Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HD2 > HD2 Revision1 > Flashcards

HD2 Revision1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the sacrotuberous ligament? [1]

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

From where in the hip bone does the gluteus medius originate?

Iliac fossa

Anterior aspect of the iliac crest

Greater sciatic notch

External surface of the ileal wing

A

From where in the hip bone does the gluteus medius originate?

Iliac fossa

Anterior aspect of the iliac crest

Greater sciatic notch

External surface of the ileal wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The piriformis seperates which neurovascular structures?

A

Suprapiriform foramen:
* The superior gluteal artery and nerve

Infrapiriform foramen
* Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
* Inferior gluteal vessels and nerves
* Nerve to quadratus femoris
* Pudendal nerve
* Internal pudendal vessels
* Nerve to obturator internus
* Sciatic nerve

PINS & PINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which arteries split from the common iliac arteries and dont stay in the pelvis? [4]

Which arteries split from the common iliac arteries and stay in the pelvis? [3]

A

Leaves:
* obturator
* femoral
* gluteal
* internal pudendal arteries

Remains:
* middle rectal artery
* uterine artery
* superior vesicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an episiotomy?

What are the two types? [2]

A

Surgical incision of the perineum and posterior vaginal wall

Two types:

Midline episiotomy: Posterior aspect of labia minora (fourchette) along midline

Mediolateral episiotomy” Fourchette diagonally towards midpoint between ischial tuberosity and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The uterine artery passes over the []. The [] is therefore at risk during [].

A

The uterine artery passes over the ureter. The ureter is therefore at risk during hysterectomies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the normal position of the uterus? [2]

A

The normal position of the uterus is anteverted and anteflexed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can cause uterine prolapse? [2]

A

Secondary to pelvic floor and uterine ligament dysfunction

Multifactorial in etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which structure can be inserted to stop uterine prolapse? [1]

A

Ring Pessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Label A-C of female ligaments

A

A: Broad ligament
B: Ovarian ligament
C: Round ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which muscle is highlighted here? [1]

A

piriformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen structures? [3]

A

Pudendal nerve
Internal pudendal artery
Internal pudendal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is the ligament highlighted?

Sacrospinous ligament

Sacrotuberous ligament

Anterior sacroiliac ligament

Ischial tuberosity

A

Which is the ligament highlighted?

Sacrospinous ligament

Sacrotuberous ligament

Anterior sacroiliac ligament

Ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is sacrotuberous ligament?
A
B
C
D
E
F

A

Which of the following is sacrotuberous ligament?
A
B
C
D
E
F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is piriformis?
A
B
C
D
E
F

A

Which of the following is piriformis?
A
B
C
D
E
F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Label A-C

A

a iliococcygeus muscle
b pubococcygeus muscle
c puborectalis muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

label A-F

A

A - coccygeus

B - iliococcygeus

C - pubococcygeus

D - puborectalis

E - tendinous arch of levator ani

F - obturator internus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is autonomic supply to pelvis like?

A

PNS: pelvic splachnic nerves from S2, S3 & S4

SNS: via superior hypogastric plexus (continuation of the aortic plexus). contains sympathetic, ascedending PNS and viseceral afferent fibres.

superior hypogastric –> left and right inferior hypogastric plexi eitherside of the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which muscle is highlighted here? [1]

A

piriformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of bacteria is Chlamdydia trachomatis? [1]

Is it gram postive or gram negative? [1]

A

Obligate aerobic intracellular pathogen

Chlamydia trachomatis is a gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain lifecycle of Chlamdydia trachomatis
- what are the two different forms? [2]
- Which type is infectious? [1]
- which type of replicative? [1]

A

Exists in two different forms:
- the elementary body, which is the infectious form
- the reticulate body, which is the replicative form

Infect as an elementary body, then turns in to reticulate body, after a while becomes elementary body and bursts and infects

24
Q

What are complications of Chlamdydia trachomatis? [2]

What are treatments for Chlamdydia trachomatis? [2]

A

Complications
* Reactive arthritis
* INFERTILITY – can cause ectopic pregnancy due to scarring of uterus

Treatment
* Azithromycin
* Doxycycline

25
Q

What are male [5], female [4] and neonate [1] from having Neisseria gonorrhoea

A

Males:
* Urethritis
* proctitis
* sore throat
* epididymitis
* prostatitis

Females:
* Cervicitis,
* PID
* ,Peri-hepatitis
* septic abortion - gets into amniotic sac and infects baby

