomococcal pneuomonia? [2]

A

Chest drain
Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)

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17
Q

Name two rheumatological implications of pneuomococcal pneuomonia infection

A

Osteomyelitis (inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection)

Septic arthritis

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18
Q

Name the two vaccinations for Streptococcus pneumoniae [2] and how many serotypes they protect agaisnt [2]

A

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV): Penuomax - covers 23 serotypes

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV): Prevenar protects against 13 serotypes

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19
Q

Meningococcal disease describes infections caused by the bacterium []

A

Meningococcal disease describes infections caused by the bacterium Neisseria meningitidis

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20
Q

Which pathogen causes A? [1]

A

Corynebacterium dipetheria

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21
Q

Which pathogen cauese this symptom? [1]

A

Neisseria meningitidis - septic patient

22
Q

What is the most common cause of lobal pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

23
Q

What is the most common organism responsible for infective endocarditis?

Streptococcus bovis
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

A

What is the most common organism responsible for infective endocarditis?

Streptococcus bovis
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans

24
Q

A 6-year-old child presents to your clinic unwell with a fever and sore throat. Upon further history taking you discover he has not had any vaccinations. On examination, there is a grey-white coloured membrane covering his tonsils.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

A

A 6-year-old child presents to your clinic unwell with a fever and sore throat. Upon further history taking you discover he has not had any vaccinations. On examination, there is a grey-white coloured membrane covering his tonsils.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

25
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

A

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

26
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

A

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

27
Q

Which pathogens cause A & B? [2]

A

A: measles
B: scarlet fever

28
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

A

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever - looks a little bit like sunburn

29
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever

A

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
Rubella
Measles
Scarlet Fever Scarlet fever: white strawberry tongue (left) and red strawberry tongue (right)

30
Q

Which of types of malaria can lie dormant? [2]

A

F. vivax, F. ovale

31
Q

What type of virus is enterovirus, Hep A & rotavirus?

Enveloped RNA
Envelopoed DNA
Non-enveloped RNA
Non-enveloped DNA

A

What type of virus is enterovirus, Hep A & rotavirus?

Enveloped RNA
Envelopoed DNA
Non-enveloped RNA
Non-enveloped DNA

32
Q

Name this symptom [1]
What causative agent is most likely to have caused this infection?

A

Herpetic whitlow

Caused by HSV-1 (60% of cases, HSV-2 in 40%)

33
Q

Name the most likely causative agent of this symptom [1]

A

Epstein-Barr Virus - causing infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

34
Q

What causative agent is most likely to have caused this? [1]

A

Congenital CMV infection

35
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
VZV
Measles
Scarlet Fever

A

Which pathogen is most likely to have caused this symptom?

Diphtheria
Mumps
VZV
Measles
Scarlet Fever

36
Q

What is this infection? [1]
Name the two most likely causative agents? [1]

A

Impetigo

Agents: group A Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus.

37
Q

Label the causative agents of A-C

A

A: VZV
B: Scarlet Fever
C: Measles

38
Q

Name the most likely causative agent of this symptom [1]

A

Epstein-Barr Virus - causing infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

39
Q

Which is the most severe form of malaria? [1]

A

Plasmodium falciparum

40
Q

Explain pathophysiology of malaria life cycle

A

Malaria is spread by mosquitoes

Infected blood is sucked up by feeding female Anopheles mosquito.

Malaria in the blood reproduces in the gut of the mosquito producing thousands of sporozoites (malaria spores).

The mosquito bites another human or animal the sporozoites are injected by the mosquito. These sporozoites travel to the liver of the newly infected person

Sporozoites mature in the liver into merozoites which enter the blood and infect red blood cells.

merozoites reproduce over 48 hours, after which the red blood cells rupture releasing loads more merozoites into the blood and causing a haemolytic anaemia

41
Q

What are severe consequences of malaria? [4]

A
  • Haemolytic Anaemia
  • Respiratory distress
  • Cerebral malaria (coma, seizures)
  • Hypoglycaemia
42
Q

Treatment for malaria? [3]

A
  • Artesunate.
  • Combination treatment (eg Coartem: artemether-lumefantrine
  • Quinine dihydrochloride
43
Q

What are the important enveloped RNA viruses need to know? [10]

A

Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
RSV, influenza, parainfluenza
SARS-CoV-2
Hepatitis C
HIV

Often respiratory viruses

44
Q

What are the important not-enveloped RNA viruses need to know? [3]

A

Rotavirus
Enteroviruses (includes polio)
Hepatitis A

All enteric viruses

45
Q

What are the important enveloped DNA viruses need to know?

A

Herpes viruses
* Herpes simplex
* Varicella zoster
* CMV
* Epstein-Barr
* HHV 6/7/8

Hepatitis B
Poxviruses

Learn all lol

46
Q

What are the non-enveloped DNA viruses need to know? [3]

A

Papillomavirus
Adenovirus
Parvovirus (ssDNA)
PAPs

47
Q

Explain the differences in the presentations of Herpes simplex in older children and adults [3] compared to very young children [2]

A

Older children and adults: relatively benign
* Herpes labialis
* Herpetic whitlow
* Cold sore

Neonates: causes perncious effects via two presentations:

  • Disseminated HSV
  • HSV encephalitis:
48
Q

Treatment of congenital CMV? [2]
How does it work agaisnt CMV [1]
How long should treatment last? [1]

A

IV ganciclovir
or
oral valganciclovir (pro-drug) :inhibits DNA synthesis

6 months of treatment reduces hearing loss and improves neurodevelopment

49
Q

What are potential secondary bacterial infections of VZV? [1]
Name a consequence of this secondary bacterial infection [1]

A

Strep. infection (specifically Strep A)
Causes Necrotizing fasciitis

50
Q

Name a virus that is usually asymptomatic in early life but is typically worse in 15-25 years old [1]

A

Epstein-Barr virus: causes infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

51
Q

Which virus has differing chronicty depending on age at infection? [1]

A

Hep. B

52
Q

How does Hepatitis B chronicity depend on age at infection?

A

Chronic HBV infection occurs in approximately 90% of newborns infected perinatally, 30% of children aged under 5 years, and <5% of immunocompetent adults.

HD2 (55 decks)

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