Neonates
* Conjunctivitis

26
Q

What are systemic complications of Neisseria gonorrhoea? [4]

A
  • Septic arthritis
  • blindness
  • infertility
  • septicaemia
27
Q

How do you treat Neisseria gonorrhoea? [1]

A

Ceftriaxone

28
Q

Which variants of HPV are linked to cancer? [4]
Which variants of HPV are targeted by Gardasil vaccine? [2]

A

Cancerous: HPV 16, 18, 31,33

Vaccine: HPV 16 and 18

29
Q

What are the two types of Herpes Simplex Virus? [2]

What are the modes of transmission for each? [2]

A

HSV-1 oral
HSV-2 genital

30
Q

What are the two types of Chlamdydia trachomatis (that need to know) [2]

What do they cause? [2]

A

Serovars D-K: infects genital tract epithelial cells
Males: Urethritis, epipdidymitis, prostatitis
Females: Cervicitis, PID, Fitz-Hugh Curtis (liver capsule adhesions)
Neonate - conjunctivitis and pneumonia

Serovars L1-3
Causes: Lymphogranuloma venereum

31
Q

What are the treatment options for herpes? [3]

A

Management:
Topical podophyllotoxin
imiquimod
Cryotherapy

32
Q

What type of cells does herpes virus intergrate into?

epithelial cells
nerve cells
muscle cells
endothelial cells

A

What type of cells does herpes virus intergrate into?

epithelial cells
nerve cells
muscle cells
endothelial cells

33
Q

Drug management for herpes? [3]

A

Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Valaciclovir

34
Q

Explain life cycle of Syphilis (Treponema pallidum) [4]

A

Primary:
* single sore or multiple sores. The sore is the location where syphilis entered your body. These sores usually occur in, on, or around the penis; vagina; anus; rectum; and
lips or in the mouth
* 3 to 6 weeks and heals regardless of whether you receive treatment.

Secondary:
* Rash, fever, lymphadenopath, Condyloma latum (wart like lesions on genitals)
* This stage usually starts with a rash on one or more areas of your body. The rash can show up when your primary sore is healing or several weeks after the sore has healed. The rash can be on the palms of your hands and/or the bottoms of your feet

Latent:
* No signs or symptoms

Tertiary:
* However, when it does happen, it can affect many different organ systems. These include the heart and blood vessels, and the brain and nervous system.
* Tertiary syphilis is very serious and would occur 10–30 years after your infection began
* Can result in death

35
Q

Which stages of HIV lifecycle to HAART target / what are the drug types? [5]

A

Protease Inhibitors (PIs)
Integrase Inhibitors (IIs)
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)
Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)
Entry Inhibitors (EIs; fusion inhibitors, CCR5 antagonist)

36
Q

What are short term [4] and long term [5] problems of HAART treatment?

A

Problems with HAART

  • Short-term side effects: nausea, vomiting, headache, sleep disturbance (caused by efavirenz)
  • Long term: lipodystrophy (NRTIs and PIs), renal dysfunction (tenofovir), peripheral neuropathy (d4T, AZT, DDI), lactic acidosis (may be fatal, d4T, DDI)
37
Q

Name 3 opportunisitic infections and 3 malignancies caused by HIV infection

A
  • Opportunistic infections cause viral, fungal, bacterial, mycobacterial and parasitic infections
  • Malignancies: Kaposi’s sarcoma, lymphoma, carcinoma of cervix
38
Q

What are the 4 types of ovulatory causes of infertility? [4]

A

Type 1: hypothalamic
* hypothalamic amenorrhea
* anorexia nervosa (both men and women)

Type 2: pituitary:
* Hyperprolactinaemia - increase prolactin (mimics that you are breasfeeding: causes decrease in LH & FSH)

Type 3: ovarian:
* Premature ovarian failure

Type 4:
* polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

39
Q

Explain pathophysiology of PCOS

A

Oocytes develop in the ovary, but have become ovarian cysts (follicles that have not ovulated - become fluid filled and cover outer surface)

Occurs because of hyperandrogenism (increased testosterone) in reproductve system

highly genetic

40
Q

What scoring system is used to ID PCOS? [1]

What score need to diagnose PCOS? [1]

Name 3 things that could get a point for this system? [3]

A

Rotterdam criteria: need 2/3
* Clinical hyperandrogenism (high testosterone)
* Oligomenorrhoea (less than 6-9 menses per year)
* PCOS on ultrasound

41
Q

Explain why testosterone is raised in PCOS [3]

A

PCOS:

Initial response to LH from follicle.
At around 8cm follicle development stops: granulosa cells are lost.
Normally testosterone would be converted to oestrogen, but now doesnt: so secreted out

42
Q

What would levels of LH, FSH & free testosterone be like in PCOS patients? [3]

A

FSH: Raised
LH: normal
Free Testosterone: Raised

43
Q

Explain 5 tubal / uterine causes of infertility

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease:
* Bacterial infection spreading to vagina or cervix causes blockages / inflammation of uterine tubes OR adhesions that stick uterus to uterine tubes
* Commonly chlamdyia or gonorrhoea

Previous tubal surgery
* E.g for ectopic pregnancy

Endometriosis
* Bits of endometrium are outside of uterine cavity (e.g. on fallopian tube or bowell - will grow and develop due to oestrogen and progesterone. But when stop during in menstrual cycle: will bleed. Causes discomfort

Fibriods
* uterine smooth muscle growth and creates nodules (causing discomfort)
* stops uterus wall expanding properly when pregnant
* causes heavy periods & pain on intercourse

cervical mucus defects
* transforms into hostile environment all the time (instead of changing to hostile environment mid-cycle)

44
Q

Explain the main pathophysiology that causes repeated miscarriages? [2]

A

(lots of reasons)

Main: blood coagulation protein / platelet defects
* Defects in factor XIII and factor XII
* Having anti-cardiolpin antibodies, lupus anticoagulant or antiphospholipid syndrome

others include:

  • Anatomical anomalies - cervical incompetence
  • Genetic / chromsome abnormalities - trisomy 21 etc
  • Endocrine / hormonal abnormalities

MOST ARE TREATABLE

45
Q

How can you treat blood coagulation protein / platelet defects causing repeated miscarriages? [1]

A

Aspirin

46
Q

Name 4 reasons why male infertility may occur

A
  • less than 120 million sperm
  • Hormone imbalance (hypogonadism)
  • Anti-sperm antibodies
  • Varicocele (varicous veins of testes)
  • Sperm quality and movement
  • Undescended testis
  • Obstruction (vasectomy, cystic fibrosis)
  • Ejaculatory problems (retrograde and premature)
  • Erectile dysfunction
47
Q

Explain immunological causes of combined infertility

A

Develop antisperm antibodies (ASA): IgG, IgA and IgM

Causes a breakdown of blood testis barrier (usually blood shouldn’t come in contact with sperm) because its only haploid - is recognised as foreign so is broken down

48
Q

Explain a genetic cause of combined infertility

A

During male development SRY downfeeds to SF-1 which causes get rid of uterus when developing in men.

Mutation in gene NR5A1 that codes for SF-1 causes 46XY but with non obstructive male infertility:

Can develop female external external genitalia, uturus and uterine BUT no gonads

OR can have low testosterone and develop azoospermia

49
Q

What are 4 reasons why unexplained infertility may occur

A

Celiac disease
Thyroid imbalance
Folate deficiency
High sperm DNA damage

50
Q

What test would you use to check sperm DNA integrity? [1]

A

Sperm chromatin integrity test

51
Q

Investigating infertility with a PCOS screen - what would you assess? [5]

A
  • Day 21 progesterone - if greater than 30nmol / L indicates ovulation viable.
  • Raised LH
  • Normal / Slightly raised FSH
  • Raised testosterone
  • Abnormal glucose (because DMT2 is big risk factor)
52
Q

Investigating infertility apart from PCOS - would you you investigate? [5]

A

Thyroid (TSH / TFT levels)
Vitamin D levels (increased vit D is better)
HbA1C
Viral screen - Rubella, HIV, hepatits
STI screen (undiagnosed chlamydia or gonorrheaa)

53
Q

What are secondary care investigations would conduct to assess ovulatory function?

A

Bloods from primary care
Ovarian reserve: Response to gonadotrophin stimulation in IVF
Assess tubal function: Hysterosalpingogram
Assess uterine function
Laparoscopy

54
Q

Which pathology is consequence of long term assisted reproduction techniques? [1]

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome: consequence of drugs used to stimulate ovarian function in IVF.

Presents similarly to PCOS as get cysts developing

55
Q

What is a potential risk for children who are born from women over 35 with IVF? [1]

What is a potential risk for mothers who have children, who are over 35 and use IVF? [1]

A

Increase in congenital defects

Increase in cancer for the mothers

HD2 (55 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